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Question 741

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During the surgical fixation of an anterior column acetabular fracture via an ilioinguinal approach, significant arterial hemorrhage is encountered posterior to the superior pubic ramus. This bleeding is most likely originating from an anastomosis between the obturator vessels and which of the following?

. Internal iliac artery
. External iliac or inferior epigastric artery
. Superior gluteal artery
. Internal pudendal artery
. Femoral artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. External iliac or inferior epigastric artery


Explanation

The corona mortis is a vascular anastomosis between the obturator vessels and the external iliac or inferior epigastric vessels. It crosses the superior pubic ramus and is at high risk during the ilioinguinal or Stoppa approaches.

Question 742

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During the surgical management of an anterior column acetabular fracture via the modified Stoppa approach, a retropubic vascular anastomosis is encountered. Injury to this structure, often called the "corona mortis," can cause massive hemorrhage. This structure typically represents an anastomosis between which of the following vessels?

. Internal iliac artery and superior gluteal artery
. Inferior epigastric (or external iliac) vessels and obturator vessels
. Internal pudendal artery and external pudendal artery
. Deep circumflex iliac artery and femoral artery
. Superior vesical artery and middle rectal artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inferior epigastric (or external iliac) vessels and obturator vessels


Explanation

The corona mortis is a critical retropubic vascular anastomosis connecting the external iliac system (typically the inferior epigastric vessels) and the internal iliac system (obturator vessels). It crosses the superior pubic ramus and is highly vulnerable to iatrogenic injury during the ilioinguinal or modified Stoppa approaches.

Question 743

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 26-year-old man sustains an anterior shoulder dislocation. After successful closed reduction, he is noted to have weakness with shoulder abduction and decreased sensation over the lateral aspect of the deltoid. Which nerve is most likely injured?

. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Radial nerve
. Axillary nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Long thoracic nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axillary nerve


Explanation

The axillary nerve is the most commonly injured nerve in anterior shoulder dislocations. It innervates the deltoid and teres minor, providing sensation to the lateral shoulder.

Question 744

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 32-year-old woman sustains a closed, isolated midshaft humerus fracture. She presents with a wrist drop and inability to extend her metacarpophalangeal joints. What is the most appropriate initial management of her nerve injury?

. Immediate surgical exploration of the radial nerve
. Electromyography (EMG) testing in the emergency department
. Observation and supportive splinting
. Emergent MRI of the arm
. Primary nerve grafting

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation and supportive splinting


Explanation

Primary radial nerve palsies associated with closed humeral shaft fractures are mostly neuropraxias and typically recover spontaneously. Observation and supportive splinting for 3-4 months is the initial management of choice.

Question 745

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 65-year-old woman sustains a volar-displaced distal radius fracture. Which nerve is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury during a standard Henry (volar) surgical approach for plate osteosynthesis?

. Ulnar nerve
. Anterior interosseous nerve
. Posterior interosseous nerve
. Palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve
. Superficial radial nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve


Explanation

The palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve courses in the interval between the flexor carpi radialis (FCR) and palmaris longus. It is at high risk of injury during the volar Henry approach if retractors are carelessly placed ulnar to the FCR tendon.

Question 746

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 28-year-old male suffers a closed, mid-shaft humeral fracture. Neurological examination reveals a wrist drop and inability to extend the metacarpophalangeal joints. The fracture is treated with a functional brace. At 12 weeks, there is no clinical or electromyographic (EMG) evidence of radial nerve recovery. What is the next best step?

. Continued bracing and observation for another 6 weeks
. Immediate tendon transfers
. Surgical exploration of the radial nerve
. Switching to an airplane splint
. Amputation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Surgical exploration of the radial nerve


Explanation

Most radial nerve palsies associated with closed humeral shaft fractures represent a neuropraxia and resolve spontaneously. However, the lack of clinical and EMG recovery at 12 to 16 weeks is a strict indication for surgical exploration of the radial nerve.

Question 747

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 45-year-old male laborer falls from a height and sustains a completely displaced, closed transverse fracture of the acetabulum with a large posterior wall component. Which surgical approach provides the most direct access to visualize and reduce the posterior wall and posterior column?

. Ilioinguinal approach
. Modified Stoppa approach
. Kocher-Langenbeck approach
. Smith-Petersen approach
. Watson-Jones approach

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Kocher-Langenbeck approach


Explanation

The Kocher-Langenbeck approach is the standard and most frequently used posterior approach to the acetabulum. It provides excellent direct visualization for the anatomical reduction and stable internal fixation of posterior column and posterior wall fractures.

Question 748

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

An orthopaedic surgeon is performing an anterolateral approach for a pilon fracture. The surgical interval is developed between the extensor digitorum longus (EDL) and the extensor hallucis longus (EHL). Which nerve must be identified and protected in this interval?

. Superficial peroneal nerve
. Deep peroneal nerve
. Sural nerve
. Saphenous nerve
. Medial plantar nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Deep peroneal nerve


Explanation

The anterolateral approach to the distal tibia utilizes the internervous plane between the EDL and EHL. The deep peroneal nerve and anterior tibial artery lie between these tendons and must be carefully protected.

Question 749

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A patient with a mid-shaft humeral fracture treated non-operatively in a functional brace develops a new-onset radial nerve palsy 3 weeks post-injury. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Immediate surgical exploration and nerve repair
. Continued observation and brace treatment
. Immediate EMG and nerve conduction studies
. Conversion to a long arm cast with wrist drop extension splint
. MRI of the humerus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediate surgical exploration and nerve repair


Explanation

While primary radial nerve palsies with closed humeral fractures are typically observed, a secondary (delayed) radial nerve palsy developing during non-operative management (e.g., bracing or manipulation) is a strong indication for surgical exploration.

Question 750

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A patient sustains an anterior shoulder dislocation that is reduced in the ER. Post-reduction, there is a large area of numbness over the lateral aspect of the shoulder, and the patient cannot contract the deltoid muscle. Which nerve is most likely injured?

. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Axillary nerve
. Radial nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Spinal accessory nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axillary nerve


Explanation

The axillary nerve is the most commonly injured nerve during an anterior shoulder dislocation. It provides motor innervation to the deltoid and teres minor, and sensory innervation to the lateral shoulder (the badge area).

Question 751

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 30-year-old man sustains a closed, spiral fracture of the distal third of the humeral shaft. Upon presentation in the emergency department, his radial nerve function is completely intact. Following closed reduction and splinting, he immediately exhibits a dense wrist drop and loss of finger extension. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Surgical exploration of the radial nerve
. Obtain an MRI of the humerus
. Observation and repeat examination in 2 weeks
. Electromyography (EMG) and nerve conduction studies
. Application of a functional Sarmiento brace

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Surgical exploration of the radial nerve


Explanation

A secondary radial nerve palsy that develops immediately after a closed reduction attempt of a humeral shaft fracture strongly suggests nerve entrapment within the fracture site. This is a classic, absolute indication for urgent surgical exploration and internal fixation.

Question 752

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 35-year-old mechanic presents with vague posterior shoulder pain. MRI demonstrates isolated muscle edema and early atrophy isolated to the teres minor muscle. Which anatomic space is most likely compromised?

. Spinoglenoid notch
. Suprascapular notch
. Quadrilateral space
. Triangular interval
. Triangular space

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Quadrilateral space


Explanation

Isolated atrophy of the teres minor is a hallmark of quadrilateral space syndrome. This condition involves compression of the axillary nerve and posterior humeral circumflex artery within the quadrilateral space.

Question 753

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 40-year-old man presents with a volar shear fracture of the distal radius (Barton's fracture). The surgeon elects to perform open reduction and internal fixation utilizing the standard volar Henry approach. The internervous plane for this approach is found between which two muscles?

. Flexor carpi radialis and flexor pollicis longus
. Brachioradialis and flexor carpi radialis
. Flexor carpi ulnaris and flexor digitorum superficialis
. Flexor carpi radialis and palmaris longus
. Pronator teres and flexor carpi radialis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Brachioradialis and flexor carpi radialis


Explanation

The volar Henry approach utilizes the internervous plane between the brachioradialis (innervated by the radial nerve) and the flexor carpi radialis (innervated by the median nerve).

Question 754

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 35-year-old cyclist sustains a comminuted midshaft clavicle fracture. Open reduction and internal fixation with superior plating is performed. Postoperatively, the patient notes a well-demarcated area of numbness over the anterior chest wall just inferior to the incision. Which nerve was most likely injured during the surgical exposure?

. Suprascapular nerve
. Spinal accessory nerve
. Supraclavicular nerve
. Phrenic nerve
. Axillary nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraclavicular nerve


Explanation

The supraclavicular nerve branches (medial, intermediate, and lateral) course superficially over the clavicle. They are frequently injured or divided during the standard surgical approach for clavicle plating, leading to anterior chest wall numbness.

Question 755

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 45-year-old woman presents with elbow pain after a fall. Imaging shown in

reveals a fracture of the capitellum involving the lateral trochlear ridge. Which surgical approach is most appropriate for direct visualization and fixation of this specific fracture pattern?

. Medial over-the-top approach
. Kocher approach
. Kaplan approach
. Extended lateral (column) approach
. Posterior triceps-splitting approach

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Extended lateral (column) approach


Explanation

The extended lateral approach provides excellent exposure of the anterior capitellum and lateral trochlea. It is required for complex coronal shear fractures that extend medially into the trochlea.

Question 756

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 55-year-old woman presents with a severely displaced 4-part proximal humerus fracture after a fall. Examination reveals profound weakness in active arm abduction and numbness over the lateral aspect of the shoulder. Which nerve is most likely injured?

. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Axillary nerve
. Radial nerve
. Median nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axillary nerve


Explanation

The axillary nerve is the most commonly injured nerve in proximal humerus fractures and anterior shoulder dislocations. Injury presents as deltoid weakness and sensory deficits over the lateral shoulder (regimental badge area).

Question 757

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 5-year-old boy falls from monkey bars and sustains a significantly displaced extension-type supracondylar humerus fracture with posteromedial displacement. Which nerve is at the greatest risk of injury?

. Ulnar nerve
. Radial nerve
. Posterior interosseous nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Anterior interosseous nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radial nerve


Explanation

In extension-type supracondylar fractures, posteromedial displacement typically puts the radial nerve at risk as it stretches over the anteriorly displaced proximal fragment. Posterolateral displacement places the anterior interosseous nerve at risk.

Question 758

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 30-year-old man sustains a closed midshaft humerus fracture. Initial examination shows intact radial nerve function. A closed reduction is performed, and a coaptation splint is applied. Immediately after reduction, the patient is unable to extend his wrist or fingers. What is the most appropriate next step?

. Immediate surgical exploration of the radial nerve
. Observation and EMG at 6 weeks
. Change the splint to a functional fracture brace
. Corticosteroid injection into the spiral groove
. Ultrasound-guided nerve block

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediate surgical exploration of the radial nerve


Explanation

A secondary radial nerve palsy that occurs immediately after a closed reduction attempt of a closed humeral shaft fracture is an absolute indication for surgical exploration. The nerve may be entrapped in the fracture site.

Question 759

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 35-year-old male sustains a closed diaphyseal fracture of the humerus. On initial evaluation, he is unable to actively extend his wrist or fingers. He undergoes closed reduction and functional bracing. At 12 weeks, there is no clinical or electromyographic (EMG) evidence of radial nerve recovery. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Continued bracing and observation for 3 more months
. Surgical exploration of the radial nerve
. Tendon transfer (e.g., pronator teres to ECRB)
. Ultrasound-guided cortisone injection
. Amputation of the affected limb

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Surgical exploration of the radial nerve


Explanation

Observation of a closed humerus fracture with a radial nerve palsy is standard up to 12 weeks. If there is no clinical or EMG evidence of recovery by 3 months (12 weeks), surgical exploration of the radial nerve is indicated.

Question 760

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 65-year-old woman sustains an intra-articular distal humerus fracture (AO/OTA type 13-C3). During open reduction and internal fixation utilizing a transolecranon osteotomy, the surgeon must routinely identify and protect which of the following structures?

. Median nerve
. Radial nerve
. Ulnar nerve
. Anterior interosseous nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ulnar nerve


Explanation

The ulnar nerve is highly vulnerable during posterior surgical approaches to the distal humerus, particularly when performing an olecranon osteotomy. It must be routinely identified and mobilized to prevent iatrogenic injury.