This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Physiology & Rehabilitation. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 421
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
During the initial phase of the gait cycle (first rocker), the foot transitions from heel strike to a foot-flat position. Which muscle performs the primary eccentric contraction to control this motion and prevent 'foot slap'?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior tibialis
Explanation
The anterior tibialis fires eccentrically from heel strike (initial contact) to foot flat (loading response) to smoothly lower the forefoot to the ground. Failure of this mechanism leads to a 'foot slap' gait.
Question 422
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
A patient with severe unilateral hip osteoarthritis walks with a classic uncompensated Trendelenburg lurch, shifting their torso over the affected hip during the stance phase. What is the primary biomechanical advantage of this compensatory gait mechanism?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. It reduces the moment arm of the body weight relative to the center of the hip joint.
Explanation
Shifting the trunk over the affected hip during stance (an abductor lurch) brings the center of gravity closer to the hip joint center. This significantly decreases the body weight moment arm, reducing the torque requirement on the weak or painful abductor muscles and thereby decreasing the total hip joint reaction force.
Question 423
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
During normal human gait, six distinct determinants function to minimize the vertical and horizontal displacement of the body's center of gravity, thereby reducing energy expenditure. Which of the following is NOT one of the classic determinants of gait described by Saunders et al.?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Foot drop in the swing phase.
Explanation
The six classic determinants of gait are: pelvic rotation, pelvic tilt, knee flexion in stance, foot mechanisms (ankle and foot interactions), and lateral displacement of the pelvis. 'Foot drop in the swing phase' is a pathologic finding, not a normal determinant that conserves energy.
Question 424
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
During the normal human gait cycle, the primary muscle active at the ankle during the loading response (initial contact to opposite toe-off) is the tibialis anterior. What is the primary biomechanical function of the tibialis anterior during this specific phase?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Eccentric contraction to decelerate passive plantarflexion and prevent foot slap.
Explanation
During the loading response, the ground reaction force creates a rapid plantarflexion moment. The tibialis anterior fires eccentrically to decelerate the foot and prevent a "slap" onto the ground.
Question 425
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
A patient with severe right hip osteoarthritis exhibits a classic uncompensated Trendelenburg gait. However, after physical therapy, the patient develops a "compensated" Trendelenburg gait. What kinematic change defines this compensation during the stance phase on the affected right leg?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The trunk leans laterally towards the affected (right) side to shift the center of mass.
Explanation
In a compensated Trendelenburg gait (abductor lurch), the patient laterally flexes the trunk over the stance (affected) leg. This shifts the center of mass closer to the hip joint center, reducing the moment arm and the work required by the weak hip abductors.
Question 426
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
A patient with a common peroneal nerve palsy exhibits a "steppage" gait. Kinematic analysis of this patient's gait cycle will demonstrate which primary abnormality during the swing phase that necessitates this compensatory mechanism?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Excessive ankle plantarflexion.
Explanation
A common peroneal nerve palsy results in weakness of the tibialis anterior, causing a drop foot (excessive passive ankle plantarflexion during swing). To prevent the toes from dragging on the ground, the patient compensates by exaggerating hip and knee flexion (steppage gait).
Question 427
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
A 5-year-old with cerebral palsy undergoes instrumented gait analysis. Dynamic electromyography (EMG) reveals prolonged, continuous activity of the rectus femoris during the swing phase. Clinically, what gait deviation is most directly caused by this specific muscle overactivity?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Stiff-knee gait
Explanation
Overactivity or spasticity of the rectus femoris during the swing phase prevents the knee from flexing adequately to clear the foot. This manifests clinically as a stiff-knee gait, characterized by reduced peak knee flexion during swing.
Question 428
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
During gait observation, a patient demonstrates a backward lurch of the trunk immediately following heel strike. This specific compensatory mechanism is indicative of weakness in which muscle, and occurs during which phase of the gait cycle?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Gluteus maximus; loading response
Explanation
A backward trunk lean (gluteus maximus lurch) occurs during the loading response phase to move the center of gravity posterior to the hip joint. This mechanically maintains hip extension, compensating for a weak gluteus maximus.
Question 429
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
A patient with profound triceps surae weakness undergoes computerized gait analysis. Which of the following kinematic abnormalities is most likely to be identified during the stance phase?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Delayed or absent heel-off during terminal stance
Explanation
The triceps surae (calf muscles) are responsible for ankle plantarflexion, which elevates the heel during terminal stance. Weakness results in prolonged heel contact, excessive dorsiflexion, and a 'calcaneal' or delayed heel-off gait.
Question 430
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
Normal human walking gait is traditionally divided into stance and swing phases. In a healthy adult walking at a self-selected pace, the stance phase comprises approximately what percentage of the entire gait cycle?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 60%
Explanation
During a normal gait cycle, the stance phase (foot in contact with the ground) constitutes approximately 60% of the cycle, while the swing phase accounts for the remaining 40%.
Question 431
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
During gait analysis, a patient exhibits a significant "pelvic drop" on the swing side. Weakness in which of the following muscles during the stance phase of the contralateral leg is most likely responsible?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Gluteus medius
Explanation
This describes a Trendelenburg gait. The gluteus medius and minimus (hip abductors) on the stance leg must contract to stabilize the pelvis and prevent it from dropping on the contralateral (swing) side.
Question 432
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
Which phase of the normal gait cycle requires the maximum amount of hip extension?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Terminal stance
Explanation
Maximum hip extension (approximately 10 to 20 degrees) occurs at the end of terminal stance, just before initial contact of the contralateral limb (pre-swing). This facilitates forward progression of the body.
Question 433
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
A patient presents with a 'stiff-knee gait' following a severe traumatic brain injury. During the swing phase, the knee fails to flex adequately. Overactivity of which muscle is the primary culprit and can be evaluated using dynamic electromyography (EMG)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Rectus femoris
Explanation
Stiff-knee gait is typically caused by overactivity or spasticity of the rectus femoris during the swing phase, which actively prevents normal knee flexion. This is often treated with a rectus femoris transfer or release.
Question 434
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
During normal human gait, maximum knee flexion during the swing phase reaches approximately what angle to allow for adequate foot clearance?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 60 degrees
Explanation
During the initial and mid-swing phases of the normal gait cycle, the knee flexes to a maximum of approximately 60 degrees. This flexion, combined with ankle dorsiflexion and hip flexion, is critical for adequate foot clearance.
Question 435
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
A patient exhibits a compensated Trendelenburg gait characterized by leaning the trunk laterally over the affected hip during the stance phase. What is the precise biomechanical consequence of this maneuver?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. It moves the center of gravity closer to the hip center, decreasing the body weight lever arm
Explanation
Leaning the trunk over the affected, weak hip shifts the body's center of gravity closer to the hip's center of rotation. This dramatically decreases the body weight lever arm, thereby reducing the necessary counter-force required from the weakened abductors.
Question 436
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
A patient with severe unilateral hip abductor weakness demonstrates a classic Trendelenburg gait. Biomechanically, how does shifting the torso laterally over the affected hip compensate for this weakness?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. It moves the center of gravity closer to the hip joint, decreasing the body weight moment arm.
Explanation
In a Trendelenburg gait, the patient shifts their torso over the affected hip to move their center of gravity closer to the joint's center of rotation. This drastically reduces the body weight moment arm, decreasing the required abductor force.
Question 437
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
An uncompensated Trendelenburg gait in a patient with a right hip abductor deficiency is characterized by which of the following kinematic patterns during the stance phase on the right leg?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The pelvis drops on the left side and the trunk remains relatively vertical.
Explanation
In an uncompensated Trendelenburg gait, weak right hip abductors fail to maintain a level pelvis during right single-leg stance, causing the contralateral (left) pelvis to drop while the trunk remains vertically oriented.
Question 438
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
A patient with severe unilateral hip osteoarthritis exhibits a compensated Trendelenburg gait, characterized by excessive lateral leaning of the trunk over the affected hip during the stance phase. What is the primary biomechanical advantage of this gait modification?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. It decreases the body weight moment arm.
Explanation
Leaning the trunk laterally shifts the body's center of gravity closer to the center of the affected femoral head. This significantly decreases the body weight moment arm, thereby reducing the force required by the weakened hip abductors and lowering the joint reaction force.
Question 439
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
A patient exhibits a compensated Trendelenburg lurch to the right side during the stance phase of the right leg. Biomechanically, what is the primary purpose of this compensatory trunk shift?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. To decrease the lever arm of body weight acting on the right hip
Explanation
A compensated Trendelenburg gait involves leaning the trunk over the affected hip during stance. This shifts the body's center of gravity laterally, directly over the hip joint, which drastically reduces the body weight moment arm and minimizes the force required by the weak abductors.
Question 440
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
A patient with severe hip dysplasia exhibits an uncompensated Trendelenburg lurch (Duchenne gait), characterized by shifting the torso over the affected hip during the stance phase. What is the biomechanical effect of this compensatory gait?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Decreases the body weight lever arm
Explanation
Shifting the torso over the affected hip moves the center of gravity closer to the center of rotation of the femoral head. This decreases the body weight lever arm, effectively reducing the required abductor force and minimizing the overall joint reaction force.
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