Infection, Pharmacology & VTE MCQs

A 29-year-old male with sickle cell disease presents with acute osteomyelitis of the humeral diaphysis. While Staphylococcus aureus is the most common organism overall, which of the following organisms is disproportionately responsible for osteomyelitis in this specific patient population?

A randomized trial investigates a new drug to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) after pelvic trauma. The incidence of DVT in the control group is 15%, while the incidence in the treatment group is 5%. What is the number needed to treat (NNT) to prevent one DVT?

A 45-year-old man requires an urgent open reduction and internal fixation for a closed tibia plateau fracture. He has a documented history of severe anaphylaxis to penicillin. Which of the following is the most appropriate perioperative prophylactic antibiotic regimen?

A 72-year-old man on chronic warfarin therapy for atrial fibrillation presents with a closed, displaced femoral neck fracture. His admission INR is 3.8. He requires urgent surgical fixation within 24 to 48 hours. What is the most effective and rapid pharmacological method to reverse his coagulopathy?

To appropriately minimize the risk of surgical site infection in a primary total hip arthroplasty, standard prophylactic intravenous antibiotics (e.g., Cefazolin) should ideally be completely infused within what timeframe?

An 80-year-old woman undergoes urgent hemiarthroplasty for a displaced femoral neck fracture. Her past medical history is significant for end-stage renal disease (eGFR 12 mL/min). Which of the following deep vein thrombosis (DVT) prophylaxis regimens is most appropriate?

A 65-year-old man requires an emergency open reduction and internal fixation for a highly displaced, open tibia fracture with vascular compromise. He chronically takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation and his current INR is 4.5. Which of the following provides the most rapid and effective reversal of his anticoagulation?

Which of the following is the most common cause of death in children with pelvic fractures:

Which of the following by itself is not an indication for surgery in a child with acute hematogenous osteomyelitis:

Which of the following is not usually seen in chronic recurrent multifocal osteomyelitis:

A 4-year-old boy presents with acute limp and fever of 38.8 C (101.8 F). ESR is 45 mm/hr, serum WBC is 14,000/mm3, and he refuses to bear weight. According to Kocher's criteria, what is the approximate probability that this child has septic arthritis?

A 15-year-old boy has a history of excessive bleeding when he is cut. His maternal uncle passed away during a tonsillectomy. The boy presents with severe hip pain (worse in extension than in flexion) and some weakness in his knee extension. The most likely cause of the patients symptoms is:

A 1-week-old female infant with arthrogryposis multiplex congenital has hips that are stiff in flexion and abduction, and her knees have a range of flexion from 20° to 40°. In addition, her right thigh has become swollen and tender. The most likely cause of this latter problem is:

Definitive diagnosis of septic arthritis is made by:

Osteomyelitis in the child