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100 Orthopedic MCQs: Trauma, Spine, Recon, Peds & Sports Med | Comprehensive ABOS Review

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Comprehensive 100-Question Exam
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Question 1
Figure 7 shows the CT scan of a 22-year-old professional baseball pitcher who has had elbow pain for the past 6 months despite rest from throwing. Management should consist of
Sports Medicine 2007 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 27
Explanation
The CT scan shows a stress fracture of the olecranon. This injury is the result of repetitive abutment of the olecranon into the olecranon fossa, traction from triceps activity during the deceleration phase of the throwing motion, and impaction of the medial olecranon onto the olecranon fossa from valgus forces. Fractures may be either transverse or oblique in orientation. Initial treatment consists of rest and temporary splinting. Electrical bone stimulation may also be considered. Open fixation with a large compression screw is recommended when nonsurgical management has failed to provide relief. Ahmad CS, ElAttrache NS: Valgus extension overload syndrome and stress injury of the olecranon. Clin Sports Med 2004;23:665-676.
Question 2
A 56-year-old woman has a painful mass on the bottom of her left foot, and orthotic management has failed to provide relief. Examination reveals that the mass is contiguous with the plantar fascia. An MRI scan shows a homogenous nodule within the plantar fascia. Resection of the tumor is shown in the clinical photograph in Figure 39. What type of cell is most likely responsible for the formation of this tumor?
Foot & Ankle Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 10
Explanation
The history, examination, and surgical findings are most consistent with plantar fibromatosis. Plantar fibromatosis is a benign tumor of the plantar fascia that consists chiefly of fibromyoblasts. These cells produce excessive collagen and are similar to the cells found in the palmar fascia of patients with Dupuytren's contracture of the hand. The myocyte, synovial cell, and osteocyte all produce their respective individual tissue types but do not contribute to the formation of a plantar fibromatosis. The T-cell is an important immunologic cell that is most affected in patients with HIV.
Question 3
In the upright standing position, approximately what percent of the vertical load is borne by the lumbar spine facet joints?
Spine Surgery 2000 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 35
Explanation
Direct measurement and finite element modeling results show that approximately 20% of the vertical load is borne by the posterior structures of the lumbar spine in the upright position. Adams MA, Hutton WC: The effect of posture on the role of the apophyseal joints in resisting intervertebral compressive forces. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1980;62:358-362.
Question 4
The afferent pain innervation of the L3-L4 facet joint arises from the medial branch nerve of
Explanation
Afferent pain fibers to the lumbar facet joints arise from the medial branch nerves originating from the next two cephalad levels. Therefore, innervation of the L3-L4 facet joint arises from the L2 and L3 medial branch nerves. This effect should be taken into account when considering a medial branch block or facet denervation. The medial branch nerve arises from the dorsal ramus of the exiting nerve root. Nade SL, Bell E, Wyke BD: The innervation of the lumbar spinal joint and its significance. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1980;62:255-261
Question 5
When conducted at near physiologic strain rates, tensile studies of the inferior glenohumeral ligament (IGHL) have shown that the
Explanation
Tensile testing of the inferior glenohumeral ligament at near physiologic strain rates has shown that the anterior band of the IGHL has the greatest stiffness of the three ligament regions and the glenoid insertion site shows greater strain than the ligament midsubstance. Bigliani LU, Pollock RG, Soslowsky LJ, Flatow EL, Pawluk RJ, Mow VC: Tensile properties of the inferior glenohumeral ligament. J Orthop Res 1992;10:187-197.
Question 6
A 66-year-old woman who previously underwent hemiarthroplasty 2 years ago for a fracture continues to have severe pain and loss of motion despite undergoing physical therapy. A radiograph is shown in Figure 2. What is the most likely reason that this patient has failed to improve her motion?
Upper Extremity 2008 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 4
Explanation
The radiograph shows tuberosity malposition. The effect of improper prosthetic placement has also been associated with poor outcomes. However, the malposition of the tuberosity seen on the radiograph clearly explains loss of motion in this patient. It has been demonstrated that the functional results after hemiarthroplasty for three- and four-part proximal humeral fractures appear to be directly associated with tuberosity osteosynthesis. The most significant factor associated with poor and unsatisfactory postoperative functional results was malposition and/or migration of the tuberosities. Factors associated with a failure of tuberosity osteosynthesis in a recent study were poor initial position of the prosthesis, poor position of the greater tuberosity, and women older than age 75 years (most likely with osteopenic bone). Greater tuberosity displacement has been identified by Tanner and Cofield as being the most common complication after prosthetic arthroplasty for proximal humeral fractures. Furthermore, Bigliani and associates examined the causes of failure after prosthetic replacement for proximal humeral fractures and found that although almost all failed cases had multiple causes, the most common single identifiable reason was greater tuberosity displacement. Bigliani LU, Flatow EL, McCluskey G, et al: Failed prosthetic replacement for displaced proximal humeral fractures. Orthop Trans 1991;15:747-748. Boileau P, Krishnan SG, Tinsi L, et al: Tuberosity malposition and migration: Reasons for poor outcomes after hemiarthroplasty for displaced fractures of the proximal humerus. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 2002;11:401-412.
Question 7
Figure 23 shows the radiograph of an elderly man who fell on his right arm. What is the most important determinate of a good outcome following this injury?
Trauma Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 26
Explanation
Minimally displaced fractures of the proximal humerus have a good outcome if physical therapy is initiated within 2 weeks of the injury. Results are not affected by age, open reduction and internal fixation, or involvement of the greater tuberosity. Immobilization for longer than 3 weeks will often result in stiffness. Koval KJ, Gallagher MA, Marsicano JG, et al: Functional outcome after minimally displaced fractures of the proximal part of the humerus. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1997;79:203-207.
Question 8
What additional percentage of energy expenditure above baseline is required for ambulation after an above-the-knee amputation?
Explanation
Patients with an above-the-knee amputation have a 65% increase in energy expenditure. A patient with a transtibial amputation requires 25% more energy above baseline values; however, bilateral transtibial amputations are associated with a 40% increase in energy expenditure. Otis JC, Lane JM, Kroll MA: Energy cost during gait in osteosarcoma patients after resection and knee replacement and after above-the-knee amputation. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1985;67:606-611.
Question 9
A 45-year-old man sustains an acute closed posterolateral elbow dislocation. The elbow is reduced, and examination reveals that the elbow dislocates posteriorly at 35 degrees with the forearm placed in supination. What is the best course of action?
Upper Extremity Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 24
Explanation
Most closed simple dislocations are best managed with early range of motion. Posterior dislocation typically occurs through a posterolateral rotatory mechanism. When placed in pronation, the elbow has greater stability when the medial ligamentous structures are intact. In traumatic dislocations, MRI rarely provides additional information that will affect treatment. In elbows that remain unstable, primary repair is preferred over ligament reconstruction. Cast immobilization increases the risk of arthrofibrosis.
Question 10
Which of the following articulation couplings shows the lowest coefficient of friction as tested in the laboratory?
Hip 2001 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 16
Explanation
Alumina ceramic is highly biocompatible when used as a biomaterial for joint arthroplasty implants. It has been shown to have good hardness, low roughness, and excellent wettability, therefore resulting in very low friction. However, it is expensive and limited reports have shown the problem of fracture on impact. The exact role for ceramic articulations is unknown at present. Cuckler JM, Bearcroft J, Asgian CM: Femoral head technologies to reduce polyethylene wear in total hip arthroplasty. Clin Orthop 1995;317:57-63.
Question 11
Figures 35a through 35c show the clinical photograph and radiographs of a 15-year-old boy who stubbed his toe 1 day ago while walking barefoot in the yard. Management should consist of
Pediatrics Board Review 2007: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 3 Pediatrics Board Review 2007: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 4 Pediatrics Board Review 2007: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 5
Explanation
The patient has an open fracture of the physis of the distal phalanx with a portion of the nail bed interposed in the physis. Seymour initially described this injury in the distal phalanges of fingers. Optimal treatment consists of removing the interposed tissue, irrigating the fracture, and a short course of antibiotics. The nail should be preserved to provide stability. Kensinger DR, Guille JT, Horn BD, et al: The stubbed great toe: Importance of early recognition and treatment of open fractures of the distal phalanx. J Pediatr Orthop 2001;21:31-34. Pinckney LE, Currarino G, Kennedy LA: The stubbed great toe: A cause of occult compound fracture and infection. Radiology 1981;138:375-377.
Question 12
What is the most frequent location of entrapment of the deep peroneal nerve?
Explanation
The most frequently described entrapment of the deep peroneal nerve is the anterior tarsal tunnel syndrome. This syndrome refers to entrapment of the deep peroneal nerve under the inferior extensor retinaculum. Entrapment can also occur as the nerve passes under the tendon of the extensor hallucis brevis. Compression by underlying dorsal osteophytes of the talonavicular joint and an os intermetatarseum (between the bases of the first and second metatarsals) have previously been described in runners. Kopell HP, Thompson WA: Peripheral entrapment neuropathies of the lower extremity. N Engl J Med 1960;262:56-60.
Question 13
A 13-year-old girl who is 2 years postmenarche has been referred for management of scoliosis. She denies any history of back pain. Radiographs show a right thoracic curve of 35 degrees. She has a Risser sign of 4 and a bone age of 15.5 years. Management should consist of
Explanation
Because the patient is skeletally mature with a curve of less than 40 degrees, there is no benefit to bracing and surgery is not indicated. Management should consist of observation and follow-up radiographs in 6 months. Lonstein JE, Carlson JM: The prediction of curve progression in untreated idiopathic scoliosis during growth. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1984;66:1061-1071.
Question 14
With the arm abducted 90 degrees and fully externally rotated, which of the following glenohumeral ligaments resists anterior translation of the humerus?
Explanation
With the arm in the abducted, externally rotated position, the anterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament complex moves anteriorly, preventing anterior humeral head translation. Both the coracohumeral ligament and the superior glenohumeral ligament restrain the humeral head to inferior translation of the adducted arm, and to external rotation in the adducted position. The middle glenohumeral ligament is a primary stabilizer to anterior translation with the arm abducted to 45 degrees. The posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament complex resists posterior translation of the humeral head when the arm is internally rotated. Harryman DT II, Sidles JA, Harris SL, et al: The role of the rotator interval capsule in passive motion and stability of the shoulder. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1992;74:53-66.
Question 15
A 20-year-old man has a symptomatic lesion of fibrous dysplasia in the femoral neck. Management should consist of
Explanation
Fibrous dysplasia in the femoral neck frequently warrants treatment because of the risk of pathologic fracture. Cortical strut grafts reduce the risk of local recurrence compared with cancellous bone grafting. Because of the consequences associated with fracture in this location, prophylactic fixation is recommended. Radiation therapy and chemotherapy are not used for this benign condition. Simon M, et al: Surgery for Bone and Soft Tissue Tumors. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Raven, 1998, pp 197.
Question 16
In the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)-deficient knee, which of the following variables has the highest correlation with the development of arthritis?
Sports Medicine 2001 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 8
Explanation
Ample evidence supports an increased rate of degenerative arthritis in the ACL-deficient knee. Several variables play a role in the development of the arthritis, but the integrity of the meniscus has been shown to be the single most important factor. O'Brien WR: Degenerative arthritis of the knee following anterior cruciate ligament injury: Role of the meniscus. Sports Med Arthroscopy Rev 1993;1:114-118. Fetto JF, Marshall JL: The natural history and diagnosis of anterior cruciate ligament insufficiency. Clin Orthop 1980;147:29-38.
Question 17
Human tendons are made up primarily of what collagen type (~95%)?
Explanation
Tendons are dense, primarily collagenous tissues that attach muscle to bone. Collagen content of the dry weight is slightly greater than that found in ligaments and is predominantly type I. Type III collagen makes up the remaining ~5% of total collagen content. Kasser JR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 5. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1996, pp 10-12. Garrett WE, Speer KP, Kirkendall DT (eds): Principles & Practice of Orthopaedic Sports Medicine. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2000, pp 21-37.
Question 18
A 45-year-old man has persistent hindfoot pain that is aggravated by weight-bearing activities. History reveals that he sustained a calcaneus fracture 2 years ago, and he underwent a subtalar fusion 1 year ago. Examination reveals tenderness in the sinus tarsi and across the transverse tarsal joint. A plain radiograph and a CT scan are shown in Figures 24a and 24b. A technetium Tc 99m bone scan reveals uptake at the subtalar joint and at the transverse tarsal joints. Management should now consist of
Foot & Ankle Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 23 Foot & Ankle Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 24
Explanation
The patient has a nonunion at the subtalar joint because of poor preparation of the arthrodesis site with incomplete removal of the articular cartilage. Clinically, he has arthritis at the transverse tarsal joint. Casting with a bone stimulator is not expected to result in a union of the subtalar arthrodesis. To address both the subtalar nonunion and the transverse tarsal joint arthritis, revision of the subtalar arthrodesis and conversion to a triple arthrodesis is the preferred option. Graves SC, Mann RA, Graves KO: Triple arthrodesis in older adults: Results after long-term follow-up. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1993;75:355-362. Haddad SL, Myerson MS, Pell RF IV, Schon LC: Clinical and radiographic outcome of revision surgery for failed triple arthrodesis. Foot Ankle Int 1997;18:489-499. Sangeorzan BJ, Smith D, Veith R, Hansen ST Jr: Triple arthrodesis using internal fixation in treatment of adult foot disorders. Clin Orthop 1993;294:299-307. Sangeorzan BJ: Salvage procedures for calcaneus fractures. Instr Course Lect 1997;46:339-346.
Question 19
Which of the following is considered the treatment of choice for a 3-cm chondroblastoma of the distal femoral epiphysis with no intra-articular extension?
Explanation
Curettage and bone grafting typically are the preferred treatment of chondroblastoma, yielding acceptable local recurrence rates of less than 10%. Some surgeons advocate adjuvant therapies such as phenol, liquid nitrogen, or argon beam coagulation. Untreated, these lesions can destroy bone and invade the joint to a significant degree. Large intra-articular lesions may require major joint reconstruction. Wide local excision is rarely required to control the tumor. Radiation therapy is indicated only in unresectable lesions. Springfield DS, Capanna R, Gherlinzoni F, et al: Chondroblastoma: A review of seventy cases. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1985;67:748.
Question 20
A patient undergoes an arthroscopic debridement for lateral epicondylitis. Postoperatively she reports pain and a sense of clicking of the elbow. Examination reveals apprehension to supination, load, and extension. What structure has been injured resulting in the clinical presentation?
Explanation
The patient has an iatrogenic injury to the lateral ulnar collateral ligament following the arthroscopic procedure. Failure to adhere to known anatomic landmarks can lead to this devastating complication. The examination findings are classic for posterolateral elbow instability. Koval KJ (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 7. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, p 318.
Question 21
In Figure 14, the primary fracture line in a calcaneal fracture is best depicted by which of the following schematics?
Trauma Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 5
Explanation
The schematic labeled A best depicts the primary fracture line in a calcaneal fracture. The primary fracture line in an axial-loading fracture of the calcaneus occurs from superior-lateral to inferior-medial. This fracture line separates the calcaneus into sustentacular and tuberosity fragments and typically enters the subtalar joint through the posterior facet. Although additional fracture lines typically occur, the primary fracture line is almost always present. If surgical reduction is planned, reducing the primary fracture is always a key step. Macey LR, Benirschke SK, Sangeorzan BJ, Hansen ST: Acute calcaneal fractures: Treatment option and results. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1994;2:36-43.
Question 22
A 6-year-old African-American boy with sickle cell disease has had pain and limited use of his right arm for the past 3 days. History reveals that he sustained a humeral fracture approximately 3 years ago. A lateral radiograph is shown in Figure 25. Based on these findings, a presumptive diagnosis of chronic osteomyelitis is made. What are the two most likely organisms?
Pediatrics 2004 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 3
Explanation
The risk of Salmonella osteomyelitis is much greater in patients with sickle cell disease than the general population. The exact reason for this increased risk is still unclear, but it appears to be associated with an increased incidence of gastrointestinal microinfarcts and abscesses. Both Staphylococcus aureus and Salmonella have been mentioned as the most prevalent causative organisms. Piehl FC, David RJ, Prugh SI: Osteomyelitis in sickle cell disease. J Pediatr Orthop 1993;13:225-227. Givner LB, Luddy RE, Schwartz AD: Etiology of osteomyelitis in patients with major sickle hemoglobinopathies. J Pediatr 1981;99:411-413. Epps CH Jr, Bryant DD III, Coles MJ, Castro O: Osteomyelitis in patients who have sickle-cell disease: Diagnosis and management. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1991;73:1281-1294.
Question 23
An active 36-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis has continued forefoot discomfort despite the use of orthotics and shoe wear modifications. A radiograph and a clinical photograph are shown in Figures 26a and 26b. Treatment at this point should consist of
Foot & Ankle Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 28 Foot & Ankle Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 29
Explanation
In a patient with inflammatory arthritis, advanced hallux valgus deformity in conjunction with lesser metatarsophalangeal joint destruction and subluxation warrants fusion of the first metatarsophalangeal joint and lesser metatarsal head resections. Hallux valgus correction will fail because of incompetent soft tissues. A Keller resection arthroplasty is not indicated in this age group. Synovectomy is contraindicated because of evidence of erosive changes of the lesser metatarsophalangeal joints. Ouzounian T: Rheumatoid arthritis of the foot & ankle, in Myerson MS (ed): Foot & Ankle Disorders. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2000, vol 2, pp 1189-1204. Mann RA, Thompson FM: Arthrodesis of the first metatarsophalangeal joint for hallux valgus in rheumatoid arthritis. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1984;66:687-692.
Question 24
A 50-year-old man with metastatic renal cell carcinoma has right hip pain. A radiograph and CT scan are shown in Figures 48a and 48b. The first step in management should consist of
Basic Science Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 10 Basic Science Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 11
Explanation
These lesions are extremely vascular and can cause uncontrolled intraoperative bleeding; therefore embolization is the appropriate first treatment. Because the radiograph and CT scan show a lytic lesion in the supra-acetabular region that affects the weight-bearing dome and medial wall, the next step in treatment would most likely be a total hip arthroplasty and acetabular reconstruction. Treatment with bisphosphonates and radiation therapy will not prevent an acetabular fracture. Cementoplasty is an emerging technique in which cement is injected percutaneously into a lesion, but no long-term results have been reported. Radiofrequency ablation of bone metastases is also an emerging technique that provides palliative pain control. Layalle I, Flandroy P, Trotteur G, Dondelinger RF: Arterial embolization of bone metastases: Is it worthwhile? J Belge Radiol 1998;81:223-225.
Question 25
A 40-year-old patient who has a type II odontoid fracture is placed in a halo vest for 12 weeks; however, current radiographs show no evidence of healing. The next most appropriate step in management should consist of
Spine Surgery 2000 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 36
Explanation
Because nonsurgical managment has failed and a significant number of type II odontoid fractures will go on to a nonunion, the salvage treatment of choice is posterior fusion at C1-2. Odontoid screws are contraindicated in patients with a chronic nonunion, which this patient has at the end of 3 months. Montesano PX: Anterior and posterior screw and plate techniques used in the cervical spine, in Bridwell KH, DeWald RL (eds): The Textbook of Spinal Surgery, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1996, vol 2, pp 1743-1761. Bohler J: Anterior stabilization for acute fractures and non-unions of the dens. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1982;64:18-27.
Question 26
As reflected by the SF-36 scores, patients with which of the following conditions demonstrate the most disability in physical function?
Trauma 2009 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 39
Explanation
Pollak and associates found that the average SF-36 score for patients who sustained a pilon fracture was significantly lower than patients with diabetes mellitus, AIDS, hypertension, asthma, migraines, pelvic fracture, polytrauma, and AMI. Moreover, patients having undergone pilon fixation scored lower on all but three of the SF-36 scales (vitality, mental health, and emotional health).
Question 27
Progressive paralysis is most likely to be seen in association with what type of congenital vertebral abnormality?
Explanation
Anterior failure of formation results in a progressive kyphosis that may lead to cord compression and progressive neurologic deficit. Anterior failure of segmentation can also produce progressive kyphosis but usually is not severe enough to cause cord compression. Posterior failure of formation is seen in conditions such as myelomeningocele in which the neurologic deficit is generally stable. Lateral abnormalities and posterior failure of segmentation are rarely associated with progressive neurologic deficit. McMaster MJ, Singh H: Natural history of congenital kyphosis and kyphoscoliosis: A study of one hundred and twelve patients. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1999;81:1367-1383.
Question 28
In addition to pain, which of the following factors are considered most predictive of the risk of pathologic fracture?
Explanation
While guidelines for predicting fracture risk are at best imprecise, the scoring system by Mirels (pain, anatomic location, and pattern of bony destruction) has been shown to be most predictive of fracture risk. Functional pain, peritrochanteric location, and lytic bone destruction are the greatest risk factors for pathologic fracture. The factors of patient weight, age, soft-tissue mass, and location within bone are all of lesser importance. Frassica FJ, Frassica DA, McCarthy EF, Riley LH III: Metastatic bone disease: Evaluation, clinicopathologic features, biopsy, fracture risk, nonsurgical treatment, and supportive management. Instr Course Lect 2000;49:453-459.
Question 29
Which of the following ligaments is most commonly involved in posterolateral rotatory instability of the elbow?
Anatomy Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 28
Explanation
Recurrent posterolateral rotatory instability of the elbow is difficult to diagnose. Such instability can be demonstrated only by the lateral pivot-shift test. The cause for this condition is laxity of the ulnar part of the lateral collateral ligament, which allows a transient rotatory subluxation of the ulnohumeral joint and a secondary dislocation of the radiohumeral joint. The annular ligament remains intact, so the radioulnar joint does not dislocate. Treatment consists of surgical reconstruction of the lax ulnar part of the lateral collateral ligament. The anterior band is the most important part of the medial collateral which is lax in valgus instability of the elbow. Morrey BF: Acute and chronic instability of the elbow. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1996;4:117-128.
Question 30
Nutritional rickets is associated with which of the following changes in chemical blood level?
Explanation
Nutritional rickets is associated with decreased dietary intake of Vitamin D, resulting in low levels of Vitamin D that result in decreased intestinal absorption of calcium and low to normal serologic levels of calcium. To boost serum calcium levels, there is a compensatory increase in PTH and bone resorption, leading to increased alkaline phosphatase levels. Brinker MR: Cellular and molecular biology, immunology, and genetics in orthopaedics, in Miller MD (ed): Review of Orthopaedics, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2001, pp 81-94. Pettifor J: Nutritional and drug-induced rickets and osteomalacia, in Farrus MJ (ed): Primer on the Metabolic Bone Diseases and Disorders of Mineral Metabolism, ed 5. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Williams and Wilkins, 2003, pp 399-466.
Question 31
A 6-year-old girl has the bilateral foot deformity shown in Figure 1. There is no family history of disease. Examination reveals fixed hindfoot equinus, and muscle function testing shows strong posterior tibial function, fair plus anterior tibial function, poor peroneal function, and strong gastrocnemius function. A Coleman block test shows a correctable hindfoot. Nerve conduction velocity studies show diminished function in the peroneal and ulnar nerves on both sides. Pathologic changes found in a sural nerve biopsy include "onion bulb" formation, and DNA testing confirms the presence of a mutation in the MPZ gene, consistent with hereditary motor sensory neuropathy type III (HMSN-III). What is the best course of action?
Pediatrics 2004 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 2
Explanation
The patient has HMSN-III or Dejerine-Sottas syndrome. This form of HMSN progresses very rapidly and frequently results in severe foot deformity in early childhood. The changes are progressive and are the result of muscle imbalance during growth. Balancing of the foot musculature is essential, particularly during the phases of rapid growth of the foot. However, this cannot be accomplished using the anterior tibial muscle because it is already weak and the transfer will further weaken it. Bony procedures also may be required, and tendon transfers cannot be depended on to correct bony deformity. However, these procedures can be deferred until the foot is closer to adult size. Surgeries that lead to joint arthrodesis, such as triple arthrodesis and some midfoot osteotomies, are contraindicated because the feet may lose protective sensation as the disease progresses. Fusions in insensate feet are less successful than realignment procedures that maintain mobility. Wetmore RS, Drennan JC: Long-term results of triple arthrodesis in Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1989;71:417-422. Roper BA, Tibrewal SB: Soft tissue surgery in Charcot-Marie-Tooth. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1989;71:17-20.
Question 32
A newborn with bilateral talipes equinovarus undergoes serial manipulation and casting. What is the primary goal of manipulation?
Pediatrics 2004 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 17
Explanation
Manipulative treatment and casting of talipes equinovarus has become popular because of disappointing surgical results and enthusiasm for the Ponseti method of manipulation. In this technique, the primary goal is to rotate the foot laterally around a talus that is held fixed by the manipulating surgeon's hands. While the navicular may be rotated anterolaterally with this technique, the primary focus is on the calcaneus. The calcaneus is rotated laterally and superiorly, not translated. Some dorsiflexion of the calcaneus can be obtained by manipulation, but the primary focus is on the rotational relationship of the talus and calcaneus, not the degree of calcaneal dorsiflexion. Ponseti IV: Common errors in the treatment of congenital clubfoot. Int Orthop 1997;21:137-141.
Question 33
A 70-year-old golfer has pain in her dominant shoulder. She reports that initially the pain was at night but now she is unable to play. Examination reveals weakness in external rotation and shoulder abduction. Radiographs reveal the humeral head articulating with a thin acromion. Management should consist of
Sports Medicine 2004 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 12
Explanation
Chronic rotator cuff tears should be nonsurgically managed initially with a strengthening program. A cortisone injection may reduce inflammation. Surgery is reserved for patients who continue to have pain and lose sleep despite the use of physical therapy. Blood tests for infection or inflammation are nonspecific. Arthroscopy may play a role, but surgical replacement is reserved for advanced cases. Bokor DJ, Hawkins RJ, Huckell GH, et al: Results of nonoperative management of full-thickness tears of the rotator cuff. Clin Orthop 1993;294:103-110.
Question 34
During C1-C2 transarticular screw fixation, screw misplacement is most likely to result in injury to the
Explanation
With C1-C2 transarticular screw fixation, the following structures are potentially at risk: vertebral artery, spinal cord, occiput-C1 joint, and hypoglossal nerve. The vertebral artery is most vulnerable to injury with drill misdirection or anatomic variations in the vertebral foramen. The hypoglossal nerve may be injured if the drill, tap, or screw passes too far anterior to the lateral mass of C1. This complication is extremely rare. The occiput-C1 joint may be injured if the screw trajectory is too cephalad or cranially directed; however,this scenario is very unlikely because the exposure tends to direct the screw into a caudally inclined direction. This caudal orientation has the potential to cause vertebral artery injury, especially in patients who have a large vertebral foramen in the lateral mass of C2 because of erosions (rheumatoid arthritis) or anatomic variation. CT of the vertebral foramen is recommended when C1-C2 transarticular fixation is being considered. Spinal cord injury is extremely unlikely because of the very large size of the spinal canal in the upper cervical spine; the spinal cord lies far away from the lateral masses of C1 and C2. Mueller ME, Allgower M, et al: Manual of Internal Fixation, ed 3. New York, NY, Springer-Verlag, 1991, pp 634-636.
Question 35
A 16-year-old girl has a painful foot mass. A radiograph, MRI scan, and biopsy specimens are shown in Figures 35a through 35d. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Basic Science 2002 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 26 Basic Science 2002 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 27 Basic Science 2002 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 28 Basic Science 2002 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 29
Explanation
Synovial sarcoma should always be considered in the differential diagnosis of a foot mass; however, the histopathology shows a typical example of PVNS, with hemosiderin, giant cells, and synovium. Synovial chondromatosis would have metaplastic cartilage in the synovium. The radiograph shows subtle erosion of the lateral cortex of the cuboid, and the MRI scan shows a soft-tissue mass. Ghert MA, Scully SP, Harrelson JM: Pigmented villonodular synovitis of the foot and ankle: A review of six cases. Foot Ankle Int 1999;20:326-330. Jones BC, Sundaram M, Kransdorf MJ: Synovial sarcoma: MR imaging findings in 34 patients. Am J Roentgenol 1993;161:827-830. Sartoris DJ, Resnick D: Magnetic resonance imaging of pediatric foot and ankle disorders. J Foot Surg 1990;29:489-494.
Question 36
Figures 21a through 21c show the MRI scans of a 21-year-old football player who sustained a valgus knee injury while changing direction. Examination reveals swelling and tenderness along the medial aspect of the knee. There is a positive Lachman test, 3+ valgus laxity at 30 degrees, and 1+ valgus laxity at 0 degrees extension. The anterior drawer test is increased with the tibia in external rotation. The increase in the anterior drawer test with the tibia in external rotation is most likely the result of
Sports Medicine Board Review 2004: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 18 Sports Medicine Board Review 2004: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 19 Sports Medicine Board Review 2004: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 20
Explanation
The injury mechanism involves a valgus load applied to the knee with the foot in external rotation. The primary stabilizer to valgus laxity is the medial collateral ligament. The secondary restraints to valgus rotation are the cruciate ligaments. Examination indicates disruption of the medial collateral and anterior cruciate ligaments. Valgus opening in extension should also arouse suspicion for an injury to the posterior cruciate ligament; however, in this patient, the valgus opening in extension is mild. The slight opening in extension and the increased anterior drawer, especially with external rotation, indicates disruption of the posteromedial capsule and posterior oblique ligament. Figure 21a shows complete disruption of the superficial and deep medial collateral ligaments involving the meniscofemoral ligament. Figure 21b shows a more posterior coronal section with a torn posterior oblique ligament. Figure 21c shows disruption of the anterior cruciate ligament, while the posterior cruciate ligament at the tibial insertion appears with a homogenous normal signal. Warren LA, Marshall JL, Girgis F: The prime static stabilizer of the medial side of the knee. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1974;56:665-674.
Question 37
The use of posting (a wedge added to the medial or lateral side of an insole) is useful to balance forefoot or hindfoot malalignment. Assuming normal subtalar joint pronation, what is the maximum amount of recommended hindfoot posting?
Foot & Ankle 2000 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 27
Explanation
Generally, patients cannot tolerate more than 5 degrees of hindfoot posting. Donatelli RA, Hurlbert C, Conaway D, et al: Biomechanics foot orthotics: A retrospective study. J Orthop Sports Phys Ther 1988;10:205-212. Michaud TM: Foot Orthoses and Other Forms of Conservative Foot Care. Baltimore, MD, Williams & Wilkins, 1993, pp 61-65, 186.
Question 38
Glenohumeral inferior stability in the adducted shoulder position is primarily a function of the
Explanation
When the arm is adducted, the superior structures, including the superior glenohumeral ligament, are responsible in limiting the inferior translation. With the arm abducted, the inferior glenohumeral ligament complex is responsible for limiting inferior subluxation. Rotator cuff activity can actually depress the humeral head and does not play a role in preventing inferior subluxation. The long head of the biceps and the posterior glenohumeral ligament do not play a role in protecting the shoulder from inferior instability. Warner JJ, Deng XH, Warren RF, Torzilli PA: Static capsuloligamentous restraints to superior-inferior translation of the glenohumeral joint. Am J Sports Med 1992;20:675-685.
Question 39
A 35-year-old patient has right hip pain. Figures 34a and 34b show the coronal MRI scan and the biopsy specimen. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Basic Science 2002 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 24 Basic Science 2002 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 25
Explanation
Alcohol abuse, steroids, Caisson disease, sickle cell disease, and radiation therapy are the leading causes of nontraumatic osteonecrosis of the femoral head. Arlet J: Nontraumatic avascular necrosis of the femoral head: Past, present, and future. Clin Orthop 1992;277:12-21.
Question 40 High Yield
A 36-year-old woman was injured in a train derailment. She has a significant open depressed skull fracture with active bleeding, a hemopneumothorax, and blood in the left upper quadrant and colic gutter by Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma (FAST) examination. Additionally, she has the pelvic injury seen on the CT scans in Figures 18a and 18b. The mortality rate for this patient approaches
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 78 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 79
Detailed Explanation
Mortality following trauma that requires surgical intervention for head, chest, and abdominal injury exceeds 90%. The type of pelvic fracture is a predictor of associated injury, blood requirements, and overall mortality. AP III pelvic fractures require the most blood, and are associated with significant abdominal trauma and shock. Lateral compression pelvic fractures are more associated with head, chest, and occasionally abdominal trauma, and mortality often occurs from associated injuries. Dalal SA, Burgess AR, Siegel JH, et al: Pelvic fracture in multiple trauma: Classification by mechanism is key to pattern of organ injury, resuscitative requirements and outcome. J Trauma 1989;29:981-1000. Eastridge BJ, Burgess AR: Pedestrian pelvic fractures: 5-year experience of a major urban trauma center. J Trauma 1997;42:695-700.
Question 41
Atraumatic neuropathy of the suprascapular nerve usually occurs at what anatomic location?
Explanation
The suprascapular nerve passes through the suprascapular notch and the spinoglenoid notch before innervating the infraspinatus muscle. At both locations, the suprascapular nerve is prone to nerve compression, which often results from a ganglion cyst. The other anatomic locations are not associated with suprascapular nerve impingement. Romeo AA, Rotenberg DD, Bach BR: Suprascapular neuropathy. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1999;7:358-367.
Question 42
What is the most common contracture deformity of the spastic shoulder secondary to a cerebrovascular accident?
Shoulder 2002 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 23
Explanation
The resultant spasticity and weakness (paresis) following a cerebrovascular accident leads to muscle imbalance that commonly results in contracture of the shoulder in adduction, internal rotation, and varying degrees of forward flexion. In addition, the elbow is usually flexed and the forearm pronated. Braun RM, Botte MJ: Treatment of shoulder deformity in acquired spasticity. Clin Orthop 1999;368:54-65.
Question 43
A 65-year-old man has a painful mass of the middle finger. A clinical photograph, lateral radiograph, coronal MRI scan, and biopsy specimen are seen in Figures 20a through 20d. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Basic Science Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 31 Basic Science Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 32 Basic Science Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 33 Basic Science Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 34
Explanation
Although the degeneration of an isolated benign cartilaginous lesion into a chondrosarcoma is rare, it occurs in roughly 10% of patients with Ollier's disease. Pain is the most common symptom of chondrosarcoma. The treatment of low-grade chondrosarcoma ranges from intralesional excision to wide amputation. The intent of the surgery is to remove all the disease to decrease the chance of local recurrence. Lee FY, Mankin HJ, Fondren G, et al: Chondrosarcoma of bone: An assessment of outcome. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1999;81:326-338.
Question 44
A 32-year-old man has a closed oblique displaced fracture at the junction of the lower and middle third of the humeral shaft and a complete radial nerve palsy. Closed reduction is performed and is felt to be acceptable. Management of the radial nerve palsy should consist of
Explanation
In patients who have radial nerve dysfunction associated with a closed humeral fracture, nerve function usually will return to normal without surgical exploration. If clinical findings or electromyographic studies show no improvement at 3 months, surgical exploration and repair can be performed. Tendon transfers are performed if nerve repair is deemed unsuccessful. Pollock FH, Drake D, Bovill EG, et al: Treatment of radial neuropathy associated with fractures of the humerus. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1981;63:239-243.
Question 45
Figure 7 shows a sagittal T1-weighted MRI scan. What muscle/tendon is identified by the arrow?
Upper Extremity 2008 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 15
Explanation
The sagittal T1-weighted MRI scan is useful for interpreting the quality of muscle. The arrow is pointing to the teres minor. Goutallier D, Postel JM, Gleyze P, et al: Influence of cuff muscle fatty degeneration on anatomic and functional outcomes after simple suture of full-thickness tears. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 2003;12:550-554.
Question 46
A 14-year-old girl has had mild pain and nail deformity of the great toe for the past 4 months. A radiograph is shown in Figure 50. What is the most likely etiology of the lesion?
Foot & Ankle Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 21
Explanation
The lesion is typical of a subungual exostosis, which is most often found on the medial aspect of the great toe in children and young adults. The diagnosis is confirmed on radiographs and usually requires excision for relief. Lokiec F, Ezra E, Krasin E, Keret D, Wientraub S: A simple and efficient surgical technique for subungual exostosis. J Pediatr Orthop 2001;21:76-79. Letts M, Davidson D, Nizalik E: Subungual exostosis: Diagnosis and treatment in children. J Trauma 1998;44:346-349.
Question 47
The use of knee arthroscopy following total knee arthroplasty is most effective in treating which of the following conditions?
Explanation
Patellar clunk syndrome is associated with certain types of posterior stabilized knee arthroplasties. Arthroscopic resection of the band of inflammatory tissue inferior to the patellar component is effective in treating this condition. Arthroscopic lavage of infected knee arthroplasties is not associated with an acceptable success rate. Diagnostic arthroscopy for nonspecific pain following arthroplasty is not uniformly successful. Patellar component maltracking is frequently associated with component malposition and is not alleviated by an arthroscopic lateral release. Synovitis secondary to polyethylene wear is best treated by exchange of the polyethylene spacer and not arthroscopic synovectomy. Lucas TS, DeLuca PF, Nazarian DG, et al: Arthroscopic treatment of patellar clunk. Clin Orthop 1999;367:226-229.
Question 48
Figure 7 shows the radiograph of an otherwise healthy 65-year-old man who injured his right dominant shoulder while skiing 18 months ago. He did not seek treatment at the time of the injury. He now reports intermittent soreness when playing golf but has no other limitations. Examination reveals full range of motion and no tenderness, but he has slight pain with a crossed arm adduction stress test. He is neurologically intact. Initial management should consist of
Shoulder 2002 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 17
Explanation
The radiograph shows a displaced type II distal clavicle fracture with nonunion. Because the patient's symptoms are minimal, the injury can be treated like a grade III acromioclavicular separation. Present management should consist of ice, anti-inflammatory drugs, activity modification, and perhaps physical therapy. If nonsurgical management fails to provide relief, the surgical options are varied with no uniformity in the literature regarding surgical treatment of this injury. Beaty JH (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 6. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1999, pp 271-286.
Question 49
What nerve is most at risk during placement of the anterolateral portal in elbow arthroscopy?
Explanation
The radial nerve is only 4 mm from the anterolateral portal, while the median nerve is 11 mm away from the anteromedial portal. The ulnar nerve is only at risk on the medial side of the elbow. Anterior and posterior interosseous nerves are more distal within the forearm and are not in danger during portal placement. O'Driscoll SW, Morrey BF: Elbow arthroscopy, in Morrey BF (ed): The Elbow. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott, Williams and Wilkins, 1994, pp 21-34.
Question 50
Based on the findings seen at C5-6 in Figure 30, the most likely deficit for this patient will be weakness of the
Spine Surgery Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 3
Explanation
A herniated cervical disk at C5-6 causes a C6 radiculopathy. There are eight cervical nerve roots and seven cervical vertebrae, and C8 exits between the C7 and T1 vertebrae. The C6 nerve root typically innervates the biceps and wrist extensor. The deltoid is predominantly innervated by C5. The wrist flexor and triceps are predominantly innervated by C7. Grip strength is predominantly a function of C8.
Question 51
A 53-year-old man with a history of severe left hip pain has a significant limp that is the result of a 5-cm limb-length discrepancy. An AP radiograph is shown in Figure 48. The underlying etiology is most likely related to a history of
Anatomy Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 10
Explanation
Radiographic abnormalities such as coxa magna, coxa breva secondary to growth arrest, and coxa plana and acetabular deformities are associated with healed Legg-Calve-Perthes disease. Femoral heads that were flat yet congruent with the acetabulum are at risk for disabling arthritis in the sixth decade of life in 50% of these untreated patients. As the normal ball-and-socket joint deforms to a flattened cylinder, the hip loses abduction and rotation capability, while retaining flexion and extension potential. If the femoral head is flat and is not concentric with the acetabulum, early severe arthritis occurs. Hinge abduction and anterior impingement are known sequelae of a flat, incongruent femoral head.
Question 52
Examination of a 7-year-old girl with myelomeningocele reveals calcaneal deformities of both feet. She ambulates on both extremities wearing ankle-foot orthoses and has no upper extremity aids. She has grade 5/5 motor strength to the tibialis anterior muscles and absent motor strength to the triceps surae. There is no varus or valgus deformity of the hindfoot, and the skin over the heels is intact; however, mild callosities are present. Management should consist of
Explanation
A calcaneal deformity of the foot may occur in children who have low lumbar myelomeningocele. Strong dorsiflexors overcome a weak or absent gastrocnemius-soleus complex, leading to downward growth of the calcaneal apophysis. The deformity is usually progressive and does not respond to nonsurgical management. Most authorities recommend transfer of the tibialis anterior muscle through the interosseous membrane to the posterior aspect of the calcaneus. This procedure has been reported to be effective in limiting progression of the deformity. An extra-articular subtalar arthodesis, a treatment option for valgus deformity of the hindfoot, is not indicated. Similarly, Achilles tendon tenodesis to the fibula, an option for managing valgus of the ankle, is not indicated. Calcaneal osteotomy may be used in older children with severe calcaneal deformity. Stott NS, Zionts LE, Gronley JK, Perry J: Tibialis anterior transfer for calcaneal deformity: A postoperative gait analysis. J Pediatr Orthop 1996;16:792-798.
Question 53
A 13-year-old girl was riding on an all-terrain vehicle when the driver struck a tree. She sustained the injury shown in Figures 45a through 45d. This injury is best described as what type of acetabular fracture pattern?
Trauma Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 11 Trauma Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 12 Trauma Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 13 Trauma Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 14
Explanation
The fracture is a both-column fracture in the Judet/Letournel classification and a C3 in the AO classification. There is extension into the sacroiliac joint along the pelvic brim and comminution along the posterior column above the sciatic notch. Both the anterior and posterior columns are separately broken and displaced. However, the defining feature of a both-column pattern, as seen in this patient, is that all articular fragments are on fracture fragments and no joint surface is left intact to the axial skeleton above. The use of three-dimensional images makes it easier to view the location of the fracture fragments and the amount and direction of displacement. Helfet DL, Beck M, Gautier E, et al: Surgical techniques for acetabular fractures, in Tile M, Helfet DL, Kellam JF (eds): Fractures of the Pelvis and Acetabulum. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2003, pp 533-603. Tile M: Describing the injury: Classification of acetabular fractures, in Tile M, Helfet DL, Kellam JF (eds): Fractures of the Pelvis and Acetabulum, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2003, pp 427-475.
Question 54
A 10-year-old boy who is active in soccer has had activity-related heel pain for the past 3 months. Examination reveals tenderness over the posterior heel and a tight Achilles tendon. Radiographs demonstrate a 2-cm cyst in the anterior body of the calcaneus. His physes have not closed. Based on these findings, what is the most appropriate management?
Foot & Ankle 2009 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 23
Explanation
The most likely diagnosis is Sever's disease, which is considered either an apophysitis or a para-apophyseal stress fracture. It is common in athletic children and is associated with a tight Achilles tendon. Cast immobilization may be necessary if activity reduction fails. Calcaneal cysts are quite common and do not require any further diagnostic testing or treatment unless they occupy the full width of the calcaneus or one third of the length of the calcaneus. Ogden JA, Ganey TM, Hill JD, et al: Sever's injury: A stress fracture of the immature calcaneal metaphysis. J Ped Orthop 2004;24:488-492.
Question 55
A 7-year-old patient has had a painless limp for several months. Examination reveals pain and spasm with internal rotation, and abduction is limited to 10 degrees on the involved side. Management consists of 1 week of bed rest and traction, followed by an arthrogram. A maximum abduction/internal rotation view is shown in Figure 40a, and abduction and adduction views are shown in Figures 40b and 40c. The studies are most consistent with
Pediatrics 2001 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 19 Pediatrics 2001 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 20 Pediatrics 2001 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 21
Explanation
The radiographs show classic hinge abduction. The diagnostic feature is the failure of the lateral epiphysis to slide under the acetabular edge with abduction, and the abduction view shows medial dye pooling because of distraction of the hip joint. Persistent hinge abduction has been shown to prevent femoral head remodeling by the acetabulum. Radiographic changes are characteristic of severe involvement with Legg-Calve-Perthes disease.The Catterall classification cannot be well applied without a lateral radiograph, but this degree of involvement would likely be considered a grade III or IV. Because the lateral pillar is involved, this condition would be classified as type C using the Herring lateral pillar classification scheme.
Question 56
Figure 38a shows the radiograph of a 12-year-old boy who underwent a reamed intramedullary nailing for a closed femoral shaft fracture. One year after rod removal, he reports groin pain. A current radiograph is shown in Figure 38b. The findings are most likely the result of
Trauma 2006 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 19 Trauma 2006 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 20
Explanation
Osteonecrosis of the femoral head is a known complication from the use of rigid intramedullary nails for femoral fractures in adolescents. When the nails are placed through the piriformis fossa, the lateral ascending vessels of the femoral neck may be injured, resulting in osteonecrosis of the femoral head in 1% to 2% of patients. Rigid reamed nails placed into the piriformis fossa are contraindicated in children with open growth plates because the physis is a barrier to blood supply and the ligamentum teres does not provide sufficient vascularity. Alternative fixation methods for femoral fractures in adolescents include external fixation and open reduction and internal fixation. Nailing through the tip of the trochanter may decrease the incidence of this serious complication. Letts M, Jarvis J, Lawton L, et al: Complications of rigid intramedullary rodding of femoral shaft fractures in children. J Trauma 2002;52:504-516. Stans AA, Morrissy RT, Renwick SE: Femoral shaft fracture treatment in patients age 6 to 16 years. J Pediatr Orthop 1999;19:222-228. Buckley SL: Current trends in the treatment of femoral shaft fractures in children and adolescents. Clin Orthop 1997;338:60-73.
Question 57
What clinical finding is associated with the least favorable prognosis in an adolescent patient who has been diagnosed with a high-grade osteosarcoma of the distal femur?
Basic Science Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 30
Explanation
The presence of synchronous bone disease in young patients carries a dismal prognosis, one that is even worse than the presence of resectable pulmonary metastasis. Many osteosarcomas cross the physis; therefore, this has not been shown to be of prognostic importance. Similarly, the presence of the soft-tissue mass has less prognostic significance.
Question 58
An 18-year-old football player is injured after making a tackle with his left shoulder. He has decreased sensation over the lateral aspect of the left shoulder and radial aspect of the forearm. Motor examination reveals weakness to shoulder abduction and external rotation as well as elbow flexion. He has decreased reflexes of the biceps tendon on the left side but full, nontender range of motion of the cervical spine. What anatomic site has been injured?
Explanation
The athlete has symptoms referable to the axillary, musculocutaneous, and suprascapular nerves resulting from an injury to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus. This portion of the plexus is formed by contributions of the fourth through sixth cervical nerve roots. This area is often contused or stretched following a tackling maneuver that results in either depression of the shoulder from contact at Erb's point or traction of the upper plexus from forced stretching of the neck to the contralateral side. Schenck CD: Anatomy of the innervation of the upper extremity, in Torg JS (ed): Athletic Injuries to the Head, Neck, and Face, ed 2. St Louis, MO, Mosby-Year Book, 1991.
Question 59
Figure 1 shows the radiograph of a 68-year-old man who underwent revision hip arthroplasty with impaction grafting of the femur and cementing of a tapered component into the graft 2 years ago. The patient remains symptom-free. Which of the following best describes the most likely histologic appearance of the proximal femur if a biopsy was performed?
Hip 2001 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 1
Explanation
The radiograph shows three zones: an outer regenerated cortical layer, an interface zone consisting of viable trabecular bone and occasional particles of bone cement, and an inner layer of necrotic bone embedded in cement. No fibrous membrane is noted, and there is no direct contact of cement with native bone. Based on these findings, it is believed that the middle layer is the result of incorporation of the allograft with further remodeling. Nelissen RG, Bauer TW, Weidenhielm LR, LeGolvan DP, Mikhail WE: Revision hip arthroplasty with the use of cement and impaction grafting: Histological analysis of four cases. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1995;77:412-422.
Question 60
A 29-year-old woman who underwent an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction 6 months ago now reports difficulty achieving full knee extension, and physical therapy fails to provide relief. The knee is stable on ligament testing. Figure 3 shows the findings at a repeat arthroscopy. Treatment should now include
Sports Medicine 2001 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 6
Explanation
The patient has a cyclops lesion. This is a nodule of fibroproliferative tissue that originates from either drilling debris from the tibial tunnel or remnants of the ACL stump; more rarely it is the result of broken graft fibers. The treatment of choice is excision of the nodule and, if needed, additional notchplasty. Marked improvements in function and symptoms have been noted after removal of the extension block and resumption of a rehabilitation program. Delince P, Krallis P, Descamps PY, et al: Different aspects of the cyclops lesion following anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction: A multifactorial etiopathogenesis. Arthroscopy 1998;14:869-876.
Question 61
A 77-year-old woman who underwent total knee arthroplasty 16 years ago now reports pain, swelling, and notable crepitation with range of motion. AP, lateral, and Merchant radiographs are shown in Figures 54a through 54c. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Anatomy Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 21 Anatomy Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 22 Anatomy Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 23
Explanation
The Merchant radiograph shows a lateral patellar shift with total polyethylene failure, resulting in a metal-on-metal bearing. This problem is associated with metal-backed patellar components. Component fixation appears solid, and no osteolysis is evident. Poss R (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 3. Park Ridge, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1990, pp 590-593. Leopold SS, Berger RA, Patterson L, et al: Serum titanium level for diagnosis of a failed metal-backed patellar component. J Arthroplasty 2000;15:938-943.
Question 62
An otherwise healthy 25-year-old man sustained a wound with a 1-cm by 1.5-cm soft-tissue loss over the volar aspect of the middle phalanx of his middle finger. After appropriate debridement and irrigation, the flexor digitorum profundus tendon and neurovascular bundles are visible. The wound should be treated with a
Trauma 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 16
Explanation
The wound described indicates loss of soft tissue directly to the level of the tendon, precluding use of skin grafts if excursion of the tendon is desired. A cross-finger flap is ideal for small wounds on the volar aspect of digits. A thenar flap is suitable for tip injuries. A lateral arm flap will not reach the fingers. A Moberg flap is limited to distal injuries of the thumb. Kappel DA, Burech JG: The cross-finger flap: An established reconstructive procedure. Hand Clin 1985;1:677-683.
Question 63
Torsional moments about the longitudinal axis of a total hip arthroplasty show what change during stair climbing compared with walking?
Explanation
The magnitudes of out-of-plane loads on a total hip replacement during activities of daily living can be substantial. Bergmann and associates studied these forces about two instrumented hip prostheses. They noted that the torsional moment about the hip during stair climbing is twice as high as during slow walking and that similar moments are generated during slow jogging. Higher loads were noted when the patients stumbled without falling. They also noted that the torsional moments observed in vivo were close to or even exceeded the experimentally determined limits of the torsional strength of implant fixations. Hurwitz DE, Andriacchi TP: Biomechanics of the hip, in Callaghan JJ, Rosenberg AG, Rubash HE (eds): The Adult Hip. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Raven, 1998, pp 75-85.
Question 64
An 8-year-old girl sustained a displaced fracture at the base of the femoral neck in a motor vehicle accident. Management should consist of
Explanation
Pediatric intracapsular hip fractures are challenging because of the high rates of complications, including osteonecrosis and varus malunion. These patients should be treated as emergencies. Principles of treatment include anatomic reduction with internal fixation. Screw fixation short of the physis is preferred and may need to be supplemented with spica cast immobilization. Fixation may be achieved with smooth pins across the physis when little metaphyseal bone is available. Fixation across the physis with threaded screws is acceptable only when the patient is close to skeletal maturity. Pediatric hip screws are appropriate if immediately available. Emergent open reduction, capsulotomy, or joint aspiration may decrease the rate of osteonecrosis. Cheng JC, Tang N: Decompression and stable internal fixation of femoral neck fractures in children can affect the outcome. J Pediatr Orthop 1999;19:338-343. Azouz EM, Karamitsos C, Reed MH, et al: Types and complications of femoral neck fractures in children. Pediatr Radiol 1993;23:415-420. Song KS, Kim YS, Sohn SW, et al: Arthrotomy and open reduction of the displaced fracture of the femoral neck in children. J Pediatr Orthop B 2001;10:205-210.
Question 65
A 17-year-old basketball player and pole vaulter who has had anterior knee pain for the past 18 months now reports a recent inability to jump. Based on the MRI scan shown in Figure 11, management should consist of
Sports Medicine Board Review 2007: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 8
Explanation
The MRI scan reveals a partial patellar tendon rupture in conjunction with chronic patellar tendinitis. Mild and moderate patellar tendinitis may be treated nonsurgically with rest, stretching, strengthening, and anti-inflammatory drugs. Severe tendinopathy or extensor mechanism disruption is best treated surgically with tendon debridement and repair. Al-Duri ZA, Aichroth PM: Surgical aspects of patella tendonitis: Techniques and results. Am J Knee Surg 2001;14:43-50.
Question 66
Spontaneous recovery of upper extremtiy motor function after a cerebrovascular accident occurs in which of the following predictable patterns?
Upper Extremity 2005 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 21
Explanation
Recovery of upper extremity motor function after a cerebrovascular accident follows a predictable pattern. The greatest amount of recovery is seen within the first 6 weeks. Return of function proceeds from proximal to distal. Shoulder flexion occurs first, followed by return of flexion to the elbow, wrist, and fingers. Return of forearm supination follows the return of finger flexion.
Question 67
What is the relative amount of type II collagen synthesis in disease-free adult articular cartilage compared to developing teenagers?
Explanation
Adult articular cartilage has less than 5% of the synthesis rate of type II collagen than that seen in developing teenagers. Both synthesis and degradation of type II collagen in normal adult articular cartilage is very low compared to children. In osteoarthrosis, both synthesis and degradation are increased, but the collagen does not properly incorporate into the matrix. Lippiello L, Hall D, Mankin HJ: Collagen synthesis in normal and osteoarthritic human cartilage. J Clin Invest 1977;59:593-600.
Question 68
A 28-year-old man reports knee stiffness, swelling, and a constant ache that is worse with activity. Examination reveals an effusion, global tenderness, and warmth to the touch. Flexion is limited to 110 degrees. Figures 48a through 48d show sagittal T1-weighted, sagittal T2-weighted, axial T1-weighted fat-saturated gadolinium, and axial gradient echo MRI scans. Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Anatomy Board Review 2008: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 11 Anatomy Board Review 2008: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 12 Anatomy Board Review 2008: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 13 Anatomy Board Review 2008: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 14
Explanation
The MRI scans show multiple low-signal intensity lesions scattered throughout the knee, extending posteriorly inferior to the tibial plateau. The low-signal intensity on both the T1- and T2-weighted images, the modest vascularity noted on the gadolinium image, and the "blooming" noted on the gradient echo image (ferrous-laden tissue) are all strongly suggestive of diffuse PVNS. Whereas synovial chondromatosis can present as diffuse masses in the knee, they present as nodule masses that have low T1- and high T2-weighted signal characteristics. Resnick D (ed): Diagnosis of Bone and Joint Disorders. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2002, pp 4241-4252.
Question 69
What is the most common presentation of a benign bone tumor in childhood?
Basic Science 2005 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 42
Explanation
The most common benign bone tumors in childhood are discovered incidentally and include single bone cysts, fibrous cortical defects, nonossifying fibroma, and osteochondroma. Benign bone tumors can be classified as latent, active, or aggressive. Aggressive bone tumors usually present with pain, whereas active lesions present with pain or pathologic fracture. Only aggressive benign bone tumors are associated with a soft-tissue mass, and they are far less common than indolent bone tumors, especially in children. Aboulafia AJ, Kennon RE, Jelinek JS: Benign bone tumors of childhood. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1999;7:377-388.
Question 70
A 40-year-old woman has had sciatic pain on the left side for the past 8 weeks. She reports that the pain radiates to her posterior thigh, lateral calf, and into the dorsum of her left foot. Neurologic examination shows weakness of the left extensor hallucis longus. Axial T2-weighted MRI scans through L4-L5 are shown in Figure 14. Management should consist of
Spine Surgery Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 10
Explanation
The MRI scans show hypertrophy of the left L4-L5 facet joint and ligamentum flavum, with a synovial cyst. Appropriate surgical management consists of a hemilaminectomy and direct decompression of the neural elements. Fusion, in addition to the decompression, may be considered, particularly in patients with an associated spondylolisthesis. Epstein NE: Lumbar laminectomy for the resection of synovial cysts and coexisting lumbar spinal stenosis or degenerative spondylolisthesis: An outcome study. Spine 2004;29:1049-1055.
Question 71
Which of the following is an important factor in performing a proper biopsy?
Basic Science 2008 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 6
Explanation
There are a number of important technical details in performing a biopsy. Incisions should always be longitudinal in the extremity. Good hemostasis is important in avoiding contamination from hematoma. The approach should avoid neurovascular structures, and go through a single muscle belly when possible. Although a frozen section should be obtained to ensure adequate viable tissue has been obtained, definitive diagnosis is not necessary at the time of the frozen section. Vaccaro AR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 8. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2005, pp 197-215.
Question 72
A 40-year-old man reports an enlarging soft-tissue mass in his right shoulder. Based on the MRI scan and biopsy specimens shown in Figures 40a through 40c, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Basic Science Board Review 2008: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 59 Basic Science Board Review 2008: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 60 Basic Science Board Review 2008: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 61
Explanation
Nodular fasciitis is a pseudosarcomatous, self-limiting reactive process composed of fibroblasts and myofibroblasts. Most patients give a history of a rapidly growing mass that has been present for only a few weeks. Many have pain associated with the mass and can recall a specific traumatic event predating the presence of the lesion. It can occur at any age but is most commonly seen in adults who are 20 to 40 years of age. Histologically, the lesion is composed of predominantly plump, immature-appearing fibroblasts that bear a close resemblance to the fibroblasts found in granulation tissue. Characteristically, the fibroblasts are arranged in short, irregular bundles and fascicles and are adjacent to collagen and reticulin. The lesions can appear to be more myxoid or more fibrotic in nature and this correlates to the duration of symptoms. The lesions with a short duration of symptoms have a more myxoid appearance in contrast to those of longer duration characterized by hyaline fibrosis. Weiss SW, Goldblum JR, Enzinger FM: Enzinger and Weiss's Soft Tissue Tumors, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, Elsevier, 2001, pp 250-266.
Question 73
Which of the following variables has been shown to have the greatest influence on the higher rate of anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tears in women when compared to men for similar sports?
Sports Medicine 2004 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 17
Explanation
All of the variables have been proposed as possible causes for the increased incidence of ACL tears in women versus men. The general differences in the level of neuromuscular training however, specifically conditioning and muscle strength, have been shown to play the greatest role. Harmon KJ, Ireland ML: Gender differences in noncontact anterior cruciate ligament injuries. Clin Sports Med 2000;19:287-302. Arendt EA: Knee injury patterns among men and women in collegiate basketball and soccer. Am J Sports Med 1995;23:694-701.
Question 74
A 35-year-old man is seen for evaluation of his left ankle following multiple previous ankle sprains and frequent episodes of the ankle giving way. Examination reveals marked laxity about the lateral ankle with associated tenderness along the peroneal tendons. Physical therapy, anti-inflammatory drugs, and supportive bracing have failed to provide relief. An MRI scan shows peroneal tenosynovitis and a possible tear. He elects to undergo a peroneal tendon repair and lateral ligament reconstruction. Which of the following best describes the structure labeled "A" in Figure 45?
Foot & Ankle Board Review 2009: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 23
Explanation
The structure labeled "A" is a peroneus quartus, a supernumary muscle arising most commonly from the peroneus brevis. The presence of peroneus quartus is not uncommon, with an incidence of up to 21%, and is associated with lateral ankle pain and peroneal tendon symptoms, theoretically as a result of mass effect within the peroneal tendon sheath. Zammit J, Singh D: The peroneus quartus muscle: Anatomy and clinical relevance. J Bone Joint Surg Br 2003;85:1134-1137.
Question 75
A 21-year-old man has had right groin pain for the past year. A radiograph, CT scan, MRI scans, and a biopsy specimen are shown in Figures 50a through 50e. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Basic Science 2008 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 31 Basic Science 2008 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 32 Basic Science 2008 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 33 Basic Science 2008 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 34 Basic Science 2008 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 35
Explanation
The pathology demonstrates a very cellular chondroid matrix with multinucleated forms, atypia, and myxomatous regions. This is most consistent with a myxoid chondrosarcoma. The radiograph shows a well-circumscribed lesion in the superior and medial aspect of the right acetabulum. The CT and MRI scans confirm these same findings with no evidence of matrix mineralization or significant surrounding edema. Unfortunately, in this location with this appearance, the radiographic differential diagnosis includes all the diagnoses listed. Terek RM: Recent advances in the basic science of chondrosarcoma. Orthop Clin North Am 2006;37:9-14. Donati D, El Ghoneimy A, Bertoni F, et al: Surgical treatment and outcome of conventional pelvic chondrosarcoma. J Bone Joint Surg Br 2005;87:1527-1530.
Question 76
Figure 2a shows the radiograph of a 48-year-old man who was involved in a motorcycle accident. A CT scan is shown in Figure 2b. The patient underwent pelvic angiography for persistent hypotension despite resuscitation. What vessel is most likely to be injured?
Trauma 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 4 Trauma 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 5
Explanation
The pelvic injury is a severe anterior-posterior compression III or Tile C injury. The vessel most likely injured is the superior gluteal artery, but several arterial bleeding sources are likely. Vertical shear injuries can also injure this vessel, but it is much less common. When arterial injury follows a lateral compression injury, it is usually related to injury of a more anterior vessel like the obturator artery or a branch of the external iliac artery. O'Neill PA, Riina J, Sclafani S, et al: Angiographic findings in pelvic fractures. Clin Orthop 1996;329:60-67.
Question 77
A 29-year-old man reports severe knee instability and popliteal pain. History reveals that he had polio of the left lower extremity as a child and has been brace-free his entire life. Examination reveals that he walks with 40 degrees of knee hyperextension and has a fixed ankle equinus deformity of 30 degrees. He has no active motors about the knee or ankle. Which of the following methods will provide knee stability and pain relief?
Explanation
The ankle equinus allows the patient to keep his weight-bearing line anterior to the axis of the hyperextended knee joint. With time, pain has developed because of continued stretching and now incompetence of the posterior capsule of the knee joint. Several soft-tissue and bony procedures have been designed to provide knee stability in this situation; however, the results have been either short-lived or inconsistent. Tenodeses, capsular plications, and bony blocks have had limited success and generally fail over time. Current orthotic technology makes soft-tissue release and orthotic control the most predictable option. To decrease the hyperextension moment on the knee joint, the ankle deformity also must be corrected. The most predictable method of achieving stability and diminished pain during walking is with soft-tissue release of the ankle and a knee-ankle-foot orthosis with a locked ankle and drop-lock knee joint.
Question 78
A 17-year-old girl who initially presented as a child with multiple skeletal lesions, café-au-lait spots, and precocious puberty now has bone pain. A recent bone scan reveals multiple areas of increased scintigraphic uptake, including bilateral proximal femurs. A radiograph is shown in Figure 19. Besides activity modification, what is the next best line of treatment for decreasing her pain?
Basic Science 2008 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 70
Explanation
McCune-Albright syndrome is the combination of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, café-au-lait lesions, and endocrine dysfunction. The most common endocrine presentation is precocious development of secondary sexual characteristics. Compared with bone lesions in patients without polyostotic disease, the skeletal lesions in patients with the syndrome tend to be larger, more persistent, and associated with more complications. Bisphosphonate therapy has been shown in several studies to decrease the pain associated with the skeletal lesions of fibrous dysplasia. DiCaprio MR, Enneking WF: Fibrous dysplasia: Pathophysiology, evaluation and treatment. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2005;87:1848-1864.
Question 79
A 15-year-old girl who plays high school basketball has had worsening forefoot pain and swelling that is aggravated by activity for the past 5 weeks. She denies any history of an injury. Examination reveals no deformities. A radiograph is shown in Figure 38. Initial management should consist of
Foot & Ankle Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 9
Explanation
Freiberg's infraction is believed to be an osteochondrosis of the second metatarsal head. It is the only osteochondrosis that has a predilection for females. The typical patient is an athletically active adolescent female. The radiograph shows stage II disease wherein reossification is occurring; it is at this time that the second metatarsal head is most susceptible to deformation. Therefore, initial management should consist of a short leg walking cast.
Question 80
Which of the following findings best describes the effects of increasing conformity of a fixed tibial bearing component and femoral component in total knee arthroplasty?
Explanation
In the design of tibial and femoral components, a compromise must be made between contact stresses and constraint. Increased conformity increases constraint, limits motion, and potentially increases stress on the knee-cement interface. By increasing conformity, the surface area over which force is applied is increased, resulting in decreased peak contact stresses and decreased component wear rates. Pellicci PM, Tria AJ Jr, Garvin KL (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Hip and Knee Reconstruction 2. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2000, pp 265-274.
Question 81
A 36-year-old recreational tennis player sustains the injury shown in Figure 16. Management should consist of
Sports Medicine Board Review 2004: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 10
Explanation
The MRI scan shows a rupture of the patellar tendon. This injury is most appropriately addressed with primary repair. For athletic individuals, the results of nonsurgical management are suboptimal. Reconstructive procedures are not necessary. Matava MJ: Patellar tendon ruptures. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1996;4:287-296.
Question 82
A 16-year-old girl has had pain and swelling along the medial arch of her left foot for the past 3 months. She also reports pain from shoe wear and while running. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs have failed to provide relief. Radiographs are shown in Figures 40a through 40c. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Foot & Ankle Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 3 Foot & Ankle Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 4 Foot & Ankle Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 5
Explanation
Nonsurgical management of a symptomatic accessory navicular should be attempted prior to surgery. Good relief is often obtained with a semi-rigid orthosis with a medial arch support. Myerson MS: Foot and Ankle Disorders. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2000, p 655.
Question 83
A 5-year-old boy has had pain in the right foot for the past month. Examination reveals tenderness and mild swelling in the region of the tarsal navicular. Radiographs are shown in Figure 30. Management should consist of
Pediatrics 2007 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 13
Explanation
The child has the classic findings of Kohler's disease or osteochondrosis of the tarsal navicular. The cause of this condition is not known, but osteonecrosis and mechanical compression have been proposed. Children generally report midfoot pain over the tarsal navicular and limping. Physical findings include tenderness, swelling, and occasionally redness in the region of the tarsal navicular. Radiographs show sclerosis and narrowing of the tarsal navicular. The natural history of the condition is spontaneous resolution and reconstitution of the navicular. Symptomatic treatment with restriction of weight bearing or casting is recommended. Karp M: Kohler's disease of the tarsal scaphoid. J Bone Joint Surg 1937;19:84-96.
Question 84
A 25-year-old man has chronic back pain that has been slowly worsening. He has no constitutional symptoms, and he denies any previous medical problems. Examination shows a tall lean build with no objective neurologic findings or skin lesions. Figure 32 shows a T2-weighted sagittal MRI scan. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Spine Surgery Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 6
Explanation
The MRI scan shows significant dural ectasia, which is seen in more than 60% of patients with Marfan syndrome. It is also relatively common in patients with neurofibromatosis, but this patient has no skin lesions. It has also been described in Ehlers-Danlos syndrome but is less common. Ahn NU, Sponseller PD, Ahn UM, Nallamshetty L, Kuszyk BS, Zinreich SJ: Dural ectasia is associated with back pain in Marfan' syndrome. Spine 2000;25:1562-1568.
Question 85
A 35-year-old man sustained a 1-inch stab incision in his proximal forearm while trying to use a screwdriver 2 weeks ago. The laceration was routinely closed, and no problems about the incision site were noted. He now reports that he has been unable to straighten his fingers or thumb completely since the injury. Clinical photographs shown in Figures 30a and 30b show the man passively flexing the wrist. What is the most appropriate management?
Trauma Board Review 2009: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 40 Trauma Board Review 2009: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 41
Explanation
The clinical photographs indicate that the tenodesis effect of digit flexion with passive wrist extension and digit extension with passive wrist flexion is intact, indicating no discontinuity of the extensor or flexor tendons. The most likely injury is a laceration of the posterior interosseous nerve.
Question 86
An otherwise healthy 57-year-old woman has limited range of motion and moderate effusion after undergoing total knee arthroplasty 6 months ago. One of two cultures of joint aspirate reveals methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus epidermidis. Management should now consist of
Explanation
The rapidly increasing prevalence of infection from Staphylococcus epidermidis has made this the most frequently cultured organism. In most patients, the infection occurred intraoperatively, thereby resulting in a chronic infection if not detected within the first 6 weeks after surgery. Irrigation of the joint may be successful during this time in 60% of patients, but the most successful treatment is extirpation for 6 weeks, followed by delayed reimplantation. This approach may result in a salvage rate of as high as 90% in some patients. Drancourt M, Stein A, Argenson JN, et al: Oral rifampin plus ofloxacin for treatment of staphylococcus-infected orthopedic implants. Antimicrob Agents Chemother 1993;37:1214-1218. Duncan CP, Beauchamp C: A temporary antibiotic-loaded joint replacement system for the management of complex infections involving the hip. Orthop Clin North Am 1993;24:751-759.
Question 87
Figure 35 shows the radiograph of a 35-year-old weightlifter who has had pain with overhead lifts for the past 7 months. Cortisone injections in the acromioclavicular joint provided only temporary relief. A bone scan reveals increased activity of the acromioclavicular joint. Treatment should now consist of
Sports Medicine Board Review 2004: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 5
Explanation
Osteolysis of the distal clavicle is common in weightlifters; therefore, distal clavicle excision is the treatment of choice. A subacromial decompression alone would not alleviate the acromioclavicular joint symptoms. Interval closure, biceps degeneration, and superior labrum anterior and posterior repair would limit superior migration but would not explain the abnormal bone scan. Thermal capsular shrinkage does not have a role here. Flatow EL, Cordasco FA, McCluskey GM, Bigliani LU: Arthroscopic resection of the distal clavicle via a superior portal: A critical quantitative radiographic assessment of bone removal. Arthroscopy 1990;6:153-154.
Question 88
Figures 41a and 41b show the radiographs of a 22-year-old woman who has a bunion on her left foot. She denies pain in the foot, but she reports increasing difficulty with shoe wear. Management should consist of
Foot & Ankle Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 15 Foot & Ankle Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 16
Explanation
Surgery is not indicated in a patient who has a mild deformity and no pain. Shoe wear modifications should be recommended.
Question 89
Figure 43 shows an arthroscopic view of the posteromedial compartment of a patient's left knee using a 70-degree arthroscope placed through the intercondylar notch. The arrow is pointing to what structure?
Anatomy Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 1
Explanation
Passing the 70-degree arthroscope through the intercondylar notch provides excellent visualization of the posteromedial corner of the knee. This view should be part of every knee arthroscopy because these structures are often not well visualized from the anterior portals. If this view is omitted, tears of the peripheral posterior horn of the medial meniscus can be overlooked. The arrow points to the peripheral aspect of the posterior horn of the medial meniscus. With an intact medial meniscus, the medial tibial plateau should not be seen from this view. The semimembranosus and gastrocnemius tendons are extra-articular and not visualized. Miller MD: Basic arthroscopic principles, in DeLee JC, Drez D Jr, Miller MD (eds): Orthopaedic Sports Medicine, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, Saunders, 2003, pp 224-237.
Question 90
Patients with patellar clunk syndrome are best managed by which of the following methods?
Hip & Knee Reconstruction 2007 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 23
Explanation
Patellar clunk syndrome is usually the result of a fibrous nodule that forms on the undersurface of the distal quadriceps tendon. It may get entrapped in the intercondylar notch of the femoral component during flexion, and lead to a sudden snap as the nodule is pulled out of the notch during active extension. Nonsurgical management is rarely successful. Surgical debridement is usually curative, with only rare recurrence. More aggressive procedures such as realignment, revision, or patellectomy are usually not necessary, and are reserved for cases resistant to soft-tissue debridement. Pellicci PM, Tria AJ Jr, Garvin KL (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Hip and Knee Reconstruction 2. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2000, p 329. Diduch DR, Scuderi GR, Scott WN, et al: The efficacy of arthroscopy following total knee replacement. Arthroscopy 1997;13:166-171.
Question 91
Which of the following long bone fracture patterns occurs after a pure bending force is exerted to the bone?
Explanation
A pure bending force produces a transverse fracture pattern. Spiral fractures are mainly rotational, oblique are uneven bending, segmental are four-point bending, and comminuted are either a high-speed torsion or crush mechanism. Tencer AF, Johnson KD: Biomechanics in Orthopaedic Trauma: Bone Fracture and Fixation. Philadelphia, PA, JB Lippincott, 1994. Gonza ER: Biomechanical long bone injuries, in Gonza ER, Harrington IJ (eds): Biomechanics of Musculoskeletal Injury. Baltimore, MD, Williams & Wilkins, 1982, pp 1-30.
Question 92
A 53-year-old man reports acute, severe left shoulder pain after undergoing abdominal surgery 10 days ago. Initial management, consisting of anti-inflammatory drugs, physical therapy, and a subacromial injection of corticosteroid, fails to provide relief. Reexamination of the shoulder 2 months after the onset of symptoms reveals atrophy of the infraspinous and supraspinous fossa and profound weakness of active abduction and external rotation. His neck is supple with a full range of motion. Plain radiographs and an MRI scan of the shoulder are normal. What diagnostic study should be performed next in the evaluation of this patient?
Explanation
Suprascapular nerve palsy is a fairly uncommon yet well-known cause of shoulder pain and weakness. A variety of causes have been described, including compression by a ganglion cyst, an anomalous or thickened superior transverse scapular ligament, a humeral and scapular fracture, and traction or kinking of the nerve in the suprascapular notch. In this patient, the injury is most likely caused by traction or compression of the nerve in the suprascapular notch as the result of positioning during abdominal surgery; therefore, the studies of choice are electromyography and nerve conduction velocity studies. While MRI of the cervical spine may be of some value in ruling out a radiculopathy, the clinical history does not support such a cause for this condition. Rengachary SS, Neff JP, Singer PA, Brackett CE: Suprascapular entrapment neuropathy: A clinical, anatomical, and comparative study. Part 1: Clinical study. Neurosurgery 1979;5:441-446. Rengachary SS, Burr D, Lucas S, Hassanein KM, Mohn MP, Matzke H: Suprascapular entrapment neuropathy: A clinical, anatomical and comparative study. Part 2: Anatomical study. Neurosurgery 1979;5:447-451.
Question 93
A 66-year-old patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus has a deep, nonhealing ulcer under the first metatarsal head and a necrotic tip of the great toe. He has been under the direction of a wound care clinic for 4 months, and has had orthotics and shoe wear changes. What objective findings are indicative of the patient's ability to heal the wound postoperatively?
Explanation
Absolute toe pressures greater than 40 to 50 mm Hg are a good sign of healing potential. An ABI of greater than 0.45 favors healing, but indices greater than 1 are falsely positive due to calcifications in the vessels. Normal albumin is an overall indication of nutritional status. A transcutaneous oxygen level should be greater than 40 mm Hg for healing. Mizel MS, Miller RA, Scioli MW (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Foot and Ankle 2. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1998, pp 113-122.
Question 94
An 18-year-old boy has had pain in the right knee for the past 6 months. Examination reveals some fullness behind the knee but no significant palpable soft-tissue mass. There is no effusion, and he has full knee range of motion. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable. A radiograph and MRI scans are shown in Figures 33a through 33c, and biopsy specimens are shown in Figures 33d and 33e. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Basic Science 2005 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 13 Basic Science 2005 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 14 Basic Science 2005 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 15 Basic Science 2005 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 16 Basic Science 2005 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 17
Explanation
The patient has parosteal osteosarcoma. The posterior aspect of the distal femur is the typical location for this variant of osteogenic sarcoma. The imaging studies indicate a surface lesion with no involvement of the adjacent intramedullary canal. The histologic appearance is that of a low-grade fibroblastic osteosarcoma, consisting of relatively mature bone and a bland fibroblastic stroma lacking cytologic atypia and mitotic activity. A cartilaginous component is also frequently seen. Classic osteosarcoma typically has a more aggressive radiologic and histologic appearance. Sessile osteochondromas, while common behind the knee, have a presence of hematopoietic marrow and fat. The cartilage found in the associated cartilaginous cap is oriented. Chondrosarcomas are more typical in an older age group and have a histologic pattern consisting of malignant chondroid. Wold LA, et al: Atlas of Orthopaedic Pathology. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1990, pp 20-21.
Question 95
Based on the type of articulation shown in Figure 32, wear is not affected by which of the following factors?
Hip & Knee Reconstruction 2007 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 5
Explanation
Wear in total hip arthroplasty is a very complex phenomenon. The radial mismatch of the femoral head to the acetabular component has been shown in multiple studies to be a significant factor in wear. The mismatch can neither be too small nor too large. When the mismatch is too small, seizing of the implants can occur. When the mismatch is too large, contact stresses increase and produce exceptionally high wear. The ideal radial mismatch should be approximately 50 microns. Surface roughness and ball sphericity are two items that are extremely important with respect to wear. High carbon content has been shown to decrease wear. This device has a very large head-to-neck ratio, so impingement-related wear is unlikely. Amstutz HC, Grigoris P: Metal on metal bearings in hip arthroplasty. Clin Orthop 1996;329:S11-S34. Amstutz HC, Campbell P, McKellop H, et al: Metal on metal total hip replacement workshop consensus document. Clin Orthop 1996;329:S297-S303.
Question 96
A patient with severe rheumatoid arthritis reports progressive hip pain. Serial hip radiographs will most likely show which of the following findings?
Explanation
Radiographic findings in patients with rheumatoid arthritis include symmetric joint space narrowing, periacetabular and femoral head erosions, and diffuse periarticular osteopenia. In advanced stages, protrusio acetabuli is a common finding. Ranawat and associates have shown a rate of superior femoral head migration of 4.5 mm per year and medial (axial) migration of 2.5 mm per year. Asymmetric joint space narrowing is a classic radiographic finding of degenerative arthrosis. Sacroiliac joint ankylosis commonly occurs in ankylosing spondylitis. Hip synovitis is a pathologic diagnosis, not a radiographic finding. Lachiewicz PF: Rheumatoid arthritis of the hip. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1997;5:332-338.
Question 97
A 50-year-old laborer sustained an isolated closed injury to his heel after falling 11 feet off a wall. A radiograph and a CT scan are shown in Figures 4a and 4b. To minimize the patient's temporary disability and allow him to return to work most rapidly, management should consist of
Foot & Ankle 2000 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 8 Foot & Ankle 2000 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 9
Explanation
With a severe articular injury to the calcaneus, the ability to achieve satisfactory results with open reduction and internal fixation diminishes. An arthrodesis is often needed to allow a person who works as a laborer to return to work. Recent literature suggests that this can be successfully performed primarily, improving the odds of an earlier return to the labor force at 1 year. Huefner T, Thermann H, Geerling J, Pape HC, Pohlemann T: Primary subtalar arthrodesis of calcaneal fractures. Foot Ankle Int 2001;22:9-14. Coughlin MJ: Calcaneal fractures in the industrial patient. Foot Ankle Int 2000;21:896-905.
Question 98
What muscle is most often encountered during surgical approaches to C5-6?
Explanation
The omohyoid muscle crosses the surgical field from inferior lateral to anterior superior traveling from the scapula to the hyoid bone and may need to be transected. The posterior digastric crosses the field as well but higher near C3-4. The other muscles run longitudinally. Chang U, Lee MC, Kim DH: Anterior approach to the midcervical spine, in Kim DH, Henn JS, Vaccaro AR, et al (eds): Surgical Anatomy and Techniques to the Spine. Philadelphia, PA, Saunders Elsevier, 2006, pp 45-56.
Question 99
An AP radiograph of the pelvis is shown in Figure 4. What muscle attaches to the avulsed fragment of bone identified by the arrow?
Anatomy 2002 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 7
Explanation
The radiograph reveals an avulsion of the ischial apophysis, most likely the result of violent contraction of the attached hamstring tendons (semimembranosus, semitendinosus, and long head of the biceps femoris). The short head of the biceps femoris arises from the linea aspera on the posterior femur. The pectineus and adductor longus attach to the pubic portion of the pelvis. The piriformis runs from the sacrum to the femur. Woodburne RT (ed): Essentials of Human Anatomy. New York, NY, Oxford University Press, 1978, pp 542-545.
Question 100
A 71-year-old woman undergoes a posterior lumbar decompression and fusion from L4-S1. Thirty-six hours after the procedure, she reports severe right-sided chest pain and shortness of breath. Doppler ultrasound reveals a clot proximal to the knee within the femoral vein. A large pulmonary embolus is confirmed by CT angiography. The next most appropriate step in management should consist of
Spine Surgery 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 14
Explanation
In a review of 13,000 spinal procedures, nine patients were treated with heparin following development of pulmonary emboli. Of these patients, six had serious complications ranging from wound drainage to paralysis. Heparin therapy instituted within 10 days of the surgical procedure resulted in a 100% complication rate. Vena cava filter placement has a complication rate of 0.12% to 10.1%. Removable filters are currently in clinical trials. Cain JE Jr, Major MR, Lauerman WC, et al: The morbidity of heparin therapy after development of pulmonary embolus in patients undergoing thoracolumbar or lumbar spinal fusion. Spine 1995;20:1600-1603. Roberts AC: Venous imaging and inferior vena cava filters. Curr Opin Radiol 1992;4:88-96.
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Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Written & Medically Reviewed by
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon