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Question 521

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

What is the primary problem in rickets osteomalacia?

. Defect in the zone of proliferation within the physis
. Defect in type I collagen
. Defect in the ext-1 gene
. Low level of calcium
. Production of dysplastic fibrous bone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Defect in the zone of proliferation within the physis


Explanation

Rickets is a disorder of bones in children that results from decreased calcium available in the blood resulting in poor mineralization of bone that can lead to fractures and deformity. The most common cause of rickets is from vitamin D deficiency but it can also be caused by poor nutrition or gastrointestinal disease that results in poor calcium absorption such as celiac disease or severe diarrhea from other causes. Rickets is not primarily a physeal disorder. Osteogenesis imperfecta is caused by a defect in type I collagen. A defect in the ext-1 gene is often seen in patients with multiple hereditary exostoses. Fibrous dysplasia also can result in bone deformity and fractures due to production of dysplastic fibrous bone but is not caused by calcium or vitamin D deficiency.

Question 522

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

Trabecular bone is remodeled through the formation of

. cutting cones.
. Haversian canals.
. Volkmann canals.
. Howship lacunae.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. cutting cones.


Explanation

Trabecular bone is remodeled through osteoclast activation that creates a resorption pit known as a Howship lacuna. After the pit is formed, osteoclasts are replaced by osteoblasts that form new bone matrix. The cement line separates new bone formation from resorption. Cutting cones are created in cortical bone remodeling. Haversian canals carry nerves and blood vessels longitudinally in bone, while Volkmann canals connect different Haversian canals.

Question 523

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

Osteoclastic bone resorption is stimulated primarily by what molecular interaction?

. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)-osteoclasts
. Interleukin-6 (IL-6) and IL-8
. Receptor activator of nuclear factor kappa beta (RANK)-RANK ligand (RANKL)
. Osteoprotegrin (OPG)-RANKL

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)-osteoclasts


Explanation

OPG is a receptor that competitively binds with RANKL, blocking the interaction with RANK and inhibiting osteoclastogenesis. PTH, secreted by the chief cells of the parathyroid gland, is active in calcium homeostasis independent of inflammatory arthropathies. PTH increases serum calcium indirectly by binding to osteoblasts, increasing expression of RANKL and decreasing expression of OPG. The interaction of RANKL to RANK in turn stimulates osteoclast precursors to fuse, formingosteoclasts to enhance bone resorption. The pannus of rheumatoid arthritis and monosodium urate crystals of gouty tophi have been shown to trigger release of inflammatory cytokines such as IL-6, IL-8 and tumor necrosis factor alpha. The key to osteoclastic bone resorption of inflammatory arthropathy is regulated by the interaction of RANKL, expressed in osteoblasts and activated T cells, and RANK, expressed in osteoclast progenitors and mature osteoclasts. In inflammatory arthropathy, RANKL expression is increased and OPG is reduced, resulting in increased cortical and subchondral bone.

Question 524

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

-Figure 235 is the radiograph of a 75-year-old woman who is seen in the emergency department following a low-energy fall. What is the most appropriate treatment based on her radiographic findings?

. Perform a biopsy of the lesion
. Stabilize with an intramedullary nail
. Initiate immediate bisphosphonate therapy
. Treat with chemotherapy followed by wide resection
. Obtain a chest CT scan, urine protein electrophoresis, and serum protein electrophoresis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Perform a biopsy of the lesion


Explanation

Question 525

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
Figure 26 shows the MRI scan of a 60-year-old man who has had groin pain for the past 2 months. The patient reports pain with ambulation, and examination reveals an antalgic gait. He denies any history of steroid or alcohol abuse. Plain radiographs are normal. Management should include
. core decompression.
. a vascularized fibula graft.
. intraosseous steroid injection.
. total hip replacement.
. protected weight bearing.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. protected weight bearing.


Explanation

The patient has transient osteoporosis of the hip. Transient osteoporosis is usually a self-limited condition that is most frequently seen in women in the third trimester of pregnancy and in men in the sixth decade of life. Transient osteoporosis is best treated with protected weight bearing.

Question 526

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
In the field of cartilage tissue engineering, which of the following growth factors is most recognized for its potent ability to induce the chondrogenic differentiation of mesenchymal stem cells (MSCs) into chondrocyte-like cells?
. Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)
. Transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-β)
. Platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)
. Fibroblast growth factor-2 (FGF-2)
. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-α)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-β)


Explanation

Members of the Transforming Growth Factor-beta (TGF-β) superfamily, particularly TGF-β1, TGF-β3, and certain Bone Morphogenetic Proteins (BMPs), are the primary chondroinductive factors used in vitro and in tissue engineering to drive undifferentiated mesenchymal stem cells toward a chondrogenic lineage.

Question 527

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

Which transcription factor is considered the master regulator of chondrogenesis and is essential for the expression of Type II collagen and aggrecan during skeletal development?

. SOX9
. RUNX2
. Osterix
. HIF-1 alpha
. Scleraxis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. SOX9


Explanation

SOX9 is the master regulatory transcription factor for chondrogenesis. It directly binds to and activates enhancer elements of key cartilage matrix genes, including COL2A1 (Type II collagen) and ACAN (aggrecan). RUNX2 and Osterix are key regulators of osteogenesis. Scleraxis is associated with tenogenesis/ligamentogenesis.

Question 528

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

Passage of a sodium ion through a voltage-gated channel leads to which of the following?

. Apoptosis of gram negative bacteria
. Binding of RANKL to osteoblasts
. Inhibition of micturition
. Generation of a nerve action potential
. Deposition of salts in adipose tissue

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Apoptosis of gram negative bacteria


Explanation

Passage of sodium through a voltage-gated channel will lead to generation of a nerve action potential.Voltage-gated channel are shut when the membrane potential is near the resting potential of the cell, but they rapidly begin to open if the membrane potential increases to a precisely defined threshold value. When the channels open (in response to depolarization in transmembrane voltage), they allow an inward flow of sodium ions, which changes the electrochemical gradient, which in turn produces a further rise in the membrane potential. This then causes more channels to open, producing a greater electric current across the cell membrane, and so on.Lee et al. present a review article on nerve conduction and needle electromyography studies. They note that the three types of nerve conduction study are motor, sensory,and mixed, of which motor is the least sensitive. In addition, they report that peripheral nerve entrapment initially results in focal demyelination; thus, nerve conduction velocity slows across the site. However, with radiculopathy and nerve root compression, the nerve conduction study may be normal.Catterall presents a review article covering an overview of structural models of voltage-dependent activation, sodium selectivity and conductance, drug block and both fast and slow inactivation. He notes that voltage-gated sodium channels initiate action potentials in nerve, muscle and other excitable cells.Illustration A is a diagram that shows the electrical recordings of an action potential, along with labels of each section of the process.

Question 529

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
Intramembranous ossification during fracture repair is characterized by absence of which of the following elements?
. Alkaline phosphatase
. Osteonectin
. Osteopontin
. Collagen type I expression
. Collagen type II expression

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Collagen type II expression


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Intramembranous ossification occurs through the direct formation of bone without the formation of a cartilaginous intermediate. Clinically, both intramembranous and endochondral ossification occur simultaneously during fracture healing; however, the latter is characterized by the differentiation and maturation of chondrocytes, vascular invasion of a hypertrophic cartilage matrix, and bone formation. Collagens type II and X are cartilage specific and would be characteristic of endochondral ossification, not intramembranous ossification.

Question 530

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

An osteoprogenitor cell is expected to commit to a bone lineage in the presence of what transcription factor?

. PPARy2
. MyoD
. Sox 9
. C/EBPa
. Runx2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. PPARy2


Explanation

Mesenchymal stem cells are pluripotent cells that can differentiate into many lineages including osteoblasts, adipocytes, myoblasts, chondroblasts, and fibroblasts. Runx2 and Osx appear to be required for differentiation to osteoblastic lines. PPARy2 andC/EBPa are transcription factors leading to adipocytes, MyoD promotes myoblasts, and Sox 9 corresponds to chondroblasts.

Question 531

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 74-year-old woman has had acute medial right knee pain for the past 3 months. She denies any history of trauma or previous problems. Coronal and sagittal MRI scans are shown in Figures 11a and 11b. What is the most likely diagnosis? Review Topic

. Osteoarthritis
. Rheumatoid arthritis
. Medial meniscal tear
. Osteonecrosis
. Transient osteoporosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteonecrosis


Explanation

Spontaneous osteonecrosis of the medial femoral condyle is seen in the MRI scans, and is most common in women older than age 60 years. Although usually present in the weight-bearing portion of the medial femoral condyle, spontaneous osteonecrosis has also been described involving the lateral femoral condyle and patella. Most patients are seen postcollapse, and the treatment of choice is arthroplasty. Optimal treatment in precollapse stages is controversial.

Question 532

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

03 5.

. Second only to osteoperosis as the most common metabolic bone disease, Paget’s disease is most often asymptomatic and diagnosed incidentally on routine x-rays. There three distinct histologic phases:
. increase in bone resorption with increase in the number and size of osteoclasts, AKA the “hot” phase.
. Rapid increase in osteoblast activity and new bone formation, AKA the “intermediate” phase
. Decrease in both osteoclastic and osteoblastic activity, AKA“cold” phase

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Second only to osteoperosis as the most common metabolic bone disease, Paget’s disease is most often asymptomatic and diagnosed incidentally on routine x-rays. There three distinct histologic phases:


Explanation

In long bones, radiographs initially show a radiolucency in the metaphysis that progresses into the diaphysis. The entire progression of the disease takes years.The radiograph here shows the typical Paget’s lesion in the right iliac wing with mixed lytic and sclerotic areas.

Question 533

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
A 62-year-old woman with a bone mass density (BMD) T-score of -2.0 sustained a subcapital fracture of her hip. She is an avid tennis player, and history reveals no previous fractures. What is the most appropriate follow-up care?
. Antiresorptive bisphosphonate medication
. A repeat dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry scan (DEXA) and treatment if the T-score is less than -2.5
. A repeat DEXA scan and treatment if the T-score is greater than -1.5
. No treatment since the BMD is not in osteoporotic range
. Teriparatide followed by surgery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Antiresorptive bisphosphonate medication


Explanation

A DEXA scan is most appropriately used to establish a baseline score. Even if the bone mineral density is not within the osteoporotic range (T-score less than -2.5), a prior fragility fracture is a strong risk factor for a second fracture. The guidelines of the National Osteoporosis Foundation indicate that, following a fragility hip fracture, active anti-osteoporotic medication should be initiated, whether or not a DEXA scan is performed.

Question 534

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
Cell signaling through the activation of a transmembrane receptor complex formed by serine/threonine kinase receptors occurs with which of the following growth factors?
. Bone morphogenetic protein
. Fibroblast growth factors
. Insulin-like growth factors
. Platelet-derived growth factors
. Growth hormone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bone morphogenetic protein


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Cell activation and transcription varies with the target cell, the growth factor-receptor combination, and the biologic state of the cell. The growth factors in the transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-β) superfamily signal through serine/threonine kinase receptors. Fibroblast growth factors, insulin-like growth factors, and platelet-derived growth factors signal through tyrosine kinase receptors. Growth hormone is released by the pituitary and circulates to the liver where target cells are stimulated to release insulin-like growth factor. REFERENCES: Lieberman J, Daluiski A, Einhorn TA: The role of growth factors in the repair of bone: Biology and clinical applications. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2002;84:1032-1044. Schmitt JM, Hwang K, Winn SR, et al: Bone morphogenetic proteins: An update on basic biology and clinical relevance. J Orthop Res 1999;17:269-278.

Question 535

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

Which of the following statements is correct regarding Vitamin D?

. 1,25-dihydrocholecalciferol is the best laboratory study to determine a Vitamin D deficiency
. hydroxycholecalciferol is the active form of Vitamin D
. 24,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol is an inactive form of Vitamin D
. 1,25-dihydrocholecalciferol is converted to 25-hydroxycholecalciferol in the kidney
. The half-life of 1,25-dihydrocholecalciferol is longer than 25-hydroxycholecalciferol

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 1,25-dihydrocholecalciferol is the best laboratory study to determine a Vitamin D deficiency


Explanation

24,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol in an inactive form of Vitamin D. High levels of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D stimulate the enzymatic production of 24,25-dihydroxyvitamin D, the inactive form of vitamin D, thereby self-regulating the action of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D.Vitamin D is paramount to proper calcium homeostasis and has important clinical implications in the orthopaedic patient. Vitamin D3 is synthesized in the skin and is converted to 25-hydroxycholecalciferol in the liver. 25-hydroxycholecalciferol is then converted in the kidney into 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol, the active form of vitaminD. The best test to determine Vitamin D deficiency is the measurement of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol, as it has a longer half-life and circulating levels are 1,000x more than 1,25-dihydrocholecalciferol.Patton et al. review the importance of Vitamin D in the orthopaedic patient. They discuss the implications of Vitamin D deficiency, and urge orthopaedic surgeons to be proficient in both the diagnosis and treatment of the condition.Bogunovic et al. measured the levels of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol in 723 patients who were to undergo orthopaedic surgery. 40% of these patients were noted to be deficient in Vitamin D, with the highest rates in patients scheduled to undergo trauma and sports surgery.Illustration A reviews Vitamin D metabolism. 24,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol is referred to as pre-Vitamin D.Incorrect Answers:

Question 536

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
Which of the following changes of calcium metabolism accompany the loss of bone during menopause?
. Negative changes in external calcium balance with a decrease in intestinal calcium absorption and an increase in urinary calcium loss
. A net negative change in calcium balance because of a decrease in intestinal absorption and a lesser decrease in urinary calcium loss
. An increase of intestinal resorption with an increase of free 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D
. Loss of estrogen stimulating loss of calcium via increased PTH levels and subsequent decreased renal tubular absorption of calcium
. No true change in calcium metabolism, but rather a net increased turnover of bone because of a decrease in circulating estrogen

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Negative changes in external calcium balance with a decrease in intestinal calcium absorption and an increase in urinary calcium loss


Explanation

DISCUSSION: There is a negative change of calcium balance with a decrease in intestinal absorption and an increase in urinary calcium loss. The reduction of intestinal absorption is accompanied by reduced circulating concentrations of total, but not free 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D. However, estrogen may also directly regulate intestinal calcium resorption independent of vitamin D. Tubular resorption of calcium is higher in the presence of estrogen. Studies of the levels of PTH in the presence of estrogen are controversial. REFERENCES: Oh KW, Rhee EJ, Lee WY, et al: The relationship between circulating osteoprotegerin levels and bone mineral metabolism in healthy women. Clin Endocrinol (Oxf) 2004;61:244-249. Reid IR: Menopause, in Favus MJ (ed): Primer on Metabolic Bone Diseases and Disorders of Mineral Metabolism, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 1999, pp 55-57.

Question 537

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 45 year-old woman who has not reached menopause yet falls from a standing height and sustains a distal radius fracture. A DEXA scan reveals a T-score of -2.2. Which of the following treatments is indicated in this patient?

. 1,700 mg of calcium
. 1,200 mg of calcium
. 1,700 mg of vitamin D
. 1,200 mg of iron
. 1,700 mg of PTH

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 1,700 mg of calcium


Explanation

The current recommendations for further prevention of any fragility fracture include 1200-1500mg of elemental calcium intake per day and 400-800 IU of vitamin D per day. Of note, these doses are indicated only for prevention and not sufficient for active treatment of osteoporosis (T score less than -2.5).Medications that are approved by the FDA for active treatment of osteoporosis: alendronate, risedronate, raloxifene, estrogen, calcitonin. These medications and preventative measures help to reduce fragility fractures by as much as 50%.Freedman et al. performed a retrospective study that looked at a cohort of patients with fragility fractures and then looked at the type and frequency of osteoporosis related interventions. They found that only 60% of patients actually were either prescribed a medication, given a referral, or ordered additional workup (DEXA scan).Schulman et al. reviewed a series of 80 female patients regarding osteoporosis and bone health, and found that the outpatient sports medicine office setting was an excellent opportunity to educate patients on these topics. The patients' post-education test scores increased significantly after a brief counseling session, and increases in daily calcium intake and exercise levels were also seen.

Question 538

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
A 42-year-old man reports the recent onset of right hip pain. A radiograph and MRI scan are shown in Figures 38a and 38b. A WBC count, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and hip aspiration are within normal limits. Management should now consist of
. core decompression.
. biopsy of the femoral head.
. protected weight bearing and observation.
. total hip arthroplasty.
. percutaneous cannulated pin fixation of the femoral neck.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. protected weight bearing and observation.


Explanation

Transient osteoporosis of the hip is an uncommon problem, usually affecting women in the last trimester of pregnancy and middle-aged men. Symptoms include pain in the involved hip with temporary osteopenia; however, there is no joint space involvement. In this patient, the imaging findings are consistent with transient osteoporosis. Short TR/TE (repetition time/echo time) images reveal diffusely decreased signal intensity in the femoral head and intracapsular region of the femoral neck. Increased signal intensity is seen with increased T2-weighting. Within a few months, the pain, as well as the imaging findings, will completely resolve without intervention. Distinguishing the diffuse features of transient osteoporosis of the hip from the segmental findings of osteonecrosis is essential. Unlike transient osteoporosis of the hip, osteonecrosis will have a double-density signal on MRI and may progress radiographically. Surgical intervention and oral corticosteroids are not indicated for treatment. Protected weight bearing until the pain resolves may decrease symptoms while the transient osteoporosis resolves.

Question 539

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

An 76-year-old woman falls from standing and sustains the injury shown in Figure A. Her most recent T score was -1.9, 3 months prior to presentation. If labwork were performed, which values would be consistent with her bone density score?

. High parathyroid hormone, normal calcium, normal alkaline phosphatase, low phosphorus, low vitamin D
. High parathyroid hormone, low calcium, high alkaline phosphatase, low phosphorus, low vitamin D
. Normal parathyroid hormone, high calcium, low alkaline phosphatase, low phosphorus, low vitamin D
. Low parathyroid hormone, normal calcium, normal alkaline phosphatase, low phosphorus, low vitamin D
. Low parathyroid hormone, low calcium, high alkaline phosphatase, low phosphorus, low vitamin D

Correct Answer & Explanation

. High parathyroid hormone, low calcium, high alkaline phosphatase, low phosphorus, low vitamin D


Explanation

In osteopenia, elevated parathyroid hormone (PTH), high alkaline phosphatase as well as low calcium (Ca), phosphorus and vitamin D would be expected.In the setting of osteopenia/osteoporosis, there is a positive feedback to increase PTH in response to low serum calcium levels. In response, there is a corresponding increase in alkaline phosphatase and decrease in phosphorous and circulating vitamin D levels.Fraser writes a concise, yet thorough synopsis on primary and secondary hyperparathyroidism. In the article, the summary regarding osteopenia/osteoporosis (typically a state of hypovitamin D) begins by stating an initial state of decreased ionised calcium, which increases PTH, results in 3 primary effects: an attempt to increase gut absorption of Ca, mobilize Ca from the bone via osteoclasts and activate vitamin D at the kidney (1,25-vitamin D).Figure A exhibits a left femoral neck fracture, which is a fragility fracture associated with poor bone density. Illustration A is a figure from Fraser's article exhibiting the feedback loop from the hypothalamus, pituitary, adrenal/glandular axis.Incorrect answers:

Question 540

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
What is the primary benefit of using rhBMP-2 instead of autogenous bone graft inside an anterior spinal fusion cage?
. Substantially improved radiographic fusion success rate
. Substantially decreased time to fusion healing
. Substantially decreased hospital stay
. Elimination of autograft harvest
. Elimination of need for postoperative bracing

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Elimination of autograft harvest


Explanation

Radiographic fusion success rates are best described as slightly rather than substantially improved. Hospital stay and time to fusion also are not substantially decreased. Use of BMP does eliminate the need for autograft harvest for anterior lumbar interbody fusion/cage. The need for postoperative bracing is not altered based on graft choice. Early studies of posterolateral fusion applications appear to show a greater potential benefit of rhBMP-2 over autograft.