This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Surgical Anatomy & Approaches. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 861
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
During open reduction and internal fixation of a proximal humerus fracture, a deltopectoral approach is utilized. Which two nerves supply the muscles that form the internervous plane for this approach?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Axillary nerve and Musculocutaneous nerve
Explanation
The deltopectoral approach uses the internervous plane between the deltoid (innervated by the axillary nerve) and the pectoralis major (innervated by the medial and lateral pectoral nerves).
Question 862
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 32-year-old man sustains a displaced 3-part proximal humerus fracture after a high-speed motorcycle accident. An axillary nerve injury is suspected. Which clinical finding is the most reliable indicator of axillary nerve dysfunction?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Decreased sensation over the medial forearm
Explanation
The axillary nerve provides motor innervation to the deltoid and teres minor, and sensory innervation to the lateral shoulder (regimental badge area). Sensation loss here combined with lack of palpable deltoid contraction confirms its dysfunction.
Question 863
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
During an open reduction and internal fixation of a proximal humerus fracture using an extended deltopectoral approach, which nerve is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury when mobilizing the inferior capsule and placing retractors inferior to the humeral head?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Musculocutaneous nerve
Explanation
The axillary nerve travels anteriorly to posteriorly through the quadrilateral space, passing just inferior to the shoulder capsule. It is at significant risk of injury during inferior capsular release, excessive traction, or from misplaced retractors positioned inferior to the humeral head.
Question 864
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 35-year-old man sustains a closed midshaft humerus fracture. Initial emergency department examination reveals normal distal neurovascular function. Following the application of a coaptation splint and closed reduction, the patient is unable to actively extend his wrist or fingers. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Immediate surgical exploration of the radial nerve
Explanation
A secondary radial nerve palsy that develops immediately after a closed reduction attempt of a humeral shaft fracture is an absolute indication for surgical exploration. This presentation suggests the nerve has been incarcerated in the fracture site during reduction.
Question 865
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
During a classic posterior approach to the shoulder for internal fixation of a scapular neck fracture, the internervous plane is developed. Which of the following nerves is at greatest risk of injury during overzealous medial retraction of the superior muscle in this interval?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Axillary nerve
Explanation
The posterior approach utilizes the interval between the infraspinatus (suprascapular nerve) and teres minor (axillary nerve). Medial retraction of the infraspinatus places the suprascapular nerve at risk as it courses around the spinoglenoid notch.
Question 866
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
Following a traumatic anterior shoulder dislocation, a 65-year-old patient develops numbness over the lateral aspect of the shoulder and an inability to actively abduct the arm past 15 degrees. Which peripheral nerve is most likely injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Musculocutaneous nerve
Explanation
The axillary nerve is the most commonly injured nerve during anterior shoulder dislocations. Injury leads to deltoid paralysis (loss of abduction past 15 degrees) and loss of sensation over the lateral shoulder (regimental badge area).
Question 867
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 35-year-old man sustains a closed midshaft humerus fracture. Upon presentation in the emergency department, his radial nerve function is intact. He undergoes a closed reduction and splinting. Post-reduction examination reveals a new-onset complete loss of wrist extension and thumb extension. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Immediate surgical exploration and internal fixation
Explanation
A primary radial nerve palsy (present at injury) is typically observed. However, a secondary radial nerve palsy that develops immediately after a closed reduction is an absolute indication for surgical exploration due to the high risk of nerve entrapment in the fracture site.
Question 868
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 58-year-old female sustains a displaced two-part surgical neck fracture of the proximal humerus. She complains of numbness over the lateral aspect of her shoulder. Which nerve is most likely injured, and what is its correct anatomic relationship in the shoulder?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Musculocutaneous nerve; travels deep to the conjoined tendon
Explanation
The axillary nerve is the most commonly injured nerve in proximal humerus fractures, presenting with lateral deltoid numbness. It exits the axilla posteriorly through the quadrilateral space, bordered superiorly by the teres minor, inferiorly by the teres major, medially by the long head of the triceps, and laterally by the humeral shaft.
Question 869
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
When performing an anterolateral approach (deltoid split) for plating a proximal humerus fracture, how far distal to the lateral edge of the acromion is it generally safe to split the deltoid before placing the axillary nerve at significant risk?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 1 cm
Explanation
The axillary nerve courses transversely across the deep surface of the deltoid approximately 5 to 7 cm distal to the lateral edge of the acromion. Splitting the deltoid longitudinally beyond 5 cm places the nerve at significant risk of iatrogenic injury.
Question 870
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 65-year-old female sustains a closed, highly displaced proximal humerus fracture after a fall. Following closed reduction and splinting, she is noted to have decreased sensation over the lateral aspect of her shoulder and is unable to actively contract her deltoid. Injury to which of the following nerves is most likely responsible for these findings?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Suprascapular nerve
Explanation
The axillary nerve is the most commonly injured nerve in proximal humerus fractures and anterior shoulder dislocations. It supplies motor innervation to the deltoid and teres minor, and sensation to the lateral shoulder (superior lateral cutaneous nerve of the arm).
Question 871
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
During a deltopectoral approach for open reduction and internal fixation of a proximal humerus fracture, the cephalic vein is identified. Which of the following correctly describes the internervous plane utilized in this surgical approach?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Between the axillary nerve and suprascapular nerve
Explanation
The deltopectoral approach utilizes the internervous plane between the deltoid (innervated by the axillary nerve) and the pectoralis major (innervated by the medial and lateral pectoral nerves).
Question 872
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A surgeon utilizes the standard deltopectoral approach for a total shoulder arthroplasty. To safely access the anterior shoulder joint, the internervous plane developed relies on the innervation of the deltoid and pectoralis major muscles. Which of the following represents the correct internervous plane?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Axillary nerve and suprascapular nerve
Explanation
The deltopectoral approach exploits the internervous plane between the deltoid (innervated by the axillary nerve) and the pectoralis major (innervated by the medial and lateral pectoral nerves). This allows safe access to the anterior shoulder without denervating either muscle.
Question 873
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
The anterior (Smith-Petersen) surgical approach to the hip is favored in certain procedures because it utilizes a true internervous plane. This plane is located between muscles innervated by which of the following nerve pairs?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Femoral nerve and obturator nerve
Explanation
The anterior approach utilizes the internervous plane between the tensor fasciae latae (innervated by the superior gluteal nerve) and the sartorius (innervated by the femoral nerve). This preserves the motor supply to both muscles.
Question 874
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
During an anterior intrapelvic (modified Stoppa) approach to the acetabulum, brisk arterial bleeding is encountered near the superior pubic ramus. This bleeding most likely originates from an anomalous anastomosis between the obturator vessels and which of the following?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Internal pudendal artery
Explanation
The "corona mortis" is an anatomical variant vascular connection between the obturator system and the external iliac or inferior epigastric system. It is located on the posterior aspect of the superior pubic ramus and is at high risk during anterior intrapelvic approaches.
Question 875
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
During the classic ilioinguinal approach to the pelvis, the middle window is accessed to treat anterior column fractures. Which structures define the medial and lateral borders of this middle window?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Iliopectineal fascia and the lateral border of the rectus abdominis
Explanation
The middle window of the ilioinguinal approach is accessed between the iliopsoas/femoral nerve (bound by the iliopectineal fascia) laterally and the external iliac vessels medially.
Question 876
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A surgeon is performing a posterior approach to the humerus. To identify the radial nerve, she explores the triangular interval. This interval is bounded by the long head of the triceps, the teres major, and which of the following structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral head of the triceps
Explanation
The triangular interval is bounded superiorly by the teres major, medially by the long head of the triceps, and laterally by the lateral head of the triceps or humeral shaft. It contains the radial nerve and the profunda brachii artery.
Question 877
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
During a volar approach to the proximal radius (Henry approach), the radial nerve is at risk when exposing the proximal third of the shaft. To safely mobilize the supinator muscle and protect the posterior interosseous nerve, the forearm should be placed in what position?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Full pronation
Explanation
Placing the forearm in full supination displaces the posterior interosseous nerve laterally, away from the surgical field during the volar (Henry) approach to the proximal radius.
Question 878
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A patient suffers a traction injury to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus (Erb's palsy). Which of the following nerves branches directly from the roots of the brachial plexus and may remain intact depending on the exact level of the lesion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Suprascapular nerve
Explanation
The dorsal scapular nerve (C5) and the long thoracic nerve (C5-C7) arise directly from the roots of the brachial plexus. The suprascapular nerve branches more distally from the upper trunk.
Question 879
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 35-year-old man undergoes a deltopectoral approach for open reduction and internal fixation of a proximal humerus fracture. During the procedure, a vessel passing through the quadrangular space with the axillary nerve is inadvertently injured. Which of the following arteries is most likely affected?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior circumflex humeral artery
Explanation
The quadrangular space transmits the axillary nerve and the posterior circumflex humeral artery. The boundaries are the teres minor (superior), teres major (inferior), long head of triceps (medial), and humerus (lateral).
Question 880
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
During an anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach to the hip for an open reduction of a developmental dysplasia of the hip, the surgeon utilizes a true internervous plane. This superficial plane is developed between muscles innervated by which two nerves?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Femoral nerve and obturator nerve
Explanation
The superficial internervous plane for the Smith-Petersen approach is between the sartorius (femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (superior gluteal nerve). The deep plane lies between the rectus femoris (femoral nerve) and gluteus medius (superior gluteal nerve).
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