This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Surgical Anatomy & Approaches. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 441
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
Figure 99 shows a dorsal approach for a midfoot arthrodesis following a Lisfranc injury in a 43-year-old woman. The base of the second metatarsal is labeled with the letter B. The interval used to create this exposure is
Correct Answer & Explanation
. not an internervous plane.
Explanation
DISCUSSIONThe interval shown is between the extensor hallucis longus (left) and the extensor hallucis brevis (right), which is not an internervous plane because both are innervated by the deep peroneal nerve. The neurovascular bundle is under the extensor hallucis brevis muscle. Bothmuscles are innervated by branches of the deep peroneal nerve. The superficial peroneal
Question 442
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
During a deltopectoral approach for an open reduction internal fixation (ORIF) of a proximal humerus fracture, the surgeon must be mindful of the axillary nerve. On average, at what distance distal to the lateral border of the acromion does the axillary nerve cross the deep surface of the deltoid?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 2 cm
Explanation
The axillary nerve courses circumferentially from posterior to anterior on the deep surface of the deltoid muscle. Classic anatomic studies (e.g., Burkhead et al.) demonstrate that the axillary nerve is located approximately 5 cm (range 4-7 cm depending on patient size) distal to the lateral border of the acromion. This is a critical landmark to avoid iatrogenic injury during lateral or deltoid-splitting approaches.
Question 443
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 30-year-old female sustains a shear fracture of the capitellum extending into the trochlea. During open reduction and internal fixation via a lateral approach, the surgeon decides to use the Kocher approach to visualize the capitellum while minimizing risk to the LUCL. The Kocher approach utilizes the internervous plane between which two muscles?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Brachioradialis and Pronator Teres
Explanation
The Kocher approach utilizes the internervous plane between the anconeus (innervated by the radial nerve) and the extensor carpi ulnaris (innervated by the posterior interosseous nerve). The Kaplan approach utilizes the plane between the ECRB and EDC, which is more anterior.
Question 444
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 34-year-old female presents with elbow pain after a fall. Radiographs and CT demonstrate a coronal shear fracture of the capitellum that extends medially to include the majority of the trochlea, with a separate comminuted fracture of the posterior trochlea. According to the Dubberley classification, what is the most appropriate surgical approach for open reduction and internal fixation of this Type 3B injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Universal posterior approach with olecranon osteotomy
Explanation
Dubberley Type 3B fractures involve the capitellum and trochlea with significant posterior articular comminution. A universal posterior approach with an olecranon osteotomy is required to adequately visualize and rigidly fix the articular surface while managing the posterior comminution.
Question 445
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 25-year-old male sustains a closed transverse midshaft humerus fracture and presents with an immediate complete radial nerve palsy. He is treated with a functional brace. At what time point should an EMG/NCS be ordered if there is no clinical evidence of radial nerve recovery?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 12 weeks
Explanation
For a closed humerus fracture with an immediate radial nerve palsy, observation is the standard of care as the vast majority are neuropraxias that will recover spontaneously. If there is no clinical evidence of recovery (e.g., return of brachioradialis function or wrist extension) by 12 weeks (3 months), an EMG/NCS should be obtained to evaluate for signs of reinnervation or severe denervation.
Question 446
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 42-year-old man presents to the ER with his arm locked in hyperabduction over his head after a fall. Radiographs show an inferior glenohumeral dislocation (luxatio erecta). What is the most frequently injured neurovascular structure in this specific dislocation pattern?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Axillary artery
Explanation
Luxatio erecta is a rare inferior shoulder dislocation. The axillary nerve is the most commonly injured neurovascular structure (up to 60% of cases). While axillary artery injuries have the highest rate of occurrence in luxatio erecta compared to other dislocation directions, nerve injuries (specifically the axillary nerve) remain overall more frequent.
Question 447
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 28-year-old male sustains a closed transverse midshaft humerus fracture with an immediate complete radial nerve palsy. He is treated with a functional brace. At 12 weeks post-injury, the fracture is healing, but there is no clinical or EMG evidence of radial nerve recovery. What is the most appropriate next step?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Continued observation for another 12 weeks
Explanation
Most radial nerve palsies associated with closed humeral shaft fractures are neuropraxias or axonotmesis that resolve spontaneously within 3 to 4 months. If there are no clinical or electromyographic signs of recovery by 12 weeks, surgical exploration of the nerve is indicated.
Question 448
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
During open reduction and internal fixation of a posterior wall acetabular fracture via a Kocher-Langenbeck approach, the surgeon places the patient's operative leg in a specific position to minimize tension on the sciatic nerve. Which position is most appropriate, and which division of the nerve is at highest risk of iatrogenic injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Hip flexed, knee flexed; tibial division at highest risk
Explanation
During the Kocher-Langenbeck approach, the sciatic nerve is at high risk of iatrogenic stretch injury from retractors. Extending the hip and flexing the knee maximally relaxes the sciatic nerve. The peroneal division is located more laterally, possesses less supportive perineural connective tissue, and is mechanically tethered distally at the fibular head, making it significantly more susceptible to stretch injuries than the tibial division.
Question 449
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 40-year-old male sustains a posterior wall acetabular fracture with a posterior hip dislocation. Post-reduction, he exhibits a foot drop and inability to actively extend his great toe. Which specific neural structure is most likely injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Femoral nerve
Explanation
The sciatic nerve is at high risk during posterior hip dislocations and posterior wall acetabular fractures. The peroneal division is more lateral, tightly tethered, and has larger fascicles, making it significantly more susceptible to injury than the tibial division.
Question 450
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
The direct anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach for total hip arthroplasty utilizes a true internervous plane. Which of the following best describes the nerves supplying the muscles that form the superficial boundary of this interval?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Femoral nerve and superior gluteal nerve
Explanation
The direct anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach exploits a true internervous plane. Superficially, the interval is between the sartorius (innervated by the femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (innervated by the superior gluteal nerve). Deeply, the interval is between the rectus femoris (femoral nerve) and the gluteus medius (superior gluteal nerve).
Question 451
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
During an ilioinguinal approach for the fixation of an anterior column acetabular fracture, life-threatening hemorrhage occurs while dissecting over the superior pubic ramus near the symphysis. Which two vessels commonly anastomose in this region to form the 'corona mortis', the most likely source of this bleeding?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Inferior epigastric artery and obturator artery
Explanation
The corona mortis ('crown of death') is a highly variable vascular anastomosis between the obturator and external iliac systems. Most commonly, it is an anastomosis between the inferior epigastric artery (or vein) and the obturator artery (or vein). It courses over the superior pubic ramus at a distance of roughly 4-6 cm from the pubic symphysis and is at high risk of iatrogenic injury during the ilioinguinal or Stoppa approaches to the acetabulum and pelvic ring.
Question 452
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 72-year-old female undergoes a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty via a deltopectoral approach. During glenoid exposure, a retractor is placed inferiorly on the glenoid neck. Which nerve is at greatest risk of injury from this specific retractor placement?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Axillary nerve
Explanation
The axillary nerve courses inferior to the glenohumeral joint capsule and is highly vulnerable to compression or traction injury when retractors are placed inferiorly on the glenoid neck. Careful placement and avoiding excessive tension on the inferior retractor are critical to prevent neurapraxia.
Question 453
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 45-year-old male sustains a complex acetabular fracture. CT imaging demonstrates a fracture of the anterior column with a posterior hemitransverse component, alongside a medially displaced quadrilateral plate. Which surgical approach provides the most direct and optimal access to reduce the quadrilateral plate and place an infrapectineal buttress plate?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Modified Stoppa (anterior intrapelvic) approach
Explanation
The modified Stoppa approach, an anterior intrapelvic approach, provides excellent visualization of the true pelvis, quadrilateral plate, posterior column, and pelvic brim. It is highly advantageous for treating anterior column/posterior hemitransverse fractures with medial displacement of the quadrilateral plate, as it directly allows the placement of an infrapectineal buttress plate to counteract the medial displacement. The Kocher-Langenbeck is posterior and does not allow direct plating of the medial quadrilateral surface.
Question 454
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
The direct anterior approach (Smith-Petersen) to the hip is favored by many due to its utilization of a true internervous and intermuscular plane. Which two nerves supply the muscles that form the superficial boundary of this surgical interval?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Femoral nerve and Superior gluteal nerve
Explanation
The superficial interval of the direct anterior approach (Smith-Petersen) to the hip is between the sartorius and the tensor fasciae latae (TFL). The sartorius is innervated by the femoral nerve, and the TFL is innervated by the superior gluteal nerve, making it a true internervous plane. The deep interval is similarly internervous, between the rectus femoris (femoral nerve) and the gluteus medius/minimus (superior gluteal nerve).
Question 455
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
Following an open Latarjet procedure, the patient complains of an inability to actively flex the elbow and numbness along the lateral aspect of the forearm. Which nerve was most likely injured by excessive retraction of the conjoint tendon?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Musculocutaneous nerve
Explanation
The musculocutaneous nerve enters the coracobrachialis 5-8 cm distal to the coracoid process. Excessive medial retraction of the conjoint tendon during a Latarjet can stretch this nerve, causing weak elbow flexion and lateral forearm numbness.
Question 456
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A surgeon performs a total hip arthroplasty via the direct anterior approach. Which of the following internervous planes is utilized during the deep surgical dissection?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Superior gluteal nerve and Femoral nerve
Explanation
The direct anterior approach to the hip utilizes the internervous plane between the tensor fasciae latae (supplied by the superior gluteal nerve) and the sartorius/rectus femoris (supplied by the femoral nerve).
Question 457
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
During an ilioinguinal approach to the acetabulum, the surgeon encounters massive bleeding over the superior pubic ramus near the symphysis. This bleeding is most likely originating from an anastomosis between which two vascular systems?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Internal iliac and external iliac systems
Explanation
The 'corona mortis' is a critical vascular anastomosis between the external iliac system (inferior epigastric artery/vein) and the internal iliac system (obturator artery/vein), located approximately 5 cm from the pubic symphysis.
Question 458
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 24-year-old motorcyclist sustains a traumatic brachial plexus injury. Clinical examination reveals complete paralysis of the right upper extremity, an ipsilateral ptosis, and miosis. What does the presence of Horner's syndrome indicate regarding his nerve injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A preganglionic avulsion of the C8 and T1 nerve roots
Explanation
Horner's syndrome (ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis) in the setting of a brachial plexus injury indicates disruption of the sympathetic chain. This is pathognomonic for a preganglionic avulsion of the lower roots (C8 and T1), which carries a poor prognosis for spontaneous recovery.
Question 459
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
During an anterior shoulder stabilization procedure, the surgeon is carefully identifying the structures in the axilla to avoid injury to the axillary nerve. The axillary nerve exits the axilla posteriorly through the quadrilateral space. Which vascular structure directly accompanies the nerve through this space?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior circumflex humeral artery
Explanation
The axillary nerve passes through the quadrilateral space accompanied by the posterior circumflex humeral artery. The boundaries of the space are the teres minor (superior), teres major (inferior), long head of triceps (medial), and the surgical neck of the humerus (lateral).
Question 460
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 28-year-old man sustains a posterior fracture-dislocation of the hip. Following closed reduction, he is found to have weakness in ankle dorsiflexion and great toe extension, but intact plantar flexion. Sensation is decreased over the dorsum of the foot. Which specific neural structure is most likely injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Peroneal division of the sciatic nerve
Explanation
The peroneal division of the sciatic nerve is most commonly injured in posterior hip dislocations. It is more susceptible to stretch injury than the tibial division because its fascicles are larger, have less protective connective tissue, and are securely tethered at the fibular head.
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