Comprehensive 100-Question Exam
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Question 1
Design factors that enhance the long-term survival of proximally coated cementless hip implants include both initial stability and
Explanation
Proximally coated femoral components were conceived in response to the proximal stress shielding seen with extensively coated total hip stems, but initial patient studies showed problems with osteolysis, thigh pain, and stability. However, Mont and Hungerford now report that second-generation devices that have been in use more than 5 years clinically have shown very low aseptic loosening rates (1% to 3%), and patients report less thigh pain (less than 5% in most studies). These results can be attributed to improved geometry, instruments, and technique, which ensure initial implant stability. The authors suggest that proximal coating must be circumferential to seal the diaphysis from wear debris, and they note that the concept of proximal coating for cementless femoral stems seems viable as long as the twin requirements of circumferential coating and rigid initial stability are realized. Mont MA, Hungerford DS: Proximally coated ingrowth prostheses: A review. Clin Orthop 1997;344:139-149. Engh CA, Hooten JP Jr, Zettl-Schaffer KF, Ghaffarpour M, McGovern TF, Bobyn JD: Evaluation of bone ingrowth in proximally and extensively porous-coated anatomic medullary locking prostheses retrieved at autopsy. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1995;77:903-910.
Question 2
A 52-year-old woman underwent open reduction and internal fixation for radial and ulnar shaft fractures 2 months ago. In a second fall she refractured her forearm and required revision surgery with bone grafting. One month after the second operation she notes erythema, swelling, and drainage from the volar radial incision. In addition to antibiotic treatment, management should consist of
Explanation
Deep infections after plating of closed fractures of the forearm are unusual. However, the risk increases with repeat surgeries. Debridement of all infected, nonviable tissue is the initial step in management. The fixation may be retained if it is stable, but if the plate and screws are loose, they should be removed and revision performed after removal of nonviable bone. Either external fixation or repeat plating may be performed. Late infections after fracture union may be treated with plate and screw removal, debridement, and IV antibiotics. Kellam JF, Fischer TJ, Tornetta P III, Bosse MJ, Harris MB (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Trauma 2. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2000, pp 53-63. Moed BR, Kellam JF, Foster RJ, Tile M, Hansen ST Jr: Immediate internal fixation of open fractures of the diaphysis of the forearm. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1986;68:1008-1017.
Question 3
A 63-year-woman has an elbow flexion contracture. History reveals that she underwent three previous surgeries to remove a malignant fibrous histiocytoma of the forearm. An MRI scan reveals a locally recurrent tumor at the site of the previous surgery. Which of the following is considered the most predictive factor for local recurrence?
Explanation
The greatest risk factor for local recurrence is an inadequate surgical margin. The tumor grade, histologic subtype, and size are predictive of systemic relapse. Sarcomas that arise in some anatomic sites, such as the forearm or retroperitoneum, may be more difficult to completely resect compared with other sites. The optimum margin is generally considered to be a cuff of normal tissue beyond the tumor. Bell RS, O'Sullivan B, Liu FF, et al: The surgical margin in soft-tissue sarcoma. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1989;71:370-375. Sadoski C, Suit HD, Rosenberg A, Mankin H, Efird J: Preoperative radiation, surgical margins, and local control of extremity sarcomas of soft tissues. J Surg Oncol 1993;52:223-230.
Question 4
A 19-year-old man who sustained a spinal cord injury in a motor vehicle accident 3 days ago has 5/5 full strength in the deltoids and biceps bilaterally, 4/5 strength in wrist extension bilaterally, 1/5 triceps function on the right side, and 2/5 triceps function on the left side. The patient has no detectable lower extremity motor function. Based on the American Spinal Injury Association's classification, what is the patient's functional level?
Explanation
By convention when determining the motor level, the key muscle must be at least 3/5. The next most rostral level must be 4/5. Therefore, this patient's functional level is C6.
Question 5
Figures 36a and 36b show the radiographs of a 3-year old child who has a congenital upper extremity deformity. Which of the following features would be a major contraindication to a centralization procedure?
Explanation
The patient has bilateral absent radii or radial clubhand. Patients who lack elbow flexion take advantage of the hand position to reach their mouths, and a centralization procedure would take away that ability. This procedure can be performed on patients with partial to complete absence of the radius. A hypoplastic thumb can be addressed at a staged procedure; it does not represent a contraindication to centralization. Complete thumb absence can be addressed by pollicizing the index ray. Green DP: Operative Hand Surgery, ed 2. New York, NY, Churchill Livingstone, 1988, pp 269-271.
Question 6
A 44-year-old farmer involved in a rollover accident on his tractor sustained an L1 burst fracture with a 20% loss of anterior vertebral body height, 30% canal compromise, and 15 degrees of kyphosis. He remains neurologically intact. The preferred initial course of action should consist of
Explanation
Surgical decompression is unnecessary in a patient with no neurologic deficit and canal compromise of less than 50%. A compression deformity of less than 50% and kyphosis of less than 30 degrees may be successfully treated with a TLSO extension brace. Deformity in this range will reliably heal with minimal risk for late deformity or residual pain. Although some studies suggest 6 weeks of bed rest as treatment, early mobilization and bracing is preferred. Hartman MB, Chrin AM, Rechtine GR: Nonoperative treatment of thoracolumbar fractures. Paraplegia 1995;33:73-76. Chow GH, Nelson BJ, Gebhard JS, Brugman JL, Brown CW, Donaldson DH: Functional outcome of thoracolumbar burst fractures managed with hyperextension casting or bracing and early mobilization. Spine 1996;21:2170-2175.
Question 7
An obese patient undergoing total knee arthroplasty is at increased risk for which of the following complications?
Explanation
The rate of wound complications is significantly increased after total knee arthroplasty in obese patients. Knee scores and the rate of aseptic loosening or patellar subluxation do not appear to be significantly altered. Winiarsky R, Barth P, Lotke P: Total knee arthroplasty in morbidly obese patients. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1998;80:1770-1774. Stern SH, Insall JN: Total knee arthroplasty in obese patients. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1990;72:1400-1404.
Question 8
A 35-year-old man has had a mass on the bottom of his foot for the past 6 months. He reports that initially the mass was exquisitely painful but now is minimally tender. Examination reveals a 2.5- x 2.0-cm firm, noncompressible, nonmobile mass contiguous with the plantar fascia in the distal arch. The mass is particularly prominent with passive dorsiflexion of the ankle and toes. What is the best course of action?
Explanation
The history is most consistent with a plantar fibroma. The nodules typically are located within the substance of the plantar aponeurosis. The clinical appearance is usually diagnostic without the need for advanced imaging studies. While the lesion may be prominent and painful to direct palpation, the anatomic location is usually off of the weight-bearing surface. Observation with or without an accommodative orthotic is the treatment of choice. Recurrence is common following attempted excision. Sammarco GJ, Mangone PG: Classification and treatment of plantar fibromatosis. Foot Ankle Int 2000;21:563-569.
Question 9
Which of the following substances is least likely to affect the success of bone union after lumbar arthrodesis?
Explanation
Much attention has been given to the use of supplemental postoperative analgesia with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), and a significant reduction in narcotic use has been recorded. However, a high failure rate of arthrodesis has been associated with the use of postoperative NSAIDs. Glassman and associates reported 29 cases of pseudarthrosis in 167 patients when ketorolac was used as a postoperative analgesic, whereas only five fusion failures were noted in 121 patients not using ketorolac. Indomethacin and ibuprofen have been shown to adversely affect bone formation in clinical and animal trials. Nicotine has also been shown in a number of studies to decrease the fusion rate. Oxycodone hydrochloride is a synthetic morphine and does not affect the fusion process. Glassman SD, Rose SM, Dimar JR, Puno RM, Campbell MJ, Johnson JR: The effect of postoperative nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug administration on spinal fusion. Spine 1998;23:834-838. Deguchi M, Rapoff AJ, Zdeblick TA: Posterolateral fusion for isthmic spondylolisthesis in adults: Analysis of fusion rate and clinical results. J Spinal Disord 1998;11:459-464.
Question 10
Which of the following conditions precludes performing a tendon transfer?
Explanation
Several conditions must be met before a tendon transfer has the potential to correct a dynamic deformity. If the target joint cannot be passively corrected to neutral, it indicates that a static joint contracture or bony deformity exists that cannot be corrected with a dynamic tendon transfer. While in-phase muscles are best, out-of-phase muscles are often the only muscles available for transfer. Tendon transfer should pull in a straight line to avoid tethering and late failure. Canale ST (ed): Campbell's Operative Orthopaedics, ed 10. St Louis, MO, Mosby, 2003, pp 1283-1287.
Question 11
An 83-year-old woman with a long history of her foot slowly and progressively "turning out" now reports significant ankle pain. History reveals that she has significant cardiac disease and exercise-induced angina. Examination reveals a deficiency in the posterior tibial tendon; however, the hindfoot remains moderately supple. Radiographs reveal a valgus tilt of the tibiotalar joint and early arthrosis. What is the most appropriate orthotic management?
Explanation
The patient will continue to have pain secondary to the ankle arthrosis with both the UCBL and the molded articulated ankle-foot orthosis. The total contact orthotic does not provide enough hindfoot control to support the progressive collapse of the ankle into valgus positioning. A molded leather gauntlet will not only control tibiotalar motion but also control hindfoot motion and allow support of the longitudinal arch.
Question 12
Which of the following best describes the mechanical response of the inferior glenohumeral ligament to repetitive subfailure strains?
Explanation
Repetitive subfailure strains have been shown to affect the mechanical behavior of the inferior glenohumeral ligament, producing dramatic declines in the peak load response and length increases that are largely unrecoverable. In another study, anteroinferior subluxation was found to result in nonrecoverable strain in the anteroinferior capsule, varying from 3% to 7% through a range of joint subluxation. Pollock RG, Wang VM, Bucchieri JS, et al: Effects of repetitive subfailure strains on the mechanical behavior of the inferior glenohumeral ligament. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 2000;9:427-435.
Question 13
Figure 8a shows the clinical photograph of an 83-year-old woman who has an enlarging left forearm mass. MRI scans are shown in Figures 8b and 8c. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Explanation
Any large (greater than 5 cm), deep, heterogeneous mass in the extremities should be considered a sarcoma until proven otherwise. Sarcomas are rare, and without a high index of suspicion, the lesions may be misdiagnosed or there may be a delay in diagnosis. Needle biopsies can obtain sufficient tissue for diagnosis and are associated with less morbidity than open biopsy. Marginal resections or excisional biopsies should be reserved for a few select benign lesions and locations. Damron TA, Beauchamp CP, Rougraff BT, et al: Soft-tissue lumps and bumps. Instr Course Lect 2004;53:625-637.
Question 14
Radiographs of a 15-year-old girl with knee pain reveal a radiopaque lesion of the distal femoral metaphysis and epiphysis with a small associated soft-tissue mass. A biopsy specimen shows osteoid and pleomorphic cells with multiple mitotic figures. Staging studies show no other sites of disease. Treatment should consist of
Explanation
Based on the location and extent of the tumor, most patients are candidates for limb salvage surgery. The patient has an osteosarcoma; therefore, the treatment of choice is preoperative chemotherapy, wide resection, and reconstruction. There is no difference in survival rates between patients who undergo limb salvage surgery and those who undergo amputation. Curettage and placement of methylmethacrylate is used to treat benign lesions of bone and would not be appropriate in this patient.
Question 15
A 24-year-old woman fell from a horse and landed on her outstretched right arm. Radiographs reveal an elbow dislocation with a type II coronoid fracture and a nonreconstructable comminuted radial head fracture. What is the most appropriate management?
Explanation
The combination of an elbow dislocation and a fracture of the radial head and coronoid is known as a terrible triad injury. To restore elbow stability, each injury must be addressed. The nonreconstructable radial head fracture requires implant arthroplasty. Open reduction and internal fixation of the coronoid is also necessary as is repair of the lateral collateral ligament complex which is usually avulsed from the lateral epicondyle region. Ring D, Quintero J, Jupiter JB: Open reduction and internal fixation of fractures of the radial head. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2002;84:1811-1815. Ring D, Jupiter JB, Zilberfarb J: Posterior dislocation of the elbow with fractures of the radial head and coronoid. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2002;84:547-551.
Question 16
A 25-year-old construction worker lands on his outstretched hand in a fall. The position of his wrist at the time of impact causes a force that leads to hyperextension, ulnar deviation, and intercarpal supination. Radiographs are shown in Figures 48a and 48b. What type of injury pattern is shown?
Explanation
The patient has a transscaphoid dorsal perilunate dislocation. The radiographs clearly define a dorsal dislocation of the capitolunate joint, and the scaphoid fracture component is easily visible on the AP view. A scaphoid fracture alone is an unlikely diagnosis because of the midcarpal dislocation component. The radiocarpal joint is not dislocated because the lunate is sitting in the lunate fossa of the radius. Isolated radiocarpal dislocations are not associated with a midcarpal disruption. While a midcarpal dislocation is a component of a dorsal perilunate dislocation, this diagnosis does not address the scaphoid fracture. A volar lunate dislocation is not seen because the lunate is reduced in the lunate fossa of the distal radius. Volar lunate dislocations are in the spectrum of injury of perilunate dislocations and fracture-dislocations; however, the radiographs show a transscaphoid dorsal perilunate dislocation. Mayfield JK, Johnson RP, Kilcoyne RK: Carpal dislocations: Pathomechanics and progressive perilunar instability. J Hand Surg Am 1980;5:226-241.
Question 17
Which of the following is considered an inherent problem in using the distal oblique shortening (Weil) metatarsal osteotomy for dorsal metatarsophalangeal subluxation?
Explanation
The distal oblique shortening (Weil) metatarsal osteotomy has not been associated with transfer lesions to the extent of other shortening osteotomies, and malunions and nonunions are unusual complications. Recurrent dorsal contracture of the toe has been reported. Recommendations to reduce this problem include release of the dorsal capsule and tendons, as well as a flexor tendon transfer. A potential cause suspected for this phenomenon is the relatively dorsal positioning of the intrinsic tendons after plantar displacement of the metatarsal head. Trnka HJ, Nyska M, Parks BG, Myerson MS: Dorsiflexion contracture after the Weil osteotomy: Results of cadaver study and three-dimensional analysis. Foot Ankle Int 2001;22:47-50. Trnka HJ, Muhlbauer M, Zettl R, Myerson MS, Ritschl P: Comparison of the results of the Weil and Helal osteotomies for the treatment of metatarsalgia secondary to dislocation of the lesser metatarsophalangeal joints. Foot Ankle Int 1999;20:72-79.
Question 18
The fracture shown in Figure 50 is most reliably treated with what form of fixation?
Explanation
The radiograph shows a comminuted proximal ulnar fracture. The most reliable fixation is a posterior plate, acting as a tension band plate. The fracture involves the proximal shaft of the ulna; therefore, a 3.5-mm compression plate or one of similar size should be used to provide adequate stability. Kirschner wires and tension band wires do not provide axial stability of the comminution of the ulna. Compression screws alone will most likely fail and will not provide axial rotational stability to the construct. A medial plate will not resist the distraction forces across this fracture. McKee MD, Seiler JG, Jupiter JB: The application of the limited contact dynamic compression plate in the upper extremity: An analysis of 114 consecutive cases. Injury 1995;26:661-666.
Question 19
A 72-year-old woman has had progressively increasing pain in the right knee for the past 6 months. She denies any trauma and has no pain in any other joints, but she notes occasional swelling in the knee and a catching sensation. Figures 31a and 31b show the plain radiographs and Figure 31c shows the MRI scan. Treatment should consist of
Explanation
The plain radiographs show a defect in the lateral femoral condyle and narrowing of the lateral joint space. The MRI scan shows a lesion consistent with osteonecrosis of the lateral femoral condyle. The treatment alternatives for this condition are an osteotomy or a total knee replacement, but a total knee replacement is the treatment of choice for a 72-year-old patient. Arthroscopy or an osteochondral bone graft will not address her symptoms. A valgus osteotomy will exacerbate the problem by overloading the lateral joint, which is already diseased. Lotke PA, Ecker ML: Osteonecrosis of the knee. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1988;70:470-473.
Question 20
A 55-year-old woman with a history of untreated idiopathic scoliosis has had neurogenic claudication for the past several months. MRI reveals spinal stenosis at L2-L3, L3-L4, and L4-L5. Radiographs show a 45-degree lumbar curve from T10 to L4, with a degenerative spondylolisthesis at L4-L5. Laminectomy at the stenotic levels and stabilization of the deformity are planned. Which of the following is NOT considered an absolute indication for extending the fusion to the sacrum, rather than stopping at L5?
Explanation
There are several indications for extending adult scoliosis fusions to the sacrum, rather than stopping in the lower lumbar spine. These indications include posterior column deficiencies at L5-S1, such as spondylolysis and laminectomy, and deformities extending to the sacrum, such as fixed tilt of L5-S1 or sagittal imbalance. MRI signal changes in the L5-S1 disk do not preclude stopping the fusion at L5. Some surgeons use diskography or diagnostic facet blocks to evaluate the integrity of the L5-S1 level prior to stopping the fusion at L5. Long scoliosis fusions stopping at L5 have a significant risk of failure, highlighting the importance of careful selection of fusion levels. Bradford DS, Tay BK, Hu SS: Adult scoliosis: Surgical indications, operative management, complications, and outcomes. Spine 1999;24:2617-2629. Bridwell KH: Where to stop the fusion distally in adult scoliosis: L4, L5, or the sacrum? Instr Course Lect 1996;45:101-107.
Question 21
Figure 14 shows the AP radiograph of a patient who underwent prosthetic arthroplasty 8 years ago and has now become symptomatic again over the past 18 months. A WBC count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate are within normal limits, and aspiration of the glenohumeral joint yields a negative Gram stain and cultures. Which of the following procedures will most likely provide the best pain relief and function?
Explanation
Simple removal of the loose glenoid component or removal of the loose component followed by implantation of a new glenoid component are both appropriate treatment choices, depending on the remaining glenoid bone stock. However, removal and reimplantation appears to provide the most predictable pain relief and better function than removal alone. Antuna SA, Sperling JW, Cofield RH, et al: Glenoid revision surgery after total shoulder arthroplasty. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 2001;10:217-224.
Question 22
A 66-year-old man reports a 2-week history of worsening low back and leg pain. He reports that his pain is aggravated by lying down and relieved by standing and walking. He notes that he has been losing weight recently and that his pain has been awakening him during the night. His medical history is significant for hypertension, coronary artery disease, and prostate cancer. His physical examination is essentially unremarkable. Lumbar radiographs are within normal limits. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Explanation
In the initial assessment of acute low back pain in adults, no diagnostic testing is indicated during the first 4 weeks in the absence of "red flags" for a serious underlying condition. The purpose of the initial assessment of acute low back pain in adults is to rule out serious underlying conditions presenting as low back pain. The Agency for Healthcare Policy and Research, in its 1994 clinical practice guideline, identified four serious conditions that may present with low back pain, including fracture, tumor, infection, and cauda equina syndrome. This patient has five "red flags" for a spinal tumor as a possible etiology of his low back pain, including age of older than 50 years, constitutional symptoms (recent weight loss), pain worse when supine, severe nighttime pain, and a history of cancer. Of these, his history of cancer is most significant, as greater than 90% of spinal tumors are metastatic. In order of frequency, breast, prostate, lung, and kidney make up approximately 80% of all secondary spread to the spine. In the presence of "red flags" for tumor or infection, it is recommended that the clinician obtain a CBC count, ESR, and a urinalysis. If these are within normal limits and suspicions still remain, consider consultation or seek further evidence with a bone scan, radiographs, or additional laboratory studies. Negative radiographs alone are insufficient to rule out disease. If radiographs are positive, the anatomy can be better defined with MRI. Agency for Health Care Policy and Research, Bigos SJ (ed): Acute Low Back Problems in Adults. Rockville, MD, US Department of Health and Human Services, AHCPR Publication 95-0642, Clinical Practice Guideline #14, 1994.
Question 23
Thoracic disk herniations are most frequently found in what area of the spine?
Explanation
Although thoracic disk herniations have been reported at all levels of the thoracic spine, more than two thirds are found at T9-T12, which is the more mobile lower third of the thoracic region. Belanger TA, Emery SE: Thoracic disc disease and myelopathy, in Frymoyer JW, Wiesel SW (eds): The Adult and Pediatric Spine. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Williams and Wilkins, 2004, pp 855-864.
Question 24
Figure 16 shows the radiograph of an otherwise healthy 62-year-old woman who fell. Management should consist of
Explanation
The radiograph reveals that the femoral component is grossly loose as evidenced by disruption of the cement column; therefore, retention of the original components will not yield a successful outcome. A cementless revision is the procedure of choice. A strut graft and/or plate may be added at the surgeon's discretion. A resection arthroplasty would only be considered in a nonambulatory patient. Cemented fixation of the revision component would be problematic given the numerous fracture fragments and the inability to contain the cement. Springer BD, Berry DJ, Lewallen DG: Treatment of periprosthetic fractures following total hip arthroplasty with femoral component revision. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2003;85:2156-2162.
Question 25
A 5-year-old boy has had midfoot pain with activity for the past 3 months. He has no pain at rest. Radiographs are shown in Figures 29a and 29b. Management should consist of
Explanation
The radiographs show classic findings for Koehler's disease (osteochondrosis of the navicular). The patient's age and clinical history are typical for this self-limiting condition. Patients will improve with time, but the duration of symptoms is much shorter if the patient is placed in a cast. There is no role for surgery in this disease.
Question 26
A 72-year-old man injured his right shoulder after tripping over a chair leg. Radiographs obtained in the emergency department reveal an isolated anterior dislocation. After successful closed reduction, the patient has recurrent anterior instability and is unable to elevate the arm. What is the most likely cause of the recurrent instability?
Explanation
A rotator cuff tear is the most common cause of recurrent instability following a first-time dislocation in patients older than age 40 years. Dislocations occur through a posterior mechanism rather than by an isolated labral avulsion or a Bankart lesion as seen in younger patients. Nevaiser RJ, Nevaiser TJ: Recurrent instability of the shoulder after age 40. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 1995;4:416-418.
Question 27
A 23-year-old man sustains a unilateral jumped facet with an isolated cervical root injury in a motor vehicle accident. Acute reduction results in some initial improvement of his motor weakness. Over the next 48 hours, examination reveals ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation in his face, limbs, and trunk, as well as nystagmus, tinnitus, and diplopia. What is the most likely etiology for these changes?
Explanation
The patient is showing signs of vertebral artery stroke. The signs of Wallenberg syndrome include those listed above, as well as contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation throughout the body, an ipsilateral Horner's syndrome, dysphagia, and ataxia. Vertebral artery injuries are not unusual in significant cervical facet injuries. A lesion in the cervical spinal cord is not associated with these symptoms, and an intracranial hemorrhage from trauma is unlikely to present in this manner. Young PA, Young PH: Basic Clinical Neuroanatomy. Baltimore, MD, Williams and Wilkins, 1997, pp 242-243. Hauop JS, et al: The cause of neurologic deterioration after acute cervical spinal cord injury. Spine 2001;26:340-346.
Question 28
In revision total hip arthroplasty, an acetabular reconstruction cage is best indicated for which of the following patterns of bone loss?
Explanation
Acetabular cage reconstruction is indicated in severe disruption of acetabular bone stock when a cementless acetabular component cannot be stabilized in intimate contact with a sufficient bed of structurally sound and viable host bone, with or without a structural graft. Cages are used in pelvic discontinuity where they provide a bridge between the ilium and the ischium, while supporting a cemented cup. All of the other scenarios are amenable to achieving an adequate rim fit for a cementless component, using a jumbo cup if necessary. Whiteside LA: Selection of acetabular component, in Steinberg ME, Garino JP (eds): Revision Total Hip Arthroplasty. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Williams and Wilkins, 1999, pp 209-220.
Question 29
A 28-year-old anesthesia resident has aching pain in his dominant right forearm after injuring it while playing basketball 1 week ago. He reports that he is unable to perform regional anesthesia that requires manipulation of a needle. Examination reveals that he is unable to flex the interphalangeal joint of the thumb, and flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger is weak. Management should consist of
Explanation
The patient has anterior interosseous nerve palsy. Initial management should consist of splinting followed by observation; surgical decompression may be required if there is no improvement in the functional deficit in 6 months. Anterior interosseous nerve palsy is classically described as an inability to flex the interphalangeal joint of the thumb because of flexor pollicis longus paralysis and a weakness or inability to flex the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger because of weakness and/or paralysis of the flexor digitorum profundus to the index finger. There has been some controversy in the literature as to whether this represents a true peripheral compression neuropathy or neuritis. Recent recommendations have been to extend the period of observation from 3 to 6 months before surgical decompression, as most cases will resolve within 6 months. Miller-Breslow A, Terrono A, Millender LH: Nonoperative treatment of anterior interosseous nerve paralysis. J Hand Surg Am 1990;15:493-496.
Question 30
What is the mechanism of action of an intramuscular injection of botulinum type A toxin in reducing spasticitiy?
Explanation
The use of intramuscular botulinum type A toxin has been shown to be a useful adjuvant in the management of dynamic deformity in patients with cerebral palsy. Botulinum type A toxin is a neurotoxin produced by Clostridium botulinum that works by interfering with presynaptic acetylcholine release at cholinergic nerve terminals. At the cellular level, the mechanism involves endocytosis of the intact botulinum toxin molecule by cells in the end plate, followed by disulfide cleavage and translocation of the light chain into the cytosol where it disrupts the normal binding of the synaptosomal vesicles to the axon terminal membrane. Neither the nerve terminal nor the neuromuscular junction is damaged. The muscle paralysis is reversible and dose-dependent. Baclofen is a neuropharmacologic agent that functions as a GABA agonist. Dorsal rhizotomy is a neurosurgical procedure that reduces spasticity by dividing afferent (excitatory) fibers in the posterior rootlet of the spinal nerves. Koman LA, Mooney JF III, Smith B, Goodman A, Mulvaney T: Management of cerebral palsy with botulinum-A toxin: Preliminary investigation. J Pediatr Orthop 1993;13:489-495.
Question 31
What is the recommended treatment of a skeletally immature 12-year-old boy who has an anterior cruciate ligament-deficient knee?
Explanation
Traditional surgeries for anterior cruciate ligament-deficient knees carry the potential risk of premature physeal closure in young athletes. Therefore, most surgeons are reluctant to recommend intra-articular reconstruction using bone tunnels with bone-patellar tendon-bone autografts or hamstring tendons. The current recommendation for young athletes is activity modification, rehabilitation, and functional bracing until the patient is near skeletal maturity. At that time, for the very symptomatic patient, the treatment of choice is intra-articular repair of the anterior cruciate ligament. If a skeletally immature patient continues to have instability despite rehabilitation and bracing, a modification of the femoral tunnel to the over-the-top position will not place the lateral femoral physis at risk for premature closure and deformity. A centrally placed tibial tunnel will minimize the risk of angular deformity and minimize limb-length discrepancy if physeal arrest occurs. Barry P: Anterior cruciate ligament injuries, in Andrews JR, Timmerman LA (eds): Diagnostic and Operative Arthroscopy. Philadelphia, Pa, WB Saunders, 1997, p 358. McCarroll JR, Shelbourne KD, Porter DA, Rettig AC, Murray S: Patellar tendon graft reconstruction for midsubstance anterior cruciate ligament rupture in junior high school athletes: An algorithm for management. Am J Sports Med 1994;22:478-484. Nottage WM, Matsuura PA: Management of complete traumatic anterior cruciate ligament tears in the skeletally immature patient: Current concepts and review of the literature. Arthroscopy 1994;10:569-573.
Question 32
An otherwise healthy 45-year-old woman reports the onset of severe right leg pain. Figure 20a shows an axial MRI scan of the L4-5 level, and Figure 20b shows a sagittal view with the arrow at the L4-5 level. What nerve root is the most likely source of her pain?
Explanation
The scans show a disk herniation in the far lateral region of the disk. In particular, the sagittal view shows the herniation adjacent to the exiting L4 nerve root. Disk herniations in this area that cause symptoms are more likely to compress the nerve exiting at the same level rather than the next most caudal level. McCulloch JA: Microdiscectomy, in Frymoyer JW (ed): The Adult Spine: Principles and Practice. New York, NY, Raven Press, 1991, vol 2, pp 1765-1783.
Question 33
A patient is scheduled to undergo total knee arthroplasty (TKA) following failure of nonsurgical management. History reveals that she underwent a patellectomy as a teenager as the result of a motor vehicle accident. Examination reveals normal ligamentous stability. For the most predictable outcome, which of the following implants should be used?
Explanation
Paletta and Laskins performed a retrospective study of the results of TKA with cement in 22 patients who had a previous patellectomy. Nine of the patients had insertion of a posterior cruciate ligament-substituting implant. Thirteen patients had insertion of a posterior cruciate ligament-sparing implant. The 5-year postoperative knee scores were 89 for the posterior cruciate ligament-substituting knee versus 67 for the posterior cruciate ligament-sparing knee (P < 0.01). The patella functions to increase the lever arm of the extensor mechanism and to position the quadriceps tendon and the patellar ligament roughly parallel to the anterior cruciate ligament and posterior cruciate ligament, respectively. The patellar ligament thereby provides a strong reinforcing structure that functions to prevent excessive anterior translation of the femur during flexion of the knee. The absence of the patella results in the patellar ligament and the quadriceps tendon being relatively in line with one another. After a patellectomy, the resultant quadriceps force is no longer parallel to the posterior cruciate ligament. This results in loss of the reinforcing function of the patellar ligament. The authors believe this loss of reinforcing function may place increased stresses on the posterior cruciate ligament and posterior aspect of the capsule, which may result in stretching of these structures over time. They found a high rate of anteroposterior instability, a high prevalence of recurvatum, and a high rate of loss of full active extension compared with passive extension in the posterior cruciate ligament-sparing group, which supports their theory. Beaty JH (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 6. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1999, pp 559-582.
Question 34
Which of the following primary prognostic factors best predicts the outcome of the knee lesion shown in Figure 22?
Explanation
The patient has osteochondritis dissecans. While location, size, and knee stability are all relevant to the overall prognosis, studies have shown that younger patients with open growth plates have a better prognosis of healing when compared with patients who have closed growth plates. The degree of pain is also relevant to treatment, but it is subjective rather than objective and is not as reliable of a prognostic indicator as age. Stanitski CL: Osteochondritis dissecans of the knee, in Stanitski CL, DeLee JC, Drez D Jr (eds): Pediatric and Adolescent Sports Medicine. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1994, vol 3, pp 387-405. Cahill B: Treatment of juvenile osteochondritis dissecans and osteochondritis dissecans of the knee. Clin Sports Med 1985;4:367-384.
Question 35
A 45-year-old woman has had intense pain in her foot for the last 3 days. She also reports a mild fever and difficulty with shoe wear. Examination reveals a swollen, slightly erythematous warm foot with tenderness at the great toe metatarsophalangeal joint and pain with passive motion of the joint. An AP radiograph is shown in Figure 13. Which of the following will best aid in determining a definitive diagnosis?
Explanation
The patient has gouty arthropathy of the first metatarsophalangeal joint. This definitive diagnosis is achieved with aspiration of the joint and polarized light microscopy that shows needle-shaped negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals. Differential diagnoses of infectious arthritis and pseudogout are also definitively made through joint aspiration. Although rheumatoid arthritis is a possibility, a serum rheumatoid factor is not always diagnostic and a patient with rheumatoid arthritis may have concomitant gouty arthritis. The radiographic findings are not typical of diabetes mellitus or of a patient with Charcot arthropathy. Wise CM, Agudelo CA: Diagnosis and management of complicated gout. Bull Rheum Dis 1998;47:2-5.
Question 36
Which of the following choices best describes the fracture pattern shown in Figures 2a through 2c?
Explanation
The fracture pattern shown in the radiographs is a fracture of the posterior column. The only line interrupted on the AP pelvis is the ilioischial line. The obturator oblique view shows that the iliopectineal line is intact as is the outline of the posterior wall. The iliac oblique view shows an interruption of the ilioischial line and an intact anterior wall. Therefore, this fracture is a fracture of the posterior column. Letournel E, Judet R: Fractures of the Acetabulum, ed 2. Berlin, Germany, Springer Verlag, 1993.
Question 37
Figures 18a and 18b show the radiographs of a 13-year-old baseball player who sustained a patellar dislocation with an associated lateral femoral condyle fracture. What ligament is attached to this fragment?
Explanation
The anterior cruciate ligament is attached to a portion of the lateral femoral condyle. The posterior cruciate ligament attaches to the medial femoral condyle. The lateral collateral and oblique popliteal ligaments attach proximal to this fragment. The intermeniscal ligament attaches the anterior horns of the menisci. Jobe CM, Wright M: Anatomy of the knee, in Fu FH, Harner CD, Vince KG (eds): Knee Surgery. Baltimore, MD, Williams & Wilkins, 1994, pp 1-54.
Question 38
A 100-lb 9-year-old boy has a closed midshaft transverse femoral fracture. The oblique fracture is shortened by 3 cm with a 10-degree varus angulation. Surgical management consists of intramedullary, retrograde flexible titanium nailing. To optimize fracture stability, the surgeon should
Explanation
The technique of intramedullary nailing with titanium elastic nails is based on the concept of balanced forces across the fracture site with two equally sized nails. Implantation of the largest sized nails possible, with two equally sized nails, maximizes the stiffness at the fracture site, thereby optimizing fracture alignment and stability. Impacting the nails into the medullary canal can impact the fixation by minimizing distal purchase of the nail at the cortical insertion site. Closed reduction commonly permits bony reduction and passage of the nails; open reduction is reserved for inability to align the fracture. Luhmann SJ, Schootman M, Schoenecker PL, et al: Complications of titanium elastic nails for pediatric femur fractures. J Pediatr Orthop 2003;23:443-447. Lascombes P, Haumont T, Journeau P: Use and abuse of flexible intramedullary nailing in children and adolescents. J Pediatr Orthop 2006;26:827-834.
Question 39
Which of the following benign bone lesions can develop lung metastases?
Explanation
Although considered benign bone lesions, lung metastases can develop in giant cell tumors and chondroblastomas. These often can be treated with multiple thoracotomies, resulting in long-term survival. Roberts PF, Taylor JG: Multifocal benign chondroblastomas: Report of a case. Hum Pathol 1980;11:296-298.
Question 40
A 53-year-old patient is seen in the emergency department after sustaining a fall onto her left hip. A current radiograph is shown in Figure 40. What is the best treatment option?
Explanation
The patient has sustained a Vancouver B2 periprosthetic femoral fracture (a femoral fracture that occurs around or just distal to a loose stem, with adequate proximal bone stock). The stem is no longer fixed to proximal bone; therefore, retention of the femoral component is not recommended. Nonsurgical management is contraindicated because of the high risk of nonunion and malunion with significant component settling in the distal fragment and leg shortening. Revision femoral arthoplasty must attain distal fixation in adequate host bone, which is usually successful with a porous-coated cylindrical stem. Parvizi J, Rapuri VR, Purtill JJ, et al: Treatment protocol for proximal femoral periprosthetic fractures. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2004;86:8-16.
Question 41
A Trendelenburg gait is most likely to be seen in association with
Explanation
A Trendelenburg gait results from weakness of the gluteus medius, which is innervated by the L5 nerve root. A paracentral disk herniation at L4-L5 most commonly results in an L5 radiculopathy and thus weakness of the gluteus medius. A paracentral herniation at L5-S1 most commonly affects the S1 nerve root. A paracentral herniation at L3-L4, a central herniation at L3-L4, and a far lateral herniation at L4-L5 all affect the L4 root. Fardon DF, Garfin SR, Abitbol J, et al (eds): Orthopedic Knowledge Update: Spine 2. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 323-332.
Question 42
What is the relative amount of type II collagen synthesis in disease-free adult articular cartilage compared to developing teenagers?
Explanation
Adult articular cartilage has less than 5% of the synthesis rate of type II collagen than that seen in developing teenagers. Both synthesis and degradation of type II collagen in normal adult articular cartilage is very low compared to children. In osteoarthrosis, both synthesis and degradation are increased, but the collagen does not properly incorporate into the matrix. Lippiello L, Hall D, Mankin HJ: Collagen synthesis in normal and osteoarthritic human cartilage. J Clin Invest 1977;59:593-600.
Question 43
The anticoagulant effect of the low-molecular-weight heparins (LMWH) is mediated by the binding affinity of antithrombin III to which of the following coagulation factors?
Explanation
Standard heparin mediates its anticoagulant effect largely through its interaction with antithrombin III. A conformational change in antithrombin III occurs that markedly accelerates its ability to inactivate the coagulation enzymes thrombin factor (II), factor Xa, and factor IXa. In contrast, LMWHs do not contain the necessary saccharide units to bind thrombin and antithrombin III simultaneously. The anticoagulant effect of LMWHs involves binding of antithrombin III to factor Xa.
Question 44
A 28-year-old woman fell on her right wrist while rollerblading 2 days ago. She was seen in the emergency department at the time of injury and was told she had a sprain. Examination now reveals dorsal tenderness in the proximal wrist but no snuffbox or ulnar tenderness. Standard wrist radiographs are normal. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Explanation
When considering the diagnosis of scapholunate ligament injury, standard radiographic views of the hand will not always reveal widening of the scapholunate gap. Although MRI may reveal injury to the ligaments, the PA clenched fist view can be obtained in the office during the initial patient visit. Arthroscopy is not a first-line diagnostic tool. Walsh JJ, Berger RA, Cooney WP: Current status of scapholunate interosseous ligament injuries. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2002;10:32-42.
Question 45
A 20-year-old football player has repeated episodes of heat cramps during summer training sessions. A deficiency of what electrolyte is most responsible for heat cramps?
Explanation
Sodium deficiency is the cause of heat cramps. It is the principle electrolyte of sweat and is readily lost during training, especially in warmer temperatures. The condition can be avoided by adding extra table salt to food and maintaining good hydration before and after sports activities. Salt tablets are to be avoided when a patient has heat cramps because the high soluble load will cause gastric irritation. Bergeron MF, Armstrong LE, Maresh CM: Fluid and electrolyte losses during tennis in the heat. Clin Sports Med 1995;14:23-32.
Question 46
Sacral fractures are most likely to be associated with neurologic deficits when they involve what portion of the sacrum?
Explanation
Denis divided the sacrum into three zones: zone 1 represents the lateral ala, zone 2 represents the foramina, and zone 3 represents the central canal. A fracture is classified according to its most medial extension. Those in zone 3 are typically bursting-type fractures or fracture-dislocations and are most prone to neurologic sequelae. Denis F, Davis S, Comfort T: Sacral fractures: An important problem. A retrospective analysis of 236 cases. Clin Orthop Relat Res 1988;227:67-81.
Question 47
Figure 16 shows the clinical photograph of a 3-month-old infant with a foot deformity that has been nonprogressive since birth. Examination reveals that the deformity corrects actively and with passive manipulation. There is no associated equinus. Management should consist of
Explanation
The patient has bilateral metatarsus adductus deformities. In a long-term follow-up study by Farsetti and associates, deformities that were passively correctable spontaneously resolved and no treatment was required. More rigid deformities were successfully treated with serial manipulation, with good results in 90%. There were no poor results. Therefore, observation is the management of choice for passively correctable deformities. In feet that are more rigid, serial manipulation and casting is the management of choice.
Question 48
Figure 30 shows an axial T1-weighted MRI scan of a patient's right shoulder. The arrows are pointing to what normal structure?
Explanation
Tears of the pectoralis major tendon are frequently missed during examination. MRI provides excellent visualization of the tendon if the study extends low enough down the arm. The pectoralis major tendon inserts on the crest of the greater tubercle of the humerus, just lateral to the long head of the biceps tendon. The latissimus dorsi tendon inserts medial to the long head of the biceps tendon on the lesser tubercle. The subscapularis tendon inserts on the lesser tuberosity more proximally. The deltoid insertion is more distal. Connell DA, Potter HG, Sherman MF, et al: Injuries of the pectoralis major muscle: Evaluation with MR imaging. Radiology 1999;210:785-791. Carrino JA, Chandnanni VP, Mitchell DB, et al: Pectoralis major muscle and tendon tears: Diagnosis and grading using magnetic resonance imaging. Skeletal Radiol 2000;29:305-313.
Question 49
Figure 22 shows the radiograph of a 7-year-old boy who underwent retrograde elastic nailing of a femoral shaft fracture. What is the most common problem following this procedure?
Explanation
Several large clinical studies have shown that the most common problem after elastic nailing of a femoral shaft fracture is persistent pain and irritation at the nail insertion site. Unacceptable shortening and malunion are very rare in a 7-year-old patient. Rotational malalignment also is unusual. Osteonecrosis has been reported in solid antegrade nailing but not with elastic nailing of femoral shaft fractures in skeletally immature patients. Flynn JM, Luedtke LM, Ganley TJ, et al: Comparison of titanium elastic nails with traction and a spica cast to treat femoral fractures in children. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2004;86:770-777. Flynn JM, Hresko T, Reynolds RA, et al: Titanium elastic nails for pediatric femur fractures: A multicenter study of early results with analysis of complications. J Pediatr Orthop 2001;21:4-8.
Question 50
A 73-year-old man is scheduled to have mature heterotopic bone resected from around his left total hip arthroplasty. The optimal management for prophylaxis against the return of heterotopic bone postoperatively is radiation therapy that consists of
Explanation
Patients require prophylaxis for heterotopic bone after resection to prevent recurrence. The optimal management has been found to be a dose of 700 cGy in one dose delivered either pre- or postoperatively. A dose of 2,000 to 3,000 cGy is considered excessive. Radiation therapy consisting of 1,000 cGy in five doses is an acceptable prophylaxis; however, it will require an extended hospital stay of 3 to 4 days and is more problematic for the patient who must be transported for radiation therapy for 5 days. A dose of 400 cGy is not as effective in prophylaxis for heterotopic bone formation. Healy WL, Lo TC, DeSimone AA, Rask B, Pfeifer BA: Single-dose irradiation for the prevention of heterotopic ossification after total hip arthroplasty: A comparison of doses of five hundred and fifty and seven hundred centigray. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1995;77:590-595. Pelligrini VD Jr, Gregoritch SJ: Preoperative irradiation for the prevention of heterotopic ossification following total hip arthroplasty. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1996;78:870-881.
Question 51
Figures 5a and 5b show the radiographs of a 56-year-old man who was seen in the emergency department following a twisting injury to his left ankle. Examination in your office 3 days later reveals marked swelling and diffuse tenderness to palpation about the ankle and leg. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Explanation
The radiographs show an isolated posterior malleolus fracture which, given the injury mechanism, is highly suspicious for a Maisonneuve injury. As with any suspected extremity injury, radiographs including the joints above and below the level of injury are acutely indicated. Although MRI may reveal a ligamentous injury to the ankle and CT may show asymmetry of the ankle mortise or syndesmosis, both studies are considerably more costly and are not indicated in the absence of a complete radiographic work-up. Technetium bone scan is nonspecific and would be of limited value in this instance, as would repeat radiographs of the ankle. Walling AK, Sanders RW: Ankle fractures, in Coughlin MJ, Mann RA, Saltzman CL (eds): Surgery of the Foot and Ankle, ed 8. Philadelphia, PA, Mosby-Elsevier, 2007, vol 2, pp 1973-2016.
Question 52
A 50-year-old woman has a painful hallux valgus and a painful callus beneath the second metatarsal head. A radiograph is shown in Figure 46. To correct these problems, treatment of the great toe deformity should consist of
Explanation
The patient has a significant hallux valgus and instability of the first ray, causing transfer metatarsalgia to the second metatarsal head. Therefore, the best procedure is fusion of the metatarsal cuneiform joint with soft-tissue realignment of the first metatarsophalangeal joint. This procedure provides the best chance of relieving symptoms under the second metatarsal head, as well as correcting the hallux valgus.
Question 53
What is the most common presenting sign or symptom in an adult with lumbar pyogenic infection?
Explanation
Pain is very common but is often nonspecific; therefore, the diagnosis of spinal infection is often delayed. Fever and sepsis can occur but are not common. Neurologic manifestations also can occur but are absent in most patients. In findings reported by Carragee, the urinary tract is a common source for hematogenous spinal infection, but the source was found in only 27% of 111 patients. Direct inoculation during spinal surgery is uncommon. Carragee EJ: Pyogenic vertebral osteomyelitis. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1997;79:874-880. Frazier DD, Campbell DR, Garvey TA, et al: Fungal infections of the spine: Report of eleven patients with long-term follow-up. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2001;83:560-565.
Question 54
Which of the following tumors is most likely to present with a pathologic fracture in a child?
Explanation
In nearly 50% of patients with a unicameral bone cyst, the lesion remains asymptomatic until a fracture occurs, usually as the result of relatively minor trauma. If the lesion expands, the bone is weakened and may cause pain. Fibrous cortical defects are usually an incidental finding and typically asymptomatic. Malignant bone tumors such as osteosarcoma and Ewing's sarcoma most commonly cause pain, and pathologic fracture occurs in less than 10% of patients. Giant cell tumors are uncommon in children and usually are painful. Wilkins RM: Unicameral bone cysts. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2000;8:217-224. Dormans JP, Pill SG: Fractures through bone cysts: Unicameral bone cysts, aneurysmal bone cysts, fibrous cortical defects, and nonossifying fibromas. Instr Course Lect 2002;51:457-467.
Question 55
A 32-year-old woman sustained an injury to her left upper extremity in a motor vehicle accident. Examination reveals a 2-cm wound in the mid portion of the dorsal surface of the upper arm and deformities at the elbow and forearm; there are no other injuries. Her vital signs are stable, and she has a base deficit of minus 1 and a lactate level of less than 2. Radiographs are shown in Figures 9a and 9b. In addition to urgent debridement of the humeral shaft fracture, management should include
Explanation
With a severe injury to the upper extremity, the best opportunity for achieving a good functional result for a floating elbow is immediate debridement of the open fracture, followed by internal fixation of the fractures. The ability to do this depends on the patient's physiologic status. In this patient, the procedure is acceptable because she has normal vital signs and no chest or abdominal injuries, and normal physiologic parameters (base excess and lactate) show adequate peripheral perfusion. The surgical approaches will be determined by the associated injury patterns and open wounds. In this patient, the humerus was debrided and stabilized through a posterior approach as was the medial condyle fracture. The ulna was fixed through an extension of the posterior incision and the radius through a separate dorsal approach. Solomon HB, Zadnik M, Eglseder WA: A review of outcomes in 18 patients with floating elbow. J Orthop Trauma 2003;17:563-570.
Question 56
What is the most common secondary malignancy arising in pagetic bone?
Explanation
The incidence of malignant transformation or the formation of a secondary malignancy in pagetic bone is estimated to be less than 1%. Osteosarcoma is the most common secondary malignancy, followed by fibrosarcoma and chondrosarcoma. Ewing's sarcoma arising in pagetic bone has not been reported. Grimer RJ, Carter SR, Tillman RM, et al: Osteosarcoma of the pelvis. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1999;81:796-802.
Question 57
Figure 28 shows an AP radiograph of a 54-year-old woman who underwent lumbar laminectomy and fusion at the L4 and L5 levels with placement of a bone stimulator 8 years ago. She also underwent a left total hip arthroplasty 2 years ago; aspiration of that joint now reveals that it is infected with a gram-positive cocci organism. History is also significant for IV drug use and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The patient reports fever, chills, and left flank and abdominal pain. Examination reveals significant pain with resisted left hip flexion and passive hip extension. She also has lumbar hyperlordosis. Which of the following studies would best identify the underlying cause of her infection?
Explanation
The patient's clinical signs (fever and flank, hip, and abdominal pain) suggest a primary iliopsoas abscess. With an increased patient population who abuse drugs and/or who are HIV-positive, iliopsoas abscess may be more prevalent because of systemic bacterial seeding and may be potentially unrecognized. Diagnostic imaging studies provide a better understanding of the anatomic magnitude of the infection, give concrete confirmation of the diagnosis, and may suggest an underlying cause. Neither standard abdominal radiographs nor ultrasound studies are sensitive enough to be diagnostic of this disease process. CT has been established as the standard study for identifying the underlying cause of this abscess. The hip infection has most likely developed as a result of hematogenous spread from an infected skin lesion from the patient's IV drug use. Santaella RO, Fishman EK, Lipsett PA: Primary vs secondary iliopsoas abscess: Presentation, microbiology, and treatment. Arch Surg 1995;130:1309-1313.
Question 58
An 11-year-old boy stepped on a nail and sustained a puncture to the right forefoot 6 days ago. He was wearing tennis shoes at the time of injury. Treatment in the emergency department consisted of local debridement and tetanus prophylaxis; a radiograph was negative for foreign body, chondral defect, or fracture. He was discharged with a 3-day prescription of amoxicillin and clavulanate. The patient now has increasing pain and tenderness at the puncture site. What is the best course of action?
Explanation
The initial treatment consisting of oral antibiotics was appropriate but with progressive symptoms, surgical debridement is necessary. Ciprofloxacin is contraindicated in children, and at this stage, oral antibiotics are inadequate. Intravenous antibiotics may be necessary, but surgical debridement is paramount. Failure to respond to the initial management precludes further observation. Riegler HP, Routson T: Complications of deep puncture wounds of the foot. J Trauma 1979;19:18-22.
Question 59
Which of the following is considered the treatment of choice for a 3-cm chondroblastoma of the distal femoral epiphysis with no intra-articular extension?
Explanation
Curettage and bone grafting typically are the preferred treatment of chondroblastoma, yielding acceptable local recurrence rates of less than 10%. Some surgeons advocate adjuvant therapies such as phenol, liquid nitrogen, or argon beam coagulation. Untreated, these lesions can destroy bone and invade the joint to a significant degree. Large intra-articular lesions may require major joint reconstruction. Wide local excision is rarely required to control the tumor. Radiation therapy is indicated only in unresectable lesions. Springfield DS, Capanna R, Gherlinzoni F, et al: Chondroblastoma: A review of seventy cases. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1985;67:748.
Question 60
An 18-month-old infant with myelomeningocele and rigid clubfeet has grade 5 quadriceps and hamstring strength, but no muscles are functioning below the knee. What is the best treatment option for the rigid clubfeet?
Explanation
This child has the potential to walk and therefore should have all the contracted structures in the feet released as necessary to place the feet in a plantigrade position for fitting of ankle-foot orthoses. Physical therapy, manipulation, and casting may provide some benefit in a newborn with flexible feet but are not effective in an older infant with rigid clubfeet. Botulinum injections and tendon transfers are of no use because there are no muscles functioning below the knee. Tendon releases are more effective than tendon transfers in children with myelomeningocele. Mazur JM: Management of foot and ankle deformities in the ambulatory child with myelomeningocele, in Sarwark JR, Lubicky JP (eds): Caring for the Child with Spina Bifida. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2001, pp 155-160.
Question 61
An 18-month-old boy with obstetric brachial plexus palsy is being evaluated for limited right shoulder motion. Physical therapy for the past 6 months has failed to result in improvement of the contracture. Which of the following studies is necessary prior to any shoulder reconstruction?
Explanation
The child sustained a brachial plexus injury at birth, and internal rotation/adduction contractures frequently develop at the shoulder. Initial treatment should consist of physical therapy to increase the range of motion. If this fails, as in this patient, MRI is used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint. Commonly, there is joint deformity with increased retroversion of the glenoid and even posterior shoulder subluxation. If the deformity is mild, an anterior release, coupled with teres major and latissimus transfers, is very effective. If the deformity is severe and the shoulder is unreconstructable, then humeral derotation osteotomy is the procedure of choice. MRI of the brain, a radiograph of the elbow, and aspiration of the shoulder would not be helpful. Waters PM: Update on management of pediatric brachial plexus palsy. J Pediatr Orthop B 2005;14:233-244. Waters PM, Bae DS: Effect of tendon transfers and extra-articular soft-tissue balancing on glenohumeral development in brachial plexus birth palsy. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2005;87:320-325.
Question 62
What nerve is most at risk during placement of the anterolateral portal in elbow arthroscopy?
Explanation
The radial nerve is only 4 mm from the anterolateral portal, while the median nerve is 11 mm away from the anteromedial portal. The ulnar nerve is only at risk on the medial side of the elbow. Anterior and posterior interosseous nerves are more distal within the forearm and are not in danger during portal placement. O'Driscoll SW, Morrey BF: Elbow arthroscopy, in Morrey BF (ed): The Elbow. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott, Williams and Wilkins, 1994, pp 21-34.
Question 63
While lifting weights, a patient feels a pop in his arm. He has the deformity shown in Figure 30. If left untreated, the patient will have the greatest deficiency in
Explanation
The patient has a distal biceps rupture. While the distal biceps contributes to elbow flexion, its main function is forearm supination. Baker BE, Bierwagen D: Rupture of the distal tendon of the biceps brachii: Operative versus non-operative treatment. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1985;67:414-417. D'Arco P, Sitler M, Kelly J, et al: Clinical, functional, and radiographic assessments of the conventional and modified Boyd-Anderson surgical procedures for repair of distal biceps tendon ruptures. Am J Sports Med 1998;26:254-261.
Question 64
Figures 1a through 1c show the radiograph and MRI scans of a 16-year-old patient who has a painful hip. Examination reveals a significant limp, limited abduction and internal rotation, and severe pain with internal rotation and adduction. A biopsy specimen is shown in Figure 1d. What is the deposited pigment observed in this condition?
Explanation
Pigmented villonodular synovitis (PVNS) is a synovial proliferative disorder that remains a diagnostic difficulty. The most common clinical features are mechanical pain and limited joint motion. On radiographs, the classic finding is often a large lesion, associated with multiple lucencies. Other findings may include a normal radiographic appearance, loss of joint space, osteonecrosis of the femoral head, or acetabular protrusion. MRI is the imaging modality of choice and will show the characteristic findings of a joint effusion, synovial proliferation, and bulging of the hip. The synovial lining has a low signal on T1- and T2-weighted images, secondary to hemosiderin deposition. Copper deposition occurs in patients with Wilson's disease, which mainly affects the liver. Bhimani MA, Wenz JF, Frassica FJ: Pigmented villonodular synovitis: Keys to early diagnosis. Clin Orthop 2001;386:197-202.
Question 65
A baseball pitcher has intractable posterior and superior shoulder pain. The arthroscopic view seen in Figure 25 shows no Bankart or Hill-Sachs lesion and a negative drive-through sign. There are no signs of ligamentous laxity, but active compression and anterior slide tests are positive. Treatment should consist of
Explanation
According to Morgan and associates, a type II SLAP lesion can create or is associated with a superior instability pattern. They suggest that this can exist without a co-existing anteroinferior instability pattern. They reported that repair of the SLAP lesion alone resulted in satisfactory outcomes in 90% of patients and a return to throwing in more than 90% of pitchers. The arthroscopic findings in this patient do not support a diagnosis of anteroinferior laxity or instability; therefore, thermal capsular shift or capsular placation is not necessary. Morgan CD, Burkhart SS, Palmeri M, et al: Type II SLAP lesions: Three subtypes and their relationships to superior instability and rotator cuff tears. Arthroscopy 1998;14:553-565. Mileski RA, Snyder RJ: Superior labral lesions in the shoulder: Pathoanatomy and surgical management. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1998;6:121-131.
Question 66
What additional percentage of energy expenditure above baseline is required for ambulation after an above-the-knee amputation?
Explanation
Patients with an above-the-knee amputation have a 65% increase in energy expenditure. A patient with a transtibial amputation requires 25% more energy above baseline values; however, bilateral transtibial amputations are associated with a 40% increase in energy expenditure. Otis JC, Lane JM, Kroll MA: Energy cost during gait in osteosarcoma patients after resection and knee replacement and after above-the-knee amputation. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1985;67:606-611.
Question 67
An 18-year-old man sustained a knife injury to his midback, with the entry wound 2 cm to the left of the midline. He has been diagnosed with a hemicord transection. Neurologic examination will most likely reveal left-sided loss of
Explanation
Brown-Sequard syndrome results from an injury to one half of the spinal cord and is characteristically seen in penetrating injuries. The spinothalamic fibers cross the midline below the level of the lesion, resulting in contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. The posterior columns and corticospinal tracts carry vibratory, position, and light touch sensation, as well as motor function from the ipsilateral side of the body. This results in the characteristic neurologic findings seen with Brown-Sequard syndrome. Northrup BE, Evaluation and early treatment of acute injuries to the spine and spinal cord, in Clark CR (ed): The Cervical Spine, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Raven, 1998, pp 541-549.
Question 68
When an adult hip is surgically dislocated for relief of femoro-acetabular impingment, what is the risk of postoperative iatrogenic osteonecrosis?
Explanation
In a report of more than 70 hips treated by surgical dislocation, iatrogenic osteonecrosis failed to develop in any of the hips.
Question 69
A 4-year-old child was born with bilateral congenital radial clubhands. Which of the following associated conditions is a contraindication to centralization of the hands on the ulna?
Explanation
Patients born with bilateral radial clubhands may have difficulty getting their hands to their mouth. The centralization procedure would take away that ability if there is a lack of elbow flexion. Green DP, Hotchkiss RN, Pederson WC: Green's Operative Hand Surgery, ed 4. New York, NY, Churchill Livingstone, 1999, pp 344-349.
Question 70
A 35-year-old man who snowboards sustained the injury shown in Figures 4a through 4c. What is the mechanism of injury?
Explanation
Fractures of the lateral process of the talus in snowboarders have been thought to result from pure dorsiflexion, inversion, and axial loading. In a cadaveric study, 10 cadavers were placed in fixed dorsiflexion and inversion with an axial load. This was combined with or without external rotation. No fractures occurred after axial loading in the dorsiflexed-inverted position. Fractures of the lateral process of the talus occurred in 75% of the specimens with the addition of external rotation. Boon AJ, Smith J, Zobitz ME, et al: Snowboarder's talus fracture: Mechanism of injury. Am J Sports Med 2001;29:333-338.
Question 71
The view from an anterosuperior portal of the right shoulder shown in Figure 12 reveals which of the following findings?
Explanation
The arthroscopic view shows a HAGL lesion. With the arthroscope directed anteroinferiorly, muscular striations of the subscapularis can be visualized through the avulsion site. In vitro strain studies indicate that glenohumeral ligament failure on the humeral side occurs in approximately 25% of patients, while clinically this lesion has been reported in approximately 9% of patients with shoulder instability. Failure to recognize and treat this lesion leads to persistent anterior instability. An ALPSA lesion, a Bankart variant, occurs on the glenoid side and is characterized by a sleeve-like medial retraction and inferior rotation. A Bankart lesion is the classic avulsion of the glenohumeral ligament from the glenoid rim. The subscapularis tendon and the rotator interval are not shown in the figure. Wolf EM, Cheng JC, Dickson K: Humeral avulsion of glenohumeral ligaments as a cause of anterior shoulder instability. Arthroscopy 1995;11:600-607. Bigliani LU, Pollack RG, Soslowsky LJ, Flatow EL, Pawluk RJ, Mow VC: Tensile properties of the inferior glenohumeral ligament. J Orthop Res 1992;10:187-197.
Question 72
Which of the following best characterizes bone mineralization?
Explanation
Mineralization occurs at the site of hole zones between the collagen fibrils. Crystals begin from the necessary ions of the lattice that come together with the correct orientation to form the first stable crystal. Formation of this critical nucleus is the most energy-demanding step of crystallization. Enzymes within the extracellular matrix vesicles degrade inhibitors such as adenosine triphosphate, pyrophosphate, and proteoglycans found in the surrounding extracellular matrix. Bone mineral consists of numerous impurities (carbonate, magnesium) that are more soluble, allowing the bone to act as a reservoir for calcium, phosphate, and magnesium ions. Crystals may form by addition of ions or ion clusters to the critical nucleus in many directions, with 'kink' sites forming to branch and exponentially proliferate the crystals. Macromolecules facilitate formation of the critical nucleus and increasing local concentrations of necessary ions. Once the crystals are formed and proliferating, macromolecules bind to the surface and block the growth of the crystal, regulating size, shape, and number of crystals. Lian JB, Stein GS, Canalis E, et al: Bone formation: Osteoblast lineage cells, growth factors, matrix proteins, and the mineralization process, in Favus MJ (ed): Primer on Metabolic Bone Diseases and Disorders of Mineral Metabolism, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 1999, pp 14-29.
Question 73
A 47-year-old man sustained a degloving injury over the pretibial surface and anterior ankle region in a motor vehicle accident. After debridement and irrigation, there is inadequate tissue for closure of the exposed anterior tibial tendon and tibia. Prior to definitive soft-tissue coverage, management should consist of
Explanation
With soft-tissue loss, local or free flap coverage may be necessary to treat exposed tendon and bone. However, a vacuum-assisted closure device is a good temporizing dressing. It prevents external contamination, reduces edema around the wound, increases oxygen tension in the wound, and promotes the formation of granulation tissue. The use of this negative pressure device has been described in both acute traumatic and in chronic wound scenarios. If sufficient granulation tissue forms, closure may be by split graft, avoiding a more complex coverage procedure. Immediate skin grafting over the exposed anterior tibial tendon and tibia would have a low likelihood of success. Dressing changes with sulfasalazine may be beneficial in a burn wound to assist with removal of skin slough; however, in a granulating wound, the material may be toxic to early epithelialization. Xenograft is a foreign body and should not be applied to an acute contaminated open wound. Historically, a cross-leg flap was a treatment alternative for lower extremity soft-tissue loss; however, its current applications are extremely limited. Webb LX: New techniques in wound management: Vacuum assisted wound closure. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2002;10:303-311.
Question 74
It has been shown that bisphosphonate-based supportive therapy (pamidronate or zoledronate) reduces skeletal events (onset or progression of osteolytic lesions) both in patients with multiple myeloma and in cancer patients with bone metastasis. The use of biphosphonate therapy has been associated with
Explanation
The use of bisphosphonates has been recently associated with the development of osteonecrosis of the jaw. Length of exposure seems to be the most important risk factor for this complication. The type of bisphosphonate may play a role and previous dental procedures may be a precipitating factor. Bisphosphonates are a class of therapeutic agents originally designed to treat loss of bone density (ie, alendronate). The primary mechanism of action of these drugs is inhibition of osteoclastic activity, and it has been shown that these drugs are useful in diseases with propensities toward osseous metastases. In particular, they are effective in diseases in which there is clear upregulation of osteoclastic or osteolytic activity, such as breast cancer and multiple myeloma, and have developed into a mainstay of treatment for individuals with these diseases. Although shown to reduce skeletal events, there has been no improvement in patient survival. Bamias A, Kastritis E, Bamia C, et al: Osteonecrosis of the jaw in cancer after treatment with bisphosphonates: Incidence and risk factors. J Clin Oncol 2005;23:8580-8587. Thakkar SG, Isada C, Smith J, et al: Jaw complications associated with bisphosphonate use in patients with plasma cell dyscrasias. Med Oncol 2006;23:51-56.
Question 75
Figure 38 shows the radiograph of a 75-year-old woman who has had right shoulder pain, difficulty sleeping on the affected arm, and difficulties performing activities of daily living for the past 6 weeks. Initial nonsurgical management includes analgesics, a subacromial cortisone injection, and gentle range-of-motion exercises. However, these modalities have failed to provide relief, and the patient reports that she is unable to elevate her arm. Her pain is worse and she would like the most reliable treatment method for pain relief and functional improvement. What is the best surgical treatment?
Explanation
The authors of several studies conducted in Europe have reported promising results in the short- and medium-term with use of a reversed or inverted shoulder implant. The most recent investigation, a multicenter study in Europe in which 77 patients (80 shoulders) with glenohumeral osteoarthritis and a massive rupture of the rotator cuff were treated with the Delta III prosthesis, described an improvement in the mean constant score of 42 points, an increase of 65 degrees in forward elevation, and minimal or no pain in 96% of the patients. Hemiarthroplasty, the "nonconstrained" option, has long been the standard of care for rotator cuff tear arthropathy. However, careful examination of the literature reveals that the results have not been uniform. Favard L, Lautmann S, Sirveaux F, et al: Hemiarthroplasty versus reverse arthroplasty in the treatment of osteoarthritis with massive rotator cuff tear, in Walch G, Boileau P, Mole D (eds): 2000 Shoulder Prosthesis Two to Ten Year Follow-Up. Montpellier, France, Sauramps Medical, 2001, pp 261-268. Frankle M, Siegal S, Pupello D, et al: The reverse shoulder prosthesis for glenohumeral arthritis associated with severe rotator cuff deficiency: A minimum two-year follow-up study of sixty patients. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2005;87:1697-1705.
Question 76
A 19-year-old man was struck by a car and is seen in the emergency department with a grade IIIC open distal tibia and fibula fracture. Examination reveals that the toes are cool and dusky with a sluggish capillary refill. Angiography reveals a lesion in the posterior tibial artery amenable to repair. There is no sensation on the plantar aspect of the foot, and he is unable to flex his toes. A clinical photograph and radiograph are shown in Figures 2a and 2b. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Explanation
In the past, loss of plantar sensation in this grade IIIC tibial fracture would have been an indication for below-knee amputation regardless of the potential for vascular repair. However the 2002 LEAP study divided 55 patients with loss of plantar sensation into two groups, the insensate amputation group and the insensate limb salvage group, with 55% of patients in the insensate salvage group regaining normal sensation 2 years after injury. Furthermore, those in the salvage group who remained insensate after 2 years had equivalent outcomes to those in the amputation group. Because of these findings, limb salvage with vascular repair and external stabilization with delayed closure is deemed appropriate treatment. Immediate intramedullary fixation is not indicated. Because ischemia, contusion, and stretch can adversely affect the tibial nerve, the additional insult of exploration of the nerve is also not advisable given the soft-tissue compromise. Bosse MJ, McCarthy ML, Jones AL, et al: The insensate foot following severe lower extremity trauma: An indication for amputation? J Bone Joint Surg Am 2005;87:2601-2608. Lange RH, Bach AW, Hansen ST Jr, et al: Open tibial fractures with associated vascular injuries: Prognosis for limb salvage. J Trauma 1985;25:203-208. Mackenzie EJ, Bosse MJ, Kellam JF, et al: Factors influencing the decision to amputate or reconstruct after high-energy lower extremity trauma. J Trauma 2002;52:641-649.
Question 77
A 40-year-old woman has had sciatic pain on the left side for the past 8 weeks. She reports that the pain radiates to her posterior thigh, lateral calf, and into the dorsum of her left foot. Neurologic examination shows weakness of the left extensor hallucis longus. Axial T2-weighted MRI scans through L4-L5 are shown in Figure 14. Management should consist of
Explanation
The MRI scans show hypertrophy of the left L4-L5 facet joint and ligamentum flavum, with a synovial cyst. Appropriate surgical management consists of a hemilaminectomy and direct decompression of the neural elements. Fusion, in addition to the decompression, may be considered, particularly in patients with an associated spondylolisthesis. Epstein NE: Lumbar laminectomy for the resection of synovial cysts and coexisting lumbar spinal stenosis or degenerative spondylolisthesis: An outcome study. Spine 2004;29:1049-1055.
Question 78
A study is being designed to compare the effectiveness of an antibiotic. The choice of the number of patients (ie, the sample size) depends on several factors. What type of calculation assesses the potential of the study to successfully address the effectiveness of the antibiotic?
Explanation
Power analysis is used to determine the minimum number of specimens (sample size) such that, if a difference is found that is large enough to be clinically important, the associated level of statistical reliability will be high enough (ie, the P-value will be small enough) for the investigators to conclude that the difference observed in the study also holds in general. For the statistician to do a power analysis, the investigators must first decide on the minimum difference that they consider to be clinically important, for example, a reduction of 3% in the rate of infection. It is important to recognize that the choice of what constitutes the minimum difference in the rate of infection that is clinically (ie, medically) important cannot and should not be done by the statistician. Rather, this is a clinical-medical issue and must be done by the physician researcher based on a comprehensive assessment of the medical risks and benefits. The power analysis also requires an estimate of the variance in the data, which may be based on previous similar studies, if available. A statistician can then calculate the minimum sample size (number of patients) required such that, if a clinically important difference does, in fact, exist between the full populations, there is a reasonable probability or power (typically 80% to 90%) that a difference this large also will occur between the sample populations at the desired level of statistical significance (usually, but not necessarily, P < 0.05). The other answers refer to types of analyses that are usually conducted after the data are collected.
Question 79
When using a two-incision approach for open reduction and internal fixation of a Hawkins III talar fracture-dislocation involving the talar neck and body, what anatomic structure must be preserved to optimize outcome?
Explanation
A Hawkins III fracture-dislocation generally presents with posteromedial displacement with the deltoid ligament intact. Therefore, the only remaining blood supply is the deltoid branch of the artery of the tarsal canal originating from the posterior tibial artery. Often, the medial malleolus is fractured, assisting in reduction and visualization of fracture reduction. If the medial malleolus is intact, a medial malleolus osteotomy allows visualization of the reduction without compromising the last remaining blood supply to the talus. Mulfinger GL, Trueta J: The blood supply of the talus. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1970;52:160-167.
Question 80
When performing surgery on a patient with insertional Achilles tendinitis and a Haglund's deformity, how much of the Achilles tendon insertion can be safely detached without having to consider reattachment with bone anchors?
Explanation
The Achilles tendon insertion encompasses a broad area on the posterior area of the calcaneus. A biomechanical study has shown that up to 50% of the Achilles tendon insertion point can be detached before the strength of the attachment point starts to weaken. It is recommended that if more than this amount is detached to remove the posterior superior calcaneal prominence, consideration should be given to either securing the tendon to the bone with suture anchors or performing a tendon transfer. Kolodziej P, Glisson RR, Nunley JA: Risk of avulsion of the Achilles tendon after partial excision for treatment of insertional tendinitis and Haglund's deformity: A biomechanical study. Foot Ankle Int 1999;20:433-437.
Question 81
A 58-year-old man with type 1 diabetes mellitus is seen in the emergency department and he reports a 3-day history of a red swollen foot but no history of trauma. Examination reveals that the skin is intact, and the patient has discomfort with passive range of motion at the ankle, hindfoot, and midfoot joints. He denies any fever. Laboratory studies show a WBC count of 7,800/mm3, an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 40 mm/h, a C-reactive protein level of 23, and a serum glucose of 100. A radiograph and MRI scans are shown in Figures 16a through 16c. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Explanation
Whereas it is difficult to distinguish between cellulitis, septic joint, osteomyelitis, and early Eichenholtz stage 1 Charcot, the presence of a fracture in the absence of ulcerations with a normal WBC count and serum glucose strongly indicates that the described symptoms are due to an early Charcot process alone. A technetium Tc 99m scan alone would not be helpful; however, the addition of a sulfur colloid marrow scan or indium In 111 scan may be more specific to rule out infection, though it is not warranted here. Total contact casting with non-weight-bearing or limited weight bearing during Eichenholtz stage 1 when the foot is warm, erythematous, and swollen is advised to help prevent deformity. Alternatively, stabilization with pneumatic bracing may also be considered. While some authors have proposed early fixation or arthrodesis for Eichenholtz stage 1, the gold standard is still total contact casting with no to limited weight bearing until the swelling resolves and evidence of consolidation is seen on radiographs. Trepman E, Nihal A, Pinzur MS: Current topics review: Charcot neuropathy of the foot and ankle. Foot Ankle Int 2005;26:46-63. Richardson EG (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Foot and Ankle 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2003, pp 123-134.
Question 82
A 5-year-old girl has had a low-grade fever, right hip and buttock pain, and a right-sided limp for the past 5 days. Examination shows diffuse tenderness and extreme pain on range of motion of the hip. Laboratory studies show a peripheral WBC count of 13,500/mm3 and an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 55 mm/h. A radiograph is shown in Figure 46a, and an axial postgadolinium T1-weighted MRI scan with fat suppression and an axial T2-weighted fast spin echo MRI scan are shown in Figures 46b and 46c. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
MRI findings of acute osteomyelitis include a decrease in the normally high signal intensity of bone marrow on T1-weighted imaging; however, a postgadolinium T1-weighted image with fat suppression will show osteomyelitis as a bright marrow signal compared to the surrounding fat. Osteomyelitis is also brighter than normal fat on T2-weighted imaging. There is no rim-enhancing lesion suggesting an abscess, although myositis is seen in the obturator internus and short external rotators. The clinical scenario and imaging studies do not support the diagnosis of septic hip, eosinophilic granuloma, or pelvic fracture. Dormans JP, Drummond DS: Pediatric hematogenous osteomyelitis: New trends in presentation, diagnosis and treatment. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1994;2:333-341.
Question 83
The acceleration of an object under the influence of a force depends directly on the mass of the object. The angular acceleration of an object under the influence of a moment depends directly on the
Explanation
Similar to the action of a force, a moment tends to angularly accelerate an object in a manner proportional to a quantity related to the mass of the object. The concept of a more massive object requiring a larger force to cause the same straight line acceleration is straightforward. The concept for changing angular velocity is similar but not identical. The proportional constant between the moment and the resulting angular acceleration is the mass moment of inertia, which depends not only on the mass of the object, but also its distribution. The unit of mass moment of inertia is obtained by multiplying the mass of the object by the square of the distance between an equivalent location of the center of rotation of the object and an equivalent location of the center of mass. Orthopaedic surgeons can change both the amount of mass carried by a limb and the way that the mass is distributed. For example, in applying a cast to the leg, the physician can affect the mass of the cast by the choice of casting material and by the size of the cast. As the mass moment of inertia of the limb increases (eg, by applying the cast farther down on the leg or using a heavier casting material), the patient will need to exert larger moments to angularly accelerate the leg during gait. Andriacchi T, Natarajan RN, Hurwitz DE: Musculoskeletal dynamics, locomotion, and clinical applications, in Mow VC, Hayes WC (eds): Basic Orthopaedic Biomechanics, ed 2. New York, NY, Lippincott-Raven, 1997, pp 43-47.
Question 84
A 10-year-old soccer player has bilateral heel pain and reports that the pain is worse during and immediately after sports. Examination reveals that the calcaneal tuberosities are painful to palpation bilaterally. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
Calcaneal apophysitis (Sever's disease) is a common cause of heel pain in children who are active in sports. The symptoms are most commonly bilateral and will often respond to a gastrocnemius-soleus complex stretching program. In addition, rest, anti-inflammatory drugs, and heel pads for the shoe may be prescribed. There is no effect on the long-term growth of the calcaneus. Micheli LJ, Ireland ML: Prevention and management of calcaneal apophysitis in children: An overuse syndrome. J Pediatr Orthop 1987;7:34-38.
Question 85
After making a tackle, a football player is found prone and unconscious without spontaneous respirations. Initial management should consist of
Explanation
The on-field evaluation and management of a seriously injured athlete requires that health care teams have a game plan in place and proper equipment that is readily available. The initial step, which consists of stabilizing the head and neck by manually holding them in a neutral position, is then followed by assessment of breathing, pulses, and level of consciousness. If the athlete is breathing, management should consist of mouth guard removal and airway maintenance. If the athlete is not breathing, the face mask should be removed, with the chin strap left in place. The airway must be established, followed by initiation of assisted breathing. CPR is instituted only when breathing and circulation are compromised. In the unconscious athlete or if a cervical spine injury is suspected, the helmet must not be removed until the athlete has been transported to an appropriate facility and the cervical spine has been completely evaluated. McSwain NE, Garnelli, RL: Helmet removal from injured patients. Bull of Am Coll Surg 1997;82:42-44.
Question 86
Creatine is currently being used by athletes as a dietary supplement in an attempt to enhance performance. What is the physiologic basis for its use?
Explanation
Creatine is currently used as a nutritional supplement in an attempt to enhance athletic performance. The physiologic basis for its use is based on its conversion by CK to PCr, which acts as an energy reservoir in muscle cells for the production of ATP. A number of studies that examined the effect of creatine supplementation on performance concluded that while creatine does not increase peak force production, it can increase the amount of work done in the first few anaerobic short duration, maximal effort trials. The mechanism for this enhancement of work is unknown, but it is most likely secondary to the increase in the available PCr pool. Greenhaff PL: Creatine and its application as an ergogenic aid. Int J Sport Nutr 1995;5:S100-S110. Greenhaff PL, Casey A, Short AH, Harris R, Soderlund K, Hultman E: Influence of oral creatine supplementation on muscle torque during repeated bouts of maximal voluntary exercise in man. Clin Sci 1993;84:565-571. Trump ME, Heigenhauser GJ, Putman CT, Spriet LL: Importance of muscle phosphocreatine during intermittent maximal cycling. J Appl Physiol 1996;80:1574-1580.
Question 87
Bleeding is encountered while developing the internervous plane between the tensor fascia lata and the sartorius during the anterior approach to the hip. The most likely cause is injury to what artery?
Explanation
The ascending branch of the lateral femoral circumflex artery crosses the gap between the tensor fascia lata and the sartorious and must be identified and ligated or coagulated. The other vessels are out of the field of dissection. Barrack RL, Booth RE Jr, Lonner JH, et al (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Hip and Knee Reconstruction 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2006, p 312.
Question 88
A 35-year-old patient has right hip pain. Figures 34a and 34b show the coronal MRI scan and the biopsy specimen. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
Alcohol abuse, steroids, Caisson disease, sickle cell disease, and radiation therapy are the leading causes of nontraumatic osteonecrosis of the femoral head. Arlet J: Nontraumatic avascular necrosis of the femoral head: Past, present, and future. Clin Orthop 1992;277:12-21.
Question 89
A 60-year-old right hand-dominant women fell on her outstretched arm and sustained an anterior shoulder dislocation. The shoulder is reduced in the emergency department and she is seen for follow-up 1 week later wearing a sling. Examination reveals that she has significant difficulty raising her arm in forward elevation and has excessive external rotation compared to the contralateral shoulder. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Explanation
In patients older than age 40 years, a high suspicion of a rotator cuff tear should be kept in those patients with weakness after shoulder dislocation. Both posterior rotator cuff and subscapularis injuries have been documented. The next most appropriate step in management should be MRI. If the findings are negative, suspicion of nerve injury should lead to electromyography. Stayner LR, Cumming J, Andersen J, et al: Shoulder dislocations in patients older than 40 years of age. Orthop Clin North Am 2000;31:231-239.
Question 90
A follow-up examination of a patient 6 weeks after knee surgery reveals a range of motion from 5 degrees to 55 degrees of flexion. Which of the following statements best summarizes the role of manipulation under anesthesia for this patient?
Explanation
Esler and associates evaluated the use of manipulation under anesthesia in 47 knees. Manipulation was considered when intensive physical therapy failed to increase flexion to more than 80 degrees. The mean time from arthroplasty to manipulation was 11.3 weeks, and the mean active flexion before manipulation was 62 degrees. One year later, the mean gain was 33 degrees. Definite sustained gains in flexion were achieved even when manipulation was performed 4 or more months after arthroplasty. An additional 21 patients who met the criteria for manipulation declined the procedure, and despite continued physical therapy, they showed no significant increase in knee flexion.
Question 91
Which of the following statements best describes the outcome of the routine use of continuous passive motion (CPM) machines after total knee arthroplasty (TKA)?
Explanation
Although CPM machines are used widely in the United States for patients undergoing TKA, the benefit seems to be marginal, if any. Numerous randomized trials have shown that final outcomes after total knee arthroplasty are unaffected by the use of CPM machines postoperatively. Some studies have suggested that use of CPM may improve flexion in the first few weeks, but any short-term benefit from the machine was lost by intermediate-term follow-up. Aside from potential improvement in flexion within the first few postoperative weeks, there does not appear to be any benefit from the machines. There is no improvement in pain, ambulation, or extension. The cost-effectiveness of these machines has been questioned by many authors. Pellicci PM, Tria AJ, Garvin KL (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Hip and Knee Reconstruction 2. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2000, pp 287-293. McInnes J, Larson MG, Daltroy LH, et al: A controlled evaluation of continuous passive motion in patients undergoing total knee arthroplasty. JAMA 1992;268:1423-1428.
Question 92
A 28-year-old woman has a moderate hallux valgus deformity and a prominence of the medial eminence. She can participate in all activities and reports that she could wear 3-inch heels in the past, but she now notes medial eminence pain even while wearing a soft leather flat shoe with a cushioned sole. She requests recommendations regarding surgical correction. Examination reveals a 1-2 intermetatarsal angle of 10 degrees. A clinical photograph and radiograph are shown in Figures 13a and 13b. What is the best course of action?
Explanation
Based on her symptoms and prior shoe wear modifications, the treatment of choice is surgical correction of the hallux valgus with a chevron osteotomy. There are no data to support the use of a custom orthosis to delay the progression of a hallux valgus deformity. Steroid injection would only risk infection, as well as joint and capsule damage. Extra-depth shoes are an option; however, the patient is interested in surgical options. Chou LB, Mann RA, Casillas MM: Biplanar chevron osteotomy. Foot Ankle Int 1998;19:579-584. Coughlin MJ: Roger A. Mann Award: Juvenile hallux valgus. Etiology and treatment. Foot Ankle Int 1995;16:682-697.
Question 93
What structure is marked Q in the diagram of the brachial plexus shown in Figure 22?
Explanation
From proximal to distal, the brachial plexus is divided into roots, trunks, divisions, and cords before forming specific peripheral nerve branches. The structure marked Q is called the posterior cord because it lies posterior to the axially artery at the level of the cords. Its terminal branches are the upper subscapular (V), thoracodorsal (W), lower subscapular (X), axillary (F), and radial (G) nerves. Anderson JE (ed): Grant's Atlas of Anatomy, ed 7. Baltimore, MD, Williams and Wilkins, 1978, pp 6-24.
Question 94
A 67-year-old patient seen in the emergency department reports the acute onset of pain and is unable to ambulate. History reveals that the patient underwent surgical treatment for a periprosthetic femoral fracture 6 months ago. A radiograph is shown in Figure 41. What is the best treatment option at this time?
Explanation
The radiograph reveals a periprosthetic fracture at the tip of the stem with a stable cemented implant. This is classified as a Vancouver type B1 periprosthetic fracture. An attempt at internal fixation has already failed; therefore, the most predictable results would be achieved with distal fixation. After removal of the well-fixed cemented implant, the proximal bone may not be suitable for proximal fixation. Adequate bone stock is available such that an allograft prosthetic composite or a tumor prosthesis is not necessary. The best option is a long stem implant with distal fixation, which serves as an intramedullary device to restore alignment and increase the likelihood of union. Cortical onlay strut grafts are used as an adjunct to definitive fixation. Younger AS, Dunwoody I, Duncan CP: Periprosthetic hip and knee fractures: The scope of the problem. Inst Course Lect 1998;47:251-256.
Question 95
A 21-year-old man with neurofibromatosis and multiple cutaneous neurofibromas has a rapidly enlarging painless mass on his buttock. Examination reveals a nontender, well-defined 6- x 6-cm soft-tissue mass that is deep to the fascia. The best course of action should be to order
Explanation
Patients with neurofibromatosis are at risk for development of soft-tissue sarcomas (most commonly malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors). Clinical indications of development of a neurofibrosarcoma include a rapidly enlarging soft-tissue mass; therefore, this patient should be considered to have a neurofibrosarcoma until proven otherwise. MRI is superior to CT in characterizing the anatomic location of soft-tissue masses and the signal characteristics of the lesion. Areas of necrosis within the tumor may be apparent on MRI that cannot be appreciated on CT, suggesting a malignant tumor. Local imaging studies of suspected malignant tumors should be performed prior to needle or open biopsy so that the biopsy site can be excised at the time of definitive resection. Additionally, postbiopsy changes may lead to MRI artifacts that alter the interpretation of the MRI. Demas BE, Heelan RT, Lane J, Marcove R, Hajdu S, Brennan MF: Soft-tissue sarcomas of the extremities: Comparison of MR and CT in determining the extent of disease. Am J Roentgenol 1988;150:615-620.
Question 96
A newborn with bilateral talipes equinovarus undergoes serial manipulation and casting. What is the primary goal of manipulation?
Explanation
Manipulative treatment and casting of talipes equinovarus has become popular because of disappointing surgical results and enthusiasm for the Ponseti method of manipulation. In this technique, the primary goal is to rotate the foot laterally around a talus that is held fixed by the manipulating surgeon's hands. While the navicular may be rotated anterolaterally with this technique, the primary focus is on the calcaneus. The calcaneus is rotated laterally and superiorly, not translated. Some dorsiflexion of the calcaneus can be obtained by manipulation, but the primary focus is on the rotational relationship of the talus and calcaneus, not the degree of calcaneal dorsiflexion. Ponseti IV: Common errors in the treatment of congenital clubfoot. Int Orthop 1997;21:137-141.
Question 97
Figure 36 shows the radiograph of a 14-year-old boy who has been treated in the past for Perthes' disease with an abduction brace. He now has hip pain that limits his activity, and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs have failed to provide relief. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Explanation
Several authors have reported good success in relieving pain with shelf acetabuloplasty. This patient's Perthes' disease is in the healed phase; therefore, proximal femoral varus and Salter innominate osteotomies aimed at improving containment are not indicated. The medial one half of the patient's femoral head is markedly deformed, and rotating it into a weight-bearing position with proximal femoral valgus osteotomy is unlikely to relieve pain. Hip arthrodesis can always be performed as a salvage procedure if the shelf acetabuloplasty fails. Daly K, Bruce C, Catterall A: Lateral shelf acetabuloplasty in Perthes' disease: A review of the end of growth. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1999;81:380-384.
Question 98
Figure 33 shows the MRI scan of a 55-year-old woman who has had a 6-week history of back and leg pain. Which of the following clinical scenarios is most consistent with the MRI scan findings at L4-L5?
Explanation
The MRI scan reveals a L4-L5 foraminal disk herniation originating from the L4-5 disk space that has migrated up into the foramen, compressing the left L4 nerve root. There is normal distribution of the roots in the cerebrospinal fluid, excluding arachnoiditis as a diagnosis, and disk herniation in this location would not result in cauda equina syndrome or myelopathy.
Question 99
A 55-year-old woman with a long history of low back and left lower extremity pain has failed to respond to exhaustive nonsurgical management. MRI scans show bulging and degeneration at L3-4 and L4-5 as well as a normal disk at L2-3 and L5-S1. She undergoes provocative lumbar diskography at L3-4, L4-5, and L5-S1. Post-diskography axial CT images of L3-4 and L4-5 are shown in Figures 6a and 6b, respectively. The injections at L3-4 and L4-5 produce no pain. The injection at L5-S1 produces 10/10 concordant back pain with radiation to the lower extremity. What is the most appropriate recommendation at this time?
Explanation
The results of this patient's lumbar diskography are equivocal at best. The two disks most likely to be her pain generators, based on their MRI appearance, produced 10/10 pain, however it was nonconcordant and did not reproduce any of her typical left-sided radicular symptoms. The only disk that produced concordant back pain was the normal disk at the L5-S1 level and it reproduced radicular symptoms on the side opposite of her typical pain. Based on these findings, it would be difficult to select a level or levels to include in a lumbar fusion. As such, continued nonsurgical management is the safest treatment option at the current time. Brox and associates reported on a randomized clinical trial comparing lumbar fusion to cognitive intervention and exercise and found similar results in both groups, with significantly less risk in the latter. Brox JI, Sorensen R, Friis A, et al: Randomized clinical trial of lumbar instrumented fusion and cognitive intervention and exercises in patients with chronic low back pain and disc degeneration. Spine 2003;28:1913-1921.
Question 100
Decreased activity of which of the following proteins may be predictive of an aggressive soft-tissue sarcoma?
Explanation
It has been proposed that an imbalance in the proteolytic cascade involving matrix metalloproteinases (MMPs) and their inhibitors (TIMPs) may play a role in the development or progression of malignancy. TIMP activity has been shown to be weak or nonexistent and MMP activity to be high in patients with soft-tissue sarcoma. The level of vascular endothelial growth factor is shown to be a negative prognostic indicator because the expression of this factor is associated with angiogenesis and aggressive growth of many tumors including Ewing' s sarcoma and chondrosarcoma. Stromelysin is a type of MMP. The biology of cytokines in malignancy is complex. A low level of interleukin-1 is not known to be associated with high-grade tumors.