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Question 601

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 45-year-old man sustains an unstable anteroposterior compression (APC-II) pelvic ring injury requiring anterior symphyseal plating. During exposure via a Pfannenstiel approach, brisk arterial bleeding is encountered on the posterior aspect of the superior pubic ramus. Which of the following is the most likely source of this bleeding?

. External iliac artery
. Internal pudendal artery
. Anastomosis between the obturator and external iliac/inferior epigastric vessels
. Inferior epigastric artery
. Superior gluteal artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anastomosis between the obturator and external iliac/inferior epigastric vessels


Explanation

The 'corona mortis' (crown of death) is an important vascular anastomosis between the external iliac or inferior epigastric system and the obturator system. It courses over the posterior aspect of the superior pubic ramus. Iatrogenic injury during a Pfannenstiel or ilioinguinal exposure can lead to significant hemorrhage that is difficult to control.

Question 602

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 25-year-old unrestrained driver is involved in a head-on motor vehicle collision. He presents to the trauma bay with a shortened, internally rotated, and adducted left lower extremity. A radiograph confirms a posterior hip dislocation. Which of the following nerve injuries is most commonly associated with this injury?

. Femoral nerve
. Sciatic nerve (peroneal division)
. Obturator nerve
. Superior gluteal nerve
. Sciatic nerve (tibial division)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sciatic nerve (peroneal division)


Explanation

Posterior hip dislocations are classically associated with injury to the sciatic nerve. Within the sciatic nerve, the peroneal division is significantly more vulnerable to injury than the tibial division because its fibers are located more laterally, have less connective tissue protection, and are more securely tethered distally at the fibular head.

Question 603

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During the ilioinguinal approach for open reduction and internal fixation of an anterior column acetabular fracture, vigorous arterial bleeding is encountered on the posterior aspect of the superior pubic ramus, approximately 5 cm from the pubic symphysis. Which of the following anatomic structures is the most likely source of this bleeding?

. An anastomosis between the external iliac and obturator vessels
. An anastomosis between the internal pudendal and inferior gluteal vessels
. An aberrant branch of the inferior epigastric artery
. The superior gluteal artery
. The internal pudendal artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. An anastomosis between the external iliac and obturator vessels


Explanation

The bleeding source is the corona mortis ('crown of death'), which is a critical vascular anastomosis situated on the posterior aspect of the superior pubic ramus. It typically connects the obturator system (internal iliac system) with the external iliac system (via the inferior epigastric vessels). Care must be taken to identify and ligate this structure during the ilioinguinal or modified Stoppa approaches.

Question 604

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 40-year-old male motorcyclist experiences a severe lateral traction injury to his right shoulder. He presents with massive shoulder swelling, an absent right radial pulse, and a completely flail right upper extremity. Radiographs reveal a widened scapulothoracic articulation and lateral displacement of the scapula. What is the most likely associated neurologic injury?

. Isolated axillary nerve palsy
. Complete brachial plexus avulsion
. Isolated musculocutaneous nerve transection
. Cervical spinal cord injury at C5-C6
. Ulnar nerve transection at the elbow

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Complete brachial plexus avulsion


Explanation

The clinical scenario describes scapulothoracic dissociation, a highly lethal, high-energy traction injury. It is characterized by complete disruption of the scapulothoracic articulation and is highly associated with catastrophic neurovascular injuries, most notably complete brachial plexus avulsions and subclavian/axillary artery disruptions.

Question 605

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 35-year-old male is undergoing open reduction and internal fixation of a transverse posterior wall acetabular fracture via a Kocher-Langenbeck approach. To minimize iatrogenic traction injury to the sciatic nerve during retraction, what is the optimal position of the operative lower extremity?

. Hip flexed and knee extended
. Hip extended and knee flexed
. Hip flexed and knee flexed
. Hip extended and knee extended
. Hip abducted and knee extended

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hip extended and knee flexed


Explanation

During a Kocher-Langenbeck approach for acetabular fractures, the sciatic nerve is at significant risk of iatrogenic stretch injury from retractors. Keeping the hip extended and the knee flexed introduces maximum slack into the sciatic nerve, thereby minimizing tension and reducing the risk of a post-operative nerve palsy (e.g., foot drop).

Question 606

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches



During a midfoot surgical approach for tendon transfer, the surgeon isolates the flexor hallucis longus (FHL) and flexor digitorum longus (FDL) tendons at the Knot of Henry. What is the precise anatomic relationship between these two tendons at this location?

. The FHL crosses dorsal (deep) to the FDL
. The FHL crosses plantar (superficial) to the FDL
. The FHL runs parallel and medial to the FDL without crossing
. The FDL bifurcates to surround the intact FHL
. The FHL terminates by inserting entirely into the FDL

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The FHL crosses dorsal (deep) to the FDL


Explanation

At the Master Knot of Henry in the plantar midfoot, the flexor hallucis longus (FHL) courses medially and crosses dorsal (deep) to the flexor digitorum longus (FDL) tendon.

Question 607

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 40-year-old female sustains a coronal shear fracture of the distal humerus extending into the trochlea (Dubberley Type 2B). What surgical approach is most appropriate for direct visualization and anterior-to-posterior fixation?

. Posterior approach with olecranon osteotomy
. Medial over-the-top approach
. Extended lateral (Kaplan) approach
. Anterior Henry approach
. Triceps-splitting approach

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Extended lateral (Kaplan) approach


Explanation

Coronal shear fractures involving the capitellum and extending into the trochlea are best managed via an extended lateral approach, often elevating the common extensor origin. This provides excellent visualization of the anterior articular surface for anterior-to-posterior screw fixation.

Question 608

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 30-year-old male presents with a Hahn-Steinthal (Type I) capitellum fracture, characterized by a large osseous fragment involving the subchondral bone. Which surgical approach provides the most direct and appropriate exposure for internal fixation?

. Medial over-the-top approach
. Kocher (lateral) approach between the anconeus and ECU
. Extensile posterior approach with olecranon osteotomy
. Anterior Henry approach
. Dorsal midline approach

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Kocher (lateral) approach between the anconeus and ECU


Explanation

The Kocher approach, utilizing the internervous plane between the anconeus (radial nerve) and the extensor carpi ulnaris (posterior interosseous nerve), provides excellent direct access to the capitellum and lateral column.

Question 609

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 35-year-old male sustains a closed transverse fracture of the middle third of the humeral shaft. On examination, he has a weak wrist drop but normal triceps extension. He is treated with a functional brace. At 12 weeks, there is no clinical or EMG evidence of radial nerve recovery. What is the next best step?

. Continue bracing and re-evaluate at 6 months
. Refer for tendon transfers
. Surgical exploration of the radial nerve
. Ultrasound-guided nerve block
. Amputation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Surgical exploration of the radial nerve


Explanation

Radial nerve palsy associated with a closed humeral shaft fracture is initially observed. However, if there is no clinical or EMG evidence of recovery by 3 to 4 months, surgical exploration of the nerve is indicated.

Question 610

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During an anterolateral deltoid-splitting approach for minimally invasive plate osteosynthesis (MIPO) of a proximal humerus fracture, what is the generally accepted safe distance from the lateral tip of the acromion to avoid injury to the axillary nerve?

. 1 to 2 cm
. 3 to 4 cm
. 5 to 7 cm
. 8 to 10 cm
. 10 to 12 cm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 5 to 7 cm


Explanation

The axillary nerve courses circumferentially from posterior to anterior approximately 5 to 7 cm distal to the lateral edge of the acromion. Extending the deltoid split beyond 5 cm places the nerve at significant risk of iatrogenic transection.

Question 611

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A patient has a humeral shaft fracture and is scheduled to undergo open reduction and internal fixation with a plate. What surgical approach will provide the greatest amount of exposure?

. Modified posterior approach with elevation of the medial and lateral heads of the triceps
. Posterior triceps-splitting approach
. Posterior triceps-splitting approach with radial nerve mobilization
. Posteromedial approach
. Lateral approach with radial nerve mobilization

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Modified posterior approach with elevation of the medial and lateral heads of the triceps


Explanation

The modified posterior approach with elevation of the medial and lateral heads of the triceps can provide exposure of 94% of the humeral shaft. The traditional posterior triceps-splitting approach exposes 55% of the humeral shaft. DeFranco MJ, Lawton JN: Radial nerve injuries associated with humeral fractures. J Hand Surg Am 2006;31:655-663.

Question 612

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 60-year-old man presents with chronic shoulder pain and weakness. On examination, he is unable to actively externally rotate his arm while it is held in 90 degrees of abduction (positive Hornblower's sign). This clinical finding indicates a deficiency in a muscle innervated by which of the following nerves?

. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Spinal accessory nerve
. Axillary nerve
. Radial nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axillary nerve


Explanation

A positive Hornblower's sign indicates advanced pathology or fatty infiltration of the teres minor. The teres minor is innervated by the axillary nerve.

Question 613

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

When utilizing the volar approach to the distal radius (Modified Henry approach) for internal fixation of a volar Barton's fracture, the surgical interval is developed between which two anatomical structures?

. Flexor carpi radialis (FCR) and flexor pollicis longus (FPL)
. Flexor carpi radialis (FCR) and the radial artery
. Brachioradialis and the radial artery
. Flexor carpi ulnaris (FCU) and the ulnar nerve
. Palmaris longus and flexor carpi radialis (FCR)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexor carpi radialis (FCR) and the radial artery


Explanation

The modified Henry approach utilizes the internervous plane between the median nerve (FCR) and radial nerve (brachioradialis). Specifically, the interval is developed between the FCR tendon (retracted ulnarly) and the radial artery (retracted radially).

Question 614

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 25-year-old male sustains an acute anterior shoulder dislocation. Post-reduction, you suspect an axillary nerve injury. What area should be evaluated to assess the sensory distribution of the axillary nerve?

. Medial aspect of the forearm
. Lateral aspect of the forearm
. Lateral aspect of the shoulder
. Medial aspect of the arm
. Dorsal first web space of the hand

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral aspect of the shoulder


Explanation

The axillary nerve provides sensation to the lateral aspect of the shoulder via the superior lateral brachial cutaneous nerve. It is the most commonly injured nerve in anterior shoulder dislocations.

Question 615

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During a deltoid-splitting approach for proximal humerus fracture fixation, the surgeon must be careful to avoid the axillary nerve. At approximately what distance distal to the lateral edge of the acromion does the axillary nerve typically cross the deep surface of the deltoid?

. 1 cm
. 3 cm
. 5 cm
. 7 cm
. 9 cm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 5 cm


Explanation

The axillary nerve courses roughly 5 cm (or about 2 inches) distal to the lateral border of the acromion. A deltoid split should safely remain superior to this landmark to avoid denervating the anterior deltoid.

Question 616

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 35-year-old man sustains a distal third spiral fracture of the humerus. On examination, he is unable to extend his wrist or fingers. Which nerve is most commonly injured in this specific fracture pattern?

. Axillary nerve
. Ulnar nerve
. Median nerve
. Radial nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radial nerve


Explanation

A Holstein-Lewis fracture is a spiral fracture of the distal third of the humeral shaft. It has a high association with radial nerve entrapment or injury as the nerve passes through the intermuscular septum.

Question 617

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A patient sustains a closed midshaft humerus fracture and presents with a radial nerve palsy. An EMG at 4 weeks shows fibrillation potentials in the brachioradialis, but an MRI demonstrates an intact epineurium. Which Seddon classification describes this injury?

. Neuropraxia
. Axonotmesis
. Neurotmesis
. Wallerian degeneration
. Neuronal apoptosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axonotmesis


Explanation

Axonotmesis involves disruption of the axon and myelin sheath but preservation of the supporting connective tissue (epineurium). Fibrillation potentials indicate axonal denervation, ruling out neuropraxia.

Question 618

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During the proximal extension of the volar (Henry) approach to the forearm, the surgeon elevates the supinator muscle to expose the proximal radius. Which nerve lies within the substance of the supinator and is at highest risk of iatrogenic injury if the muscle is elevated aggressively or incorrectly?

. Ulnar nerve
. Superficial radial nerve
. Posterior interosseous nerve
. Anterior interosseous nerve
. Median nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior interosseous nerve


Explanation

The posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) passes between the superficial and deep heads of the supinator muscle. To protect the PIN during the proximal Henry approach, the supinator must be elevated subperiosteally from ulnar to radial while keeping the forearm supinated.

Question 619

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During a deltopectoral approach to the shoulder, the conjoint tendon is identified and retracted medially to access the subscapularis. Excessive medial retraction of the conjoint tendon places which of the following nerves at greatest risk of neuropraxia?

. Axillary nerve
. Median nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Radial nerve
. Ulnar nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Musculocutaneous nerve


Explanation

The musculocutaneous nerve typically enters the coracobrachialis muscle 3-8 cm distal to the coracoid process. Aggressive medial retraction of the conjoint tendon places direct traction on this nerve, potentially causing neurapraxia.

Question 620

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

The anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach to the hip utilizes both superficial and deep internervous planes. Which of the following describes the deep internervous plane for this approach?

. Femoral nerve and Superior gluteal nerve
. Femoral nerve and Inferior gluteal nerve
. Superior gluteal nerve and Inferior gluteal nerve
. Obturator nerve and Femoral nerve
. Sciatic nerve and Superior gluteal nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Femoral nerve and Superior gluteal nerve


Explanation

The deep plane of the Smith-Petersen approach lies between the rectus femoris (innervated by the femoral nerve) and the gluteus medius (innervated by the superior gluteal nerve). The superficial plane is between the sartorius (femoral nerve) and tensor fasciae latae (superior gluteal nerve).