Menu

Question 1301

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

According to the Cierny-Mader classification of adult osteomyelitis, what specifically defines a Type B host?

. A host with a localized medullary infection
. A host who requires an amputation
. A systemically or locally compromised host
. A fully immunocompetent, healthy host
. A host with an infected nonunion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A systemically or locally compromised host


Explanation

In the Cierny-Mader classification, host status is divided into Type A (normal), Type B (compromised locally or systemically by factors like diabetes or smoking), and Type C (treatment is worse than the disease).

Question 1302

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 9-year-old boy with a history of recurrent skin boils presents with femur osteomyelitis and a concurrent deep vein thrombosis in the adjacent femoral vein. Which virulence factor is most responsible for this specific hypervirulent presentation?

. Biofilm production
. Panton-Valentine leukocidin (PVL)
. Toxic shock syndrome toxin (TSST-1)
. Protein A
. Alpha-hemolysin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Panton-Valentine leukocidin (PVL)


Explanation

Community-acquired MRSA osteomyelitis often presents with severe disease, including adjacent DVT and multifocal abscesses. This hypervirulence is strongly associated with the Panton-Valentine leukocidin (PVL) cytotoxin, which causes extensive tissue necrosis and leukocyte destruction.

Question 1303

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

An 18-month-old boy presents with a 2-day history of right knee swelling and refusal to bear weight. He is afebrile with a WBC count of 11,000/mcL, ESR of 35 mm/hr, and CRP of 2.5 mg/dL. Knee aspiration yields purulent fluid, but standard culture plates show no growth at 72 hours. A PCR test of the synovial fluid returns positive. What is the most likely pathogen and appropriate antibiotic therapy?

. Staphylococcus aureus treated with Vancomycin
. Streptococcus pyogenes treated with Clindamycin
. Kingella kingae treated with Cefazolin
. Haemophilus influenzae treated with Ceftriaxone
. Salmonella typhimurium treated with Ciprofloxacin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Kingella kingae treated with Cefazolin


Explanation

Kingella kingae is a fastidious Gram-negative organism and the most common cause of septic arthritis in children 6 to 36 months old. It often fails to grow on standard solid media but is reliably detected via PCR, and is generally highly susceptible to beta-lactams like cefazolin.

Question 1304

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 7-year-old boy presents with a 3-day history of fever, malaise, and severe pain in his right distal femur. He refuses to bear weight. Laboratory tests show elevated CRP and ESR. In acute hematogenous pyogenic osteomyelitis in children, what is the most common anatomic location for the initial nidus of infection?

. Diaphysis
. Epiphysis
. Metaphysis
. Apophysis
. Articular cartilage

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Metaphysis


Explanation

Correct Answer: MetaphysisAcute hematogenous pyogenic osteomyelitis in children most commonly begins in the metaphysis of long bones. This is due to the sluggish blood flow in the venous sinusoids of the metaphyseal region, which provides an ideal environment for bacterial seeding and proliferation.

Question 1305

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 24-year-old female presents with anterior chest wall pain, palmoplantar pustulosis, and severe acne. Radiographs of the sternoclavicular joint reveal hyperostosis and osteitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacological treatment for her osteoarticular symptoms?

. Intravenous Vancomycin
. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
. Surgical debridement and bone grafting
. Oral Rifampin and Ciprofloxacin
. Methotrexate monotherapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)


Explanation

Correct Answer: BThe patient's presentation is classic for SAPHO syndrome (Synovitis, Acne, Pustulosis, Hyperostosis, Osteitis), which is classified under Osteoarticular Skin Syndromes (Index 2.1.5). It is an inflammatory, non-infectious condition. The first-line treatment for the osteoarticular manifestations is NSAIDs. Antibiotics and surgical debridement are not indicated as the primary treatment since the bone lesions are typically sterile.

Question 1306

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 9-year-old girl presents with recurrent episodes of multifocal bone pain and swelling, primarily affecting the clavicle and distal tibia. Laboratory tests show a mildly elevated ESR but normal WBC count. Blood cultures are negative, and a bone biopsy reveals sterile chronic inflammation. She also has palmoplantar pustulosis. What is the most appropriate initial pharmacological treatment?

. Intravenous Vancomycin
. Oral Rifampin and Ciprofloxacin
. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
. Methotrexate
. Surgical debridement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)


Explanation

Correct Answer: C (Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs))The clinical picture describes Chronic Recurrent Multifocal Osteomyelitis (CRMO), often associated with SAPHO syndrome (Synovitis, Acne, Pustulosis, Hyperostosis, Osteitis). It is an autoinflammatory condition, not an infectious one. The first-line treatment is NSAIDs. Antibiotics and surgical debridement are not indicated as the lesions are sterile.

Question 1307

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

In the surgical management of chronic bacterial osteomyelitis of the tibia, the surgeon identifies a segment of necrotic cortical bone that has become separated from the surrounding living bone. What is the correct anatomical term for this necrotic bone segment?

. Involucrum
. Cloaca
. Sequestrum
. Brodie's abscess
. Physis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sequestrum


Explanation

Correct Answer: SequestrumA sequestrum is a piece of dead (necrotic) bone that has become separated from normal, sound bone during the process of chronic osteomyelitis. An involucrum is a layer of new bone growth outside existing bone. A cloaca is an opening in the involucrum through which pus and sequestra can discharge.

Question 1308

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 14-year-old boy reports nocturnal thigh pain that is completely relieved by ibuprofen. Imaging shows a 7 mm radiolucent nidus surrounded by reactive sclerosis in the proximal femur cortex. Which inflammatory mediator is characteristically secreted in high levels by this lesion?

. Interleukin-1
. Prostaglandin E2
. Tumor Necrosis Factor-alpha
. Leukotriene B4
. Interleukin-6

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Prostaglandin E2


Explanation

Osteoid osteomas characteristically secrete high levels of Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) due to elevated COX-2 expression. This mediates the typical nocturnal pain that dramatically responds to NSAIDs.

Question 1309

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 9-year-old boy is evaluated for a mass around his ankle. Which of the following is NOT a typical presenting symptom or sign of Dysplasia Epiphysealis Hemimelica (DEH)?

. Aching pains
. Limited range of motion
. Joint deformity
. Mass with the consistency of bone
. Rapidly progressive overlying skin erythema and warmth

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rapidly progressive overlying skin erythema and warmth


Explanation

Correct Answer: Rapidly progressive overlying skin erythema and warmthDEH typically presents with a bone-hard mass, deformity, aching pains, and limited range of motion. Rapidly progressive erythema and warmth are signs of acute inflammation or infection (e.g., osteomyelitis or septic arthritis) and are not characteristic of DEH.

Question 1310

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 58-year-old male with poorly controlled diabetes mellitus presents with a swollen, erythematous, and warm right foot. Radiographs reveal generalized osteopenia and joint subluxation at the midfoot. Which of the following MRI findings is most specific for diagnosing osteomyelitis over acute Charcot neuroarthropathy in this patient?

. Subchondral bone marrow edema in multiple midfoot joints
. Presence of a "ghost sign" where bone becomes invisible on T1 but reappears on T2
. Replacement of marrow fat on T1-weighted images contiguous with a cutaneous ulcer
. Intra-articular fluid collections with synovial enhancement
. Diffuse soft tissue edema affecting the entire forefoot and midfoot

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Replacement of marrow fat on T1-weighted images contiguous with a cutaneous ulcer


Explanation

The most reliable MRI finding for osteomyelitis in the diabetic foot is contiguous marrow signal abnormality (low T1, high T2) directly adjacent to a soft tissue ulcer or sinus tract. Charcot neuroarthropathy typically presents with periarticular marrow edema involving multiple joints without a contiguous ulcer.

Question 1311

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 55-year-old male with long-standing diabetes presents with a non-healing neuropathic plantar ulcer beneath the first metatarsal head. He has bounding pedal pulses and profound peripheral sensory neuropathy. Which of the following is considered an absolute contraindication to treating this ulcer with a Total Contact Cast (TCC)?

. Wagner Grade 1 ulceration
. Presence of a Charcot midfoot deformity
. Deep infection with a sinus tract probing to bone
. Loss of protective sensation (Semmes-Weinstein 5.07 monofilament)
. Bilateral lower extremity involvement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Deep infection with a sinus tract probing to bone


Explanation

Total Contact Casting (TCC) is the gold standard offloading technique for healing plantar neuropathic ulcers. However, absolute contraindications include deep infection (osteomyelitis or abscess), severe peripheral arterial disease, and active bleeding.

Question 1312

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 4-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department refusing to bear weight on her right leg. She has a temperature of 38.8°C, an ESR of 55 mm/hr, and a serum WBC of 14,000 cells/mm3. According to the classic Kocher criteria, what is the probability that this child has septic arthritis of the hip?

. Less than 5%
. Approximately 40%
. Approximately 71%
. Approximately 93%
. Greater than 99%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Greater than 99%


Explanation

This patient meets all four of the classic Kocher criteria: fever >38.5°C, non-weight-bearing status, ESR >40 mm/hr, and WBC >12,000/mm3. The presence of all four predictors indicates a 99% probability of septic arthritis.

Question 1313

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
A 5-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of right hip pain and a limp. He currently refuses to bear weight on the right leg. His oral temperature is 38.6°C (101.5°F). Laboratory studies reveal a white blood cell (WBC) count of 10,500/mm³, an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of 45 mm/hr, and a C-reactive protein (CRP) of 2.5 mg/dL. According to the classic Kocher criteria, what is the approximate probability that this child has septic arthritis of the hip?
. 3%
. 40%
. 71%
. 93%
. 99%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 71%


Explanation

The Kocher criteria are used to differentiate septic arthritis from transient synovitis in the pediatric hip. The four classic criteria are: 1) Non-weight-bearing on the affected side, 2) Temperature > 38.5°C (101.3°F), 3) ESR > 40 mm/hr, and 4) WBC count > 12,000/mm³. This patient meets three of the four criteria (non-weight-bearing, fever > 38.5°C, and ESR > 40 mm/hr). His WBC count is normal (< 12,000). According to Kocher's original study, the probability of septic arthritis is approximately 3% for 1 criterion, 40% for 2 criteria, 93% for 3 criteria, and 99% for all 4 criteria. Therefore, with 3 criteria met, the probability is 93%.

Question 1314

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 2-year-old girl presents with a fever of 39 C, refusal to bear weight, an ESR of 55 mm/hr, and a WBC count of 14,000. Hip aspiration yields purulent fluid with a negative Gram stain. What is the most sensitive method to identify the most common atypical bacterial pathogen in this age group?

. Routine blood agar culture for 48 hours
. Acid-fast bacillus smear
. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) assay of synovial fluid
. Fungal culture
. Synovial fluid glucose and protein levels

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) assay of synovial fluid


Explanation

Kingella kingae is a frequent cause of pediatric septic arthritis in children under 4 years old and is notoriously difficult to culture. PCR of synovial fluid is highly sensitive and the diagnostic test of choice.

Question 1315

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 45-year-old male presents with an acutely swollen, red, and painful knee. Aspiration yields turbid fluid. Synovial fluid analysis confirms the diagnosis of gout. Which of the following describes the characteristic microscopic findings under polarized light?

. Positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals
. Negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals
. Non-birefringent envelope-shaped crystals
. Positively birefringent rod-shaped crystals
. Negatively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals


Explanation

Gout is caused by the deposition of monosodium urate crystals in the joint. Under polarized light microscopy, these crystals classically appear negatively birefringent and needle-shaped.

Question 1316

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 4-year-old boy refuses to bear weight on his right leg. His temperature is 38.8°C, WBC is 13,500/mm3, and ESR is 45 mm/hr. An ultrasound of the right hip demonstrates a significant joint effusion. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Intravenous antibiotics and serial clinical observation
. MRI of the pelvis with and without contrast
. Urgent aspiration and surgical drainage of the hip joint
. CT scan of the hip to rule out osteomyelitis
. Bone scintigraphy (bone scan)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Urgent aspiration and surgical drainage of the hip joint


Explanation

This child meets all four Kocher criteria (fever, inability to bear weight, ESR >40, WBC >12,000) for a septic hip, predicting a >99% probability of the disease. The standard of care is emergent aspiration and surgical washout to prevent devastating cartilage destruction and osteonecrosis.

Question 1317

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 55-year-old male presents with an acute gout flare in his first metatarsophalangeal joint. He has a history of a recent severe upper gastrointestinal bleed and end-stage renal disease on dialysis. Which of the following is the most appropriate acute pharmacologic treatment?

. Indomethacin
. Naproxen
. Colchicine
. Intra-articular or systemic corticosteroids
. Allopurinol

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intra-articular or systemic corticosteroids


Explanation

NSAIDs (indomethacin, naproxen) are contraindicated due to his recent GI bleed and ESRD. Colchicine must be dose-adjusted or avoided in severe renal failure due to toxicity. Corticosteroids are the safest and most effective acute treatment in this patient.

Question 1318

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 2-year-old, fully immunized child is brought to the emergency department with a 2-day history of fever, refusal to walk, and left hip pain. Joint aspiration yields purulent fluid with a WBC count of 85,000/mm3. What is the most common causative organism overall for this condition?

. Kingella kingae
. Staphylococcus aureus
. Haemophilus influenzae type b
. Streptococcus agalactiae
. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Staphylococcus aureus


Explanation

Staphylococcus aureus remains the most common overall cause of septic arthritis in children. While Kingella kingae is increasingly recognized as a common pathogen in children aged 6 months to 4 years, S. aureus is still universally considered the most prevalent pathogen.

Question 1319

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
A 4-year-old boy presents with right hip pain and a limp. He refuses to bear weight. His temperature is 38.8°C (101.8°F), ESR is 45 mm/hr, and peripheral WBC count is 14,000/mm³. According to the Kocher criteria, what is the approximate probability that this child has septic arthritis of the hip?
. 10%
. 40%
. 70%
. 93%
. 99%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 99%


Explanation

The Kocher criteria for pediatric septic arthritis of the hip include non-weight-bearing, fever > 38.5°C, ESR > 40 mm/hr, and WBC > 12,000/mm³. The presence of all four predictors indicates an approximate 99% probability of septic arthritis.

Question 1320

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 68-year-old male presents with a painful, swollen great toe. Radiographs demonstrate punched-out periarticular erosions with overhanging edges.

Synovial fluid analysis of the affected joint is most likely to reveal which of the following?

. Positively birefringent, rhomboid-shaped crystals
. Negatively birefringent, needle-shaped crystals
. Gram-positive cocci in clusters
. Non-birefringent, envelope-shaped crystals
. Positively birefringent, needle-shaped crystals

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Negatively birefringent, needle-shaped crystals


Explanation

The clinical and radiographic presentation is classic for gout. Synovial fluid analysis in gout reveals monosodium urate crystals, which are needle-shaped and strongly negatively birefringent under polarized light.