Menu

Question 1341

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
A 4-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department with a 2-day history of right hip pain, a limp, and refusal to bear weight. He has a temperature of 38.2°C (100.8°F). Laboratory studies reveal a WBC count of 13,500/mm³ and an ESR of 45 mm/hr. According to the Kocher criteria, what is the probability that this child has septic arthritis rather than transient synovitis?
. 3%
. 40%
. 73%
. 93%
. 99%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 93%


Explanation

The Kocher criteria for differentiating septic arthritis from transient synovitis in the pediatric hip include four predictors: non-weight-bearing on the affected side, ESR > 40 mm/hr, fever > 38.5°C (101.3°F), and WBC count > 12,000/mm³. This patient meets 3 criteria (refusal to bear weight, WBC > 12,000, and ESR > 40). His temperature is below the 38.5°C threshold. The probability of septic arthritis is approximately 3% for 1 criterion, 40% for 2 criteria, 93% for 3 criteria, and 99% for 4 criteria.

Question 1342

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A periprosthetic joint infection is diagnosed in a patient 3 years after a total knee arthroplasty. Cultures isolate Staphylococcus epidermidis. This pathogen is known to form a resilient biofilm. Which of the following substances is primarily responsible for forming the glycocalyx (slime layer) in this biofilm?

. Hyaluronic acid
. Polysaccharide intercellular adhesin (PIA)
. Fibronectin-binding protein
. Protein A
. Collagenase

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Polysaccharide intercellular adhesin (PIA)


Explanation

Staphylococcus epidermidis synthesizes polysaccharide intercellular adhesin (PIA), which is essential for the aggregation of cells and the formation of the biofilm's extracellular polymeric matrix. This glycocalyx heavily shields the bacteria from host immune clearance and systemic antibiotics.

Question 1343

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

In the setting of a chronic periprosthetic joint infection, organisms within a biofilm are highly resistant to systemic antibiotics. Which of the following best describes the metabolic state of bacteria in the deepest layers of a mature biofilm?

. Rapidly dividing
. Planktonic
. Senescent and metabolically dormant
. Actively secreting matrix metalloproteinases
. Highly susceptible to beta-lactams

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Senescent and metabolically dormant


Explanation

Bacteria deep within a mature biofilm exist in a stationary, metabolically dormant phase, which makes them highly resistant to antibiotics that target cell wall synthesis or active division. This necessitates surgical debridement or mechanical removal of the biofilm for eradication.

Question 1344

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 45-year-old immigrant presents with chronic back pain, night sweats, and progressive lower extremity weakness. MRI demonstrates destruction of two adjacent thoracic vertebral bodies with disc space preservation and a large paraspinal abscess. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Immediate anterior corpectomy and fusion
. CT-guided biopsy and initiation of multi-drug antitubercular therapy
. Empiric intravenous vancomycin and ceftriaxone
. Posterior spinal decompression and fusion
. Oral rifampin monotherapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. CT-guided biopsy and initiation of multi-drug antitubercular therapy


Explanation

Spinal tuberculosis (Pott's disease) typically presents with anterior vertebral body destruction, relative disc preservation early on, and a cold abscess. Diagnosis via biopsy and medical management with multi-drug therapy is the primary treatment, reserving surgery for severe or progressive neurologic deficit or gross instability.

Question 1345

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
A 2-year-old girl presents with knee swelling and refusal to bear weight. Laboratory tests show an ESR of 45 and CRP of 3.2. Joint aspiration yields purulent fluid, but standard Gram stain and culture are negative after 48 hours. What is the most likely fastidious organism?
. Staphylococcus aureus
. Haemophilus influenzae
. Kingella kingae
. Streptococcus pneumoniae
. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Kingella kingae


Explanation

Kingella kingae is a fastidious Gram-negative organism and a leading cause of septic arthritis in children under 4 years of age. It often requires PCR or inoculation into BACTEC blood culture bottles for successful identification.

Question 1346

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 72-year-old woman is diagnosed with an acute hematogenous staphylococcal periprosthetic joint infection of her total knee arthroplasty. She undergoes irrigation and debridement with modular exchange. Which of the following antibiotic properties makes it essential to include as part of her post-operative oral suppressive regimen?

. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis in the planktonic phase
. Irreversible binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit
. Penetration into biofilms and bactericidal activity against stationary-phase organisms
. Disruption of the bacterial cell membrane through depolarization
. Inhibition of DNA gyrase preventing replication

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Penetration into biofilms and bactericidal activity against stationary-phase organisms


Explanation

Rifampin is crucial in the management of retained hardware staphylococcal infections. It is highly lipid-soluble, allowing it to penetrate biofilms and kill slow-growing, stationary-phase bacteria.

Question 1347

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 14-month-old child presents with a limp and refusal to bear weight. Laboratory work reveals a normal WBC count and mildly elevated CRP. Joint aspiration yields synovial fluid with 65,000 WBCs/mm3. Routine cultures are negative at 48 hours, but PCR is positive. Which of the following is the most likely pathogen?

. Staphylococcus aureus
. Salmonella typhimurium
. Kingella kingae
. Haemophilus influenzae
. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Kingella kingae


Explanation

Kingella kingae is a fastidious, Gram-negative organism that is now recognized as a leading cause of septic arthritis and osteomyelitis in children aged 6 to 36 months. It often fails to grow on routine culture media and is best detected using PCR.

Question 1348

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 22-year-old healthy female presents with acute pain and swelling in her right knee, along with a papulovesicular rash on her trunk and tenosynovitis of her wrists. Synovial fluid aspiration of the knee yields a white blood cell count of 45,000 cells/mm3. Gram stain is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step?

. Immediate open arthrotomy and debridement of the knee
. Intravenous vancomycin and observation
. Intravenous ceftriaxone and azithromycin
. Intra-articular corticosteroid injection
. Oral doxycycline monotherapy for 7 days

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intravenous ceftriaxone and azithromycin


Explanation

This is a classic presentation of disseminated gonococcal infection. Treatment is primarily medical with IV ceftriaxone (plus azithromycin for potential chlamydial coinfection) and serial aspirations; surgical drainage is usually reserved for refractory cases.

Question 1349

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 7-year-old boy with sickle cell disease presents with fever, leg pain, and elevated inflammatory markers. Blood cultures grow Salmonella. What is the primary pathogenic mechanism for Salmonella osteomyelitis in sickle cell patients?

. Direct inoculation from microtrauma
. Intravascular sickling causing bowel ischemia and hematogenous spread
. Absence of a functioning spleen leading to impaired humoral immunity
. Defective neutrophil chemotaxis
. Defective complement activation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intravascular sickling causing bowel ischemia and hematogenous spread


Explanation

In sickle cell disease, chronic intravascular sickling leads to microinfarctions in the bowel wall, allowing translocation of GI flora like Salmonella into the bloodstream. Subsequent hematogenous seeding of infarcted, necrotic bone results in Salmonella osteomyelitis.

Question 1350

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 4-year-old child presents with a 2-day history of refusal to bear weight on the left leg, fever of 39.0 C, an ESR of 55 mm/hr, and a synovial fluid WBC count of 85,000 cells/uL. Gram stain is pending. Based on current trends in community-acquired pediatric bone and joint infections, empiric antibiotic therapy must cover which of the following organisms?

. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
. Borrelia burgdorferi
. Kingella kingae

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)


Explanation

Community-acquired MRSA is a leading and highly destructive cause of pediatric septic arthritis and osteomyelitis. Empiric therapy for a critically ill child with septic arthritis must include MRSA coverage (e.g., Vancomycin or Clindamycin) until cultures result.

Question 1351

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
According to the Cierny-Mader classification of adult osteomyelitis, a patient presenting with an infected tibial nonunion involving the entire circumference of the bone, rendering it mechanically unstable prior to any debridement, represents which anatomic type?
. Type I (Medullary)
. Type II (Superficial)
. Type III (Localized)
. Type IV (Diffuse)
. Type V (Systemic)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type IV (Diffuse)


Explanation

In the Cierny-Mader classification, Type IV (Diffuse) osteomyelitis involves the entire circumference of the bone, leading to mechanical instability. It requires extensive resection to bleeding bone and complex skeletal reconstruction.

Question 1352

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 2-year-old presents with fever, refusal to bear weight on the right leg, and elevated CRP. A joint aspiration of the knee yields a WBC count of 65,000 cells/mcL. Standard cultures are negative after 48 hours. What is the most likely fastidious organism, which is best isolated by inoculating synovial fluid into aerobic blood culture bottles?

. Staphylococcus aureus
. Streptococcus pneumoniae
. Kingella kingae
. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
. Borrelia burgdorferi

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Kingella kingae


Explanation

Kingella kingae is a very common cause of pediatric septic arthritis and osteomyelitis in children aged 6 months to 4 years. It is highly fastidious and best cultured by directly inoculating synovial fluid into blood culture bottles or detected via PCR.

Question 1353

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A patient presents with a swollen, painful right knee. Aspiration reveals 80,000 WBC/mcL with 90% neutrophils. Gram stain is negative. The patient recently completed oral antibiotics for a presumed skin infection. The surgeon performs arthroscopic irrigation and debridement. Which component of the biofilm matrix is primarily responsible for protecting residual bacteria from antibiotic penetration?

. Lipopolysaccharide
. Peptidoglycan
. Extracellular polymeric substances (EPS)
. Teichoic acid
. Flagellin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Extracellular polymeric substances (EPS)


Explanation

The biofilm matrix is predominantly composed of Extracellular Polymeric Substances (EPS), including polysaccharides, proteins, and extracellular DNA. This thick matrix physically shields bacteria from host immune responses and prevents antibiotic penetration.

Question 1354

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 45-year-old immigrant presents with months of insidious midthoracic back pain, low-grade fevers, and progressive lower extremity weakness. MRI demonstrates destruction of the T8 and T9 vertebral bodies with relative early sparing of the intervertebral disc, along with a large paraspinal abscess. What is the most characteristic histopathologic finding of the causative organism's infection?

. Sheets of lipid-laden macrophages
. Caseating granulomas with Langhans giant cells
. Non-caseating granulomas with asteroid bodies
. Extensive neutrophil infiltration with liquefactive necrosis
. Atypical lymphocytes with prominent nucleoli

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Caseating granulomas with Langhans giant cells


Explanation

Spinal tuberculosis (Pott's disease) typically presents with insidious onset, paraspinal cold abscesses, and relative sparing of the disc space early in the disease compared to pyogenic osteomyelitis. Histologic evaluation classically demonstrates caseating granulomas with multinucleated Langhans giant cells.

Question 1355

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 15-year-old male presents with progressive osteolysis of his clavicle and ribs consistent with Gorham's disease. What is the most common life-threatening complication associated with this specific anatomic involvement?

. Cardiac tamponade
. Massive hemoptysis
. Chylothorax
. Pulmonary embolism
. Tracheal compression

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Chylothorax


Explanation

In Gorham's disease with involvement of the thoracic cage (ribs, clavicle, scapula), pleural effusion is a major risk. Specifically, chylothorax due to lymphatic dysplasia and direct extension into the pleural cavity is a known and potentially fatal complication.

Question 1356

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 45-year-old male presents with night sweats, fever, and thigh pain. Radiographs show a permeative diaphyseal lesion mimicking osteomyelitis.

Which MRI feature most strongly suggests a diagnosis of primary bone lymphoma over acute osteomyelitis?

. Presence of a cloaca and involucrum
. A sharply defined sclerotic rim surrounding a central necrotic cavity
. A massive extraosseous soft-tissue mass with relatively preserved cortical bone architecture
. Extensive subperiosteal abscess formation lifting the periosteum
. High T2 signal strictly confined to the medullary canal without extraosseous extension

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A massive extraosseous soft-tissue mass with relatively preserved cortical bone architecture


Explanation

A classic imaging hallmark of primary bone lymphoma is the presence of a large soft-tissue mass that extends outward from the bone with surprisingly little cortical destruction. Osteomyelitis typically shows distinct cortical breakdown, abscesses, or cloacae.

Question 1357

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

During a primary TKA for a severe varus deformity, the surgeon notes the knee remains tight medially in both flexion and extension. After completely releasing the deep medial collateral ligament (MCL), what is the next most appropriate structure to release?

. Lateral collateral ligament
. Semimembranosus
. Pes anserinus
. Posteromedial capsule
. Popliteus tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posteromedial capsule


Explanation

For a tight medial gap in both flexion and extension, the sequential release typically begins with osteophytes and the deep MCL. If tightness persists symmetrically, the posteromedial capsule is released next, followed by the semimembranosus and finally the superficial MCL.

Question 1358

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

In a primary total knee arthroplasty for a patient with a rigid 15-degree varus deformity, what is the generally accepted initial sequence of medial soft tissue release after removal of all osteophytes?

. Superficial MCL, deep MCL, pes anserinus
. Deep MCL, posteromedial capsule, superficial MCL
. Pes anserinus, superficial MCL, deep MCL
. Posterior cruciate ligament, superficial MCL, deep MCL
. Semimembranosus, deep MCL, posteromedial capsule

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Deep MCL, posteromedial capsule, superficial MCL


Explanation

For a fixed varus deformity, osteophytes are first removed. The initial sequential release typically involves the deep MCL, followed by the posteromedial capsule, and then the superficial MCL or pes anserinus if further correction is needed.

Question 1359

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

During a primary TKA for a severe varus deformity, step-wise medial soft tissue release is necessary. After releasing the deep medial collateral ligament (MCL) and removing osteophytes, the knee remains tight in extension. Which structure should typically be released next to address this extension-predominant tightness?

. Superficial MCL
. Posteromedial capsule
. Pes anserinus tendons
. Popliteus tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posteromedial capsule


Explanation

The posteromedial capsule is a primary restraint to knee extension on the medial side. Releasing it selectively corrects a tight medial extension gap more than the flexion gap, preserving the superficial MCL for coronal stability if possible.

Question 1360

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
A newborn infant is evaluated for skeletal abnormalities. Radiographs demonstrate multiple punctate calcifications in the epiphyses of the long bones, carpus, and tarsus. The mother has a history of a mechanical heart valve. Exposure to which of the following teratogens during pregnancy most closely mimics the radiographic findings of this genetic skeletal dysplasia?
. Phenytoin
. Valproic acid
. Warfarin
. Thalidomide
. Lithium

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Warfarin


Explanation

The radiographic finding of punctate calcifications in the epiphyses is characteristic of Chondrodysplasia Punctata (e.g., Conradi-Hünermann syndrome), a disorder of anarchic cartilage development and calcification. Warfarin embryopathy (fetal warfarin syndrome) occurs when a mother takes warfarin during the first trimester of pregnancy. Warfarin inhibits vitamin K-dependent proteins, including osteocalcin and matrix Gla protein, which are crucial for normal bone and cartilage mineralization. This teratogenic exposure perfectly mimics the stippled epiphyses (chondrodysplasia punctata) seen in the genetic forms of the disease.