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Question 2081

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 5-year-old boy presents with progressive bowing of his legs and short stature. His mother has a similar history and required bilateral corrective osteotomies as a teenager. Genetic testing confirms a PHEX mutation. Which of the following is the hallmark of the indicated medical treatment?

. Intravenous bisphosphonates
. Oral calcium and cholecalciferol
. Oral phosphate and calcitriol
. Growth hormone therapy
. Parathyroidectomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Oral phosphate and calcitriol


Explanation

X-linked hypophosphatemic rickets is caused by a PHEX mutation resulting in elevated FGF-23 and renal phosphate wasting. Treatment requires supplementation with both oral phosphate and active vitamin D (calcitriol) to prevent secondary hyperparathyroidism.

Question 2082

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 14-year-old female presents for evaluation of shoulder hypermobility. She can easily approximate her shoulders anteriorly in the midline. Examination reveals delayed eruption of permanent teeth. What is the genetic inheritance pattern and associated gene mutation for this condition?

. Autosomal recessive; SLC26A2
. Autosomal dominant; COMP
. Autosomal dominant; RUNX2 (CBFA1)
. X-linked dominant; PHEX
. Autosomal dominant; FGFR3

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Autosomal dominant; RUNX2 (CBFA1)


Explanation

Cleidocranial dysplasia presents with hypoplastic or absent clavicles, delayed cranial suture closure, and dental abnormalities. It is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern due to a mutation in the RUNX2 (CBFA1) transcription factor.

Question 2083

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 6-year-old boy with X-linked hypophosphatemia (XLH) continues to have progressive lower extremity bowing despite standard oral phosphate and calcitriol therapy. Which of the following targeted therapies directly addresses the underlying pathophysiology?

. High-dose intravenous Vitamin D3
. Teriparatide
. Denosumab
. Burosumab

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Burosumab


Explanation

Burosumab is an FDA-approved monoclonal antibody that binds to and inhibits FGF-23. It is a highly effective targeted therapy for X-linked hypophosphatemia (XLH), addressing the root cause of the renal phosphate wasting.

Question 2084

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 45-year-old female presents with diffuse bone pain. Radiographs demonstrate bilateral pseudofractures of the medial femoral neck.

If an iliac crest bone biopsy with double tetracycline labeling is performed, what is the expected histologic finding?

. A mosaic pattern of woven and lamellar bone
. Increased osteoid seam width and a prolonged mineralization lag time
. Extensive subperiosteal bone resorption with brown tumors
. Empty osteocyte lacunae with signs of creeping substitution

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased osteoid seam width and a prolonged mineralization lag time


Explanation

The classic histologic finding in osteomalacia is an excess of unmineralized osteoid (increased osteoid seam width) and a prolonged mineralization lag time on tetracycline labeling. Radiographically, Looser zones (pseudofractures) are a hallmark sign.

Question 2085

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

Which of the following statements most accurately distinguishes the underlying pathophysiology of osteomalacia from that of osteoporosis?

. Osteoporosis represents a defect in bone mineralization, resulting in a decreased mineral-to-matrix ratio.
. Osteomalacia is characterized by a normal bone mineral-to-matrix ratio but decreased overall bone mass.
. Osteomalacia features a decreased bone mineral-to-matrix ratio due to defective mineralization.
. Both conditions exhibit a decreased mineral-to-matrix ratio, but osteoporosis occurs exclusively in trabecular bone.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteomalacia features a decreased bone mineral-to-matrix ratio due to defective mineralization.


Explanation

Osteomalacia is fundamentally a defect in bone mineralization, resulting in unmineralized osteoid and a decreased mineral-to-matrix ratio. Osteoporosis involves a loss of total bone mass, but the remaining bone has a normal mineral-to-matrix ratio.

Question 2086

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
A 2-year-old child presents with rickets-like skeletal deformities and early loss of deciduous teeth. Laboratory analysis shows marked osteomalacia with a notably low serum alkaline phosphatase level. What is the primary underlying defect?
. Mutation in the PHEX gene leading to FGF-23 excess
. Deficiency of tissue-nonspecific alkaline phosphatase (TNSALP) due to an ALPL mutation
. Dietary deficiency of cholecalciferol
. Impaired 1-alpha-hydroxylase activity in the kidneys

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Deficiency of tissue-nonspecific alkaline phosphatase (TNSALP) due to an ALPL mutation


Explanation

Hypophosphatasia is an inborn error of metabolism caused by mutations in the ALPL gene, leading to deficient tissue-nonspecific alkaline phosphatase (TNSALP) activity. It mimics rickets or osteomalacia radiographically but is distinctly characterized by low serum alkaline phosphatase.

Question 2087

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 4-year-old boy presents with progressive bowing of the lower extremities. Labs show normal serum calcium, low serum phosphate, and elevated alkaline phosphatase. Genetic testing reveals a mutation in the PHEX gene. Which of the following is the primary mechanism of this disease?

. Decreased intestinal calcium absorption
. Excessive production of FGF23 leading to renal phosphate wasting
. Mutation in the Type I collagen gene
. Deficiency of 1 alpha-hydroxylase
. Inadequate dietary intake of Vitamin D

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Excessive production of FGF23 leading to renal phosphate wasting


Explanation

X-linked hypophosphatemic rickets is caused by a PHEX mutation, resulting in excessive FGF23. Elevated FGF23 causes renal phosphate wasting and impairs 1-alpha-hydroxylase, leading to defective bone mineralization.

Question 2088

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 45-year-old female with a history of systemic sclerosis presents with progressive shortening of her distal fingers and painful, chalky subcutaneous nodules on her fingertips. Radiographs reveal resorption of the terminal phalangeal tufts. What is the most appropriate initial management for the subcutaneous nodules if they become acutely inflamed but lack signs of systemic infection?

. Immediate surgical excision
. Empiric intravenous antibiotics
. Intralesional corticosteroid injections or systemic calcium channel blockers
. Amputation of the affected digits
. Bisphosphonate therapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intralesional corticosteroid injections or systemic calcium channel blockers


Explanation

The patient has calcinosis cutis and acro-osteolysis secondary to scleroderma. Initial treatment is medical with calcium channel blockers or intralesional steroids, as surgical excision is fraught with poor wound healing and infection risk.

Question 2089

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 5-year-old boy presents with progressive bowing of the legs and short stature. Labs show normal serum calcium, markedly low serum phosphate, and elevated alkaline phosphatase. Genetic testing reveals a mutation in the PHEX gene. Which of the following best explains the pathophysiology of his condition?

. Defective osteoclast carbonic anhydrase II
. Overproduction of FGF23 leading to renal phosphate wasting
. Defective type 1 collagen synthesis
. Autoimmune destruction of osteoblasts
. Inadequate dietary intake of Vitamin D

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Overproduction of FGF23 leading to renal phosphate wasting


Explanation

X-linked hypophosphatemia is caused by a PHEX gene mutation, leading to decreased degradation and overproduction of FGF23. High FGF23 levels cause decreased renal reabsorption of phosphate, leading to profound hypophosphatemia and defective bone mineralization.

Question 2090

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing



A 45-year-old strict vegan presents with generalized bone pain and a waddling gait. Radiographs show transverse radiolucent bands in the femoral neck and pubic rami. If a bone biopsy were performed following double tetracycline labeling, what would be the expected finding?

. Increased osteoclastic tunneling with normal mineralization
. Decreased distance between tetracycline labels with widened unmineralized osteoid seams
. Woven bone lacking Haversian systems with mosaic cement lines
. Empty lacunae indicating osteonecrosis
. Thickened trabeculae with narrow osteoid seams

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreased distance between tetracycline labels with widened unmineralized osteoid seams


Explanation

The patient has nutritional osteomalacia characterized by Looser zones (pseudofractures). Histomorphometry with double tetracycline labeling would show a decreased distance between labels (low mineralization rate) and widened unmineralized osteoid seams.

Question 2091

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 60-year-old female with a history of celiac disease presents with generalized bone pain and proximal muscle weakness. Her radiographs demonstrate pseudofractures.

Which of the following laboratory profiles is most consistent with her diagnosis?

. Normal Calcium, Normal Phosphate, Normal Alkaline Phosphatase, Normal PTH
. Low Calcium, Low Phosphate, High Alkaline Phosphatase, High PTH
. Normal Calcium, High Phosphate, High Alkaline Phosphatase, Normal PTH
. High Calcium, Low Phosphate, High Alkaline Phosphatase, High PTH
. Normal Calcium, Normal Phosphate, High Alkaline Phosphatase, High PTH

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Low Calcium, Low Phosphate, High Alkaline Phosphatase, High PTH


Explanation

This patient has osteomalacia secondary to malabsorption (Vitamin D deficiency). This leads to low calcium and phosphate levels, which triggers a secondary hyperparathyroidism and elevated alkaline phosphatase.

Question 2092

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 48-year-old woman presents with generalized bone pain and muscle weakness. Radiographs reveal bilateral radiolucent bands perpendicular to the cortex in her femoral necks.

Histological analysis of these bands would most likely demonstrate an accumulation of which of the following?

. Woven bone with haphazard collagen organization
. Unmineralized osteoid
. Acellular necrotic trabeculae
. Osteoclast-rich granulation tissue
. Hypertrophic chondrocytes

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Unmineralized osteoid


Explanation

The patient has osteomalacia with Looser zones (pseudofractures). Histologically, these zones represent areas of thick, unmineralized osteoid seams due to a defect in bone mineralization.

Question 2093

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 35-year-old patient on long-term phenytoin therapy develops osteomalacia. Which of the following best explains the mechanism of antiepileptic-induced bone disease?

. Direct inhibition of osteoblast function
. Renal tubular acidosis causing phosphate wasting
. Induction of hepatic cytochrome P450 accelerating vitamin D catabolism
. Blockade of intestinal calcium channels
. Competitive inhibition of PTH at the osteoblast receptor

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Induction of hepatic cytochrome P450 accelerating vitamin D catabolism


Explanation

Phenytoin and phenobarbital induce hepatic cytochrome P450 enzymes. This accelerates the catabolism of vitamin D into inactive metabolites, leading to decreased calcium absorption and subsequent osteomalacia.

Question 2094

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 5-year-old boy presents with short-trunk dwarfism, a waddling gait, myopia, and a history of cleft palate. Radiographs show delayed ossification of the femoral heads and severe coxa vara. He is diagnosed with spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia (SED) congenita. This disorder is caused by a mutation affecting which of the following proteins?

. Type I collagen
. Type II collagen
. Fibroblast growth factor receptor 3
. Cartilage oligomeric matrix protein (COMP)
. Sulfate transporter

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type II collagen


Explanation

SED congenita is an autosomal dominant skeletal dysplasia caused by a mutation in the COL2A1 gene, resulting in defective Type II collagen. It affects articular cartilage and the nucleus pulposus.

Question 2095

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 5-year-old girl is diagnosed with X-linked hypophosphatemic rickets (PHEX mutation). Which of the following is the gold standard medical therapy to prevent progression of skeletal deformity?

. High-dose cholecalciferol (Vitamin D3) alone
. Oral calcium and bisphosphonates
. Oral phosphate and calcitriol (1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D)
. Growth hormone therapy
. Cinacalcet

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Oral phosphate and calcitriol (1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D)


Explanation

Treatment for X-linked hypophosphatemia requires oral phosphate supplementation. Calcitriol must also be added to prevent secondary hyperparathyroidism, which would otherwise be triggered by the phosphate load.

Question 2096

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 2-year-old boy with a history of anterolateral tibial bowing develops a pseudoarthrosis after a minor fall. He has multiple cafe-au-lait spots. The underlying genetic mutation affects a protein primarily involved in which of the following cellular pathways?

. Wnt/beta-catenin signaling
. Ras-GAP (GTPase activating protein) downregulation
. Fibroblast growth factor receptor inhibition
. Transforming growth factor beta pathway
. Hedgehog signaling

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ras-GAP (GTPase activating protein) downregulation


Explanation

Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1) is caused by a mutation in the NF1 gene, which encodes neurofibromin. Neurofibromin acts as a Ras-GTPase activating protein (Ras-GAP) that normally downregulates Ras signaling; its loss leads to cellular overproliferation.

Question 2097

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 17-year-old male presents with chronic neck pain. Radiographs demonstrate an expansile lesion in the posterior elements of C4.

Histologically, the lesion consists of woven bone trabeculae lined by prominent osteoblasts. Which of the following strongly differentiates this lesion from an osteoid osteoma?

. Presence of a sclerotic rim
. Location in the posterior elements of the spine
. Size greater than 2 cm
. Relief of pain with NSAIDs
. Absence of osteoclast-like giant cells

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Size greater than 2 cm


Explanation

Osteoblastoma and osteoid osteoma are histologically identical. They are differentiated primarily by size, with osteoblastoma defined as being larger than 2 cm.

Question 2098

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 10-year-old girl is evaluated for a broad skull, delayed fontanelle closure, and the unusual ability to touch her shoulders together anteriorly. Which gene mutation is responsible for her condition?

. RUNX2 (CBFA1)
. SOX9
. FGFR3
. COL2A1
. PTPN11

Correct Answer & Explanation

. RUNX2 (CBFA1)


Explanation

Cleidocranial dysplasia is an autosomal dominant condition caused by mutations in the RUNX2 (CBFA1) gene, which is a master transcription factor for osteoblast differentiation. Key features include hypoplastic or absent clavicles and delayed cranial suture closure.

Question 2099

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 10-year-old girl is evaluated for short stature and delayed primary tooth eruption. On examination, she is able to bring her shoulders together anteriorly. Radiographs reveal absent clavicles and delayed skull ossification. Which transcription factor is mutated in this condition?

. SOX9
. RUNX2 (CBFA1)
. SHH
. GLI3
. FBN1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. RUNX2 (CBFA1)


Explanation

Cleidocranial dysplasia is an autosomal dominant condition caused by mutations in the RUNX2 (CBFA1) gene, which is essential for osteoblast differentiation. It presents with hypoplastic clavicles, delayed cranial suture closure, and dental anomalies.

Question 2100

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 10-year-old boy is brought in for an abnormal shoulder appearance. He has excessive shoulder mobility and can touch his shoulders together anteriorly. Radiographs show complete absence of the clavicles. Which gene is primarily mutated in this condition?

. COL2A1
. FGFR3
. RUNX2 (CBFA1)
. SOX9
. LRP5

Correct Answer & Explanation

. RUNX2 (CBFA1)


Explanation

Cleidocranial dysplasia is an autosomal dominant condition characterized by absent or hypoplastic clavicles, delayed cranial suture closure, and dental anomalies. It is caused by a mutation in the RUNX2 (CBFA1) transcription factor, critical for osteoblast differentiation.