Comprehensive 100-Question Exam
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Question 1
What is the most accurate description of the relationship between gender and knee loading during landing while playing basketball?
Explanation
Ford and associates studied 81 high school basketball players and found that females landed with greater total valgus knee loading and a greater maximum valgus knee angle than male athletes. Hewett and associates reported in a study of 205 female athletes that those with increased dynamic valgus and high abduction loads were at increased risk of anterior cruciate ligament injury. Hewett TE, Myer GD, Ford KR, et al: Biomechanical measures of neuromuscular control and valgus loading of the knee predict anterior cruciate ligament injury risk in female athletes: A prospective study. Am J Sports Med 2005;33:492-501.
Question 2
During total shoulder replacement for rheumatoid arthritis, fracture of the humeral shaft occurs. An intraoperative radiograph shows a displaced short oblique fracture at the tip of the prosthesis. At this point, the surgeon should
Explanation
The risk of intraoperative fracture in osteopenic rheumatoid bone is significant. Fractures may occur with dislocation of the head and canal reaming, especially while extending and externally rotating the shoulder. If the fracture occurs at the distal tip of the prosthesis, the use of a long-stemmed prosthesis to bypass the fracture site and supplementation with wire cables has been reported with good results. Wright TW, Cofield RH: Humeral fractures after shoulder arthroplasty. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1995;77:1340-1346. Boyd AD Jr, Thornhill TS, Barnes CL: Fractures adjacent to humeral protheses. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1992;74:1498-1504.
Question 3
A 60-year-old woman has a mass in the right scapula. Figures 25a and 25b show a CT scan and a biopsy specimen. The cells are lymphocyte common antigen positive, Ewing's specific antigen (CD99) negative, and keratin negative. What is the next step in management?
Explanation
The clinical history, CT scan, and histology are most consistent with a lymphoma of bone. An important part of the staging is bone marrow aspiration and biopsy. The other studies listed are not indicated. Lymphoma of bone, when localized, is usually treated with chemotherapy and radiation therapy and has excellent survival rates. Widespread lymphoma has a worse prognosis. Finiewicz K, van Biesen K: Non-Hodgkins lymphoma, in Golomb H, Vokes E (eds): Oncologic Therapies, ed 2. Berlin, Germany, Springer, 2003, pp 295-318.
Question 4
A 40-year-old woman has a symptomatic mass on the anterior aspect of the ankle. She reports no constitutional symptoms. An MRI scan is shown in Figure 12. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
The MRI scan reveals a lobular mass that is below the vitamin E tablet marker taped to the skin. This is juxtaposed to the tibialis anterior tendon. It is slightly more enhanced than the surrounding subcutaneous fat and is consistent with a ganglion. Osteosarcoma, aneurysmal bone cyst, or unicameral bone cyst all would demonstrate enhancement or pathology in the bone. This is clearly a well-defined soft-tissue mass. Gouty tophi show low to intermediate signal on T1- and T2-weighted images. Kransdorf MJ, Jelinek JS, Moser RP Jr, et al: Soft tissue masses: Diagnosis using MR imaging. Am J Roentgenol 1989;153:541-547. Wetzel LH, Levine E: Soft-tissue tumors of the foot: Value of MR imaging for specific diagnosis. Am J Roentgenol 1990;155:1025-1030.
Question 5
A 56-year-old man underwent right total shoulder arthroplasty 2 months ago. Recently while reaching with his shoulder in a flexed and adducted position, he noted shoulder pain and afterwards he could not externally rotate his arm. An axillary radiograph is shown in Figure 30. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
Explanation
Anteversion of the humeral component may result in anterior instability of the component. Posterior instability after total shoulder arthroplasty is usually the result of some combination of the following factors: untreated anterior soft-tissue contractures, excessive posterior capsular laxity, and excessive retroversion of the humeral and/or glenoid components. Cofield RH, Edgerton BC: Total shoulder arthroplasty: Complications and revision surgery. Instr Course Lect 1990;39:449-462.
Question 6
An adult patient has an 8- x 4- x 10-cm soft-tissue mass located within the adductor compartment of the thigh. Staging studies should consist of
Explanation
The appropriate staging studies should consist of MRI and a radiograph of the primary lesion and CT of the chest. MRI is superior to CT for soft-tissue imaging. CT may be useful for evaluating the cortex of bone for invasion by tumor. Bone scans are not commonly used because soft-tissue sarcomas rarely metastasize to bone. CT of the abdomen and pelvis is not typically ordered except for possible liposarcoma. With liposarcoma, there may be a synchronous or metastatic retroperitoneal liposarcoma. Demetri GD, Pollock R, Baker L, et al: NCCN sarcoma practice guidelines: National Comprehensive Cancer Network. Oncology (Huntingt) 1998;12:183-218.
Question 7
Figure 42 shows the radiograph of a patient with spinal muscular atrophy. Examination reveals good upper extremity function, and she can tie her shoes and propel a manual wheelchair. Posterior instrumentation and fusion may result in
Explanation
Spinal muscular atrophy is caused by an abnormal survival motor neuron gene that prevents apoptosis of the motor nerves. Spinal fusion results in better sitting balance, stabilized or improved pulmonary function, and high parental satisfaction, but it may result in at least temporary loss of upper extremity function. Bentley G, Haddad F, Bull TM, Seingry D: The treatment of scoliosis in muscular dystrophy using modified Luque and Harrington-Luque instrumentation. J Bone Joint Surg Br 2001;83:22-28. Furumasu J, Swank SM, Brown JC, Gilgoff I, Warath S, Zeller J: Functional activities in spinal muscular atrophy patients after spinal fusion. Spine 1989;14:771-775.
Question 8
An Asian 45-year-old man has bilateral upper extremity dysfunction. Figure 35a shows a T2-weighted sagittal MRI scan of the cervical spine, and Figure 35b shows a T2-weighted axial MRI scan at the level of the C3 vertebral body. What is the most likely pathologic process?
Explanation
Although relatively common in people of Asian origin, OPLL has been reported in other races as well. The radiographic appearance can be variable as there are different types described, but some of the discerning characteristics are seen in these images. On the sagittal view, the bone posterior to the vertebral body extends along the entire length of C2 and C3. This is characteristic of OPLL, whereas cervical spondylosis and DISH more commonly are not confluent. Ankylosing spondylitis more commonly extends significantly into the spinal canal, and neurofibromatosis generally does not cause any bony growth. The axial view shows a large, oval bony projection into the spinal canal, a typical finding of OPLL. McAfee PC, Regan JJ, Bohlman HH: Cervical cord compression from ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament in non-orientals. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1987;69:569-575.
Question 9
Patients with which of the following primary carcinomas have the shortest overall survival rate after a solitary metastasis to bone?
Explanation
The median survival of patients after discovery of bone metastasis from primary lung carcinoma is shorter compared with other primary sites.
Question 10
Figure 2a shows the radiograph of a 48-year-old man who was involved in a motorcycle accident. A CT scan is shown in Figure 2b. The patient underwent pelvic angiography for persistent hypotension despite resuscitation. What vessel is most likely to be injured?
Explanation
The pelvic injury is a severe anterior-posterior compression III or Tile C injury. The vessel most likely injured is the superior gluteal artery, but several arterial bleeding sources are likely. Vertical shear injuries can also injure this vessel, but it is much less common. When arterial injury follows a lateral compression injury, it is usually related to injury of a more anterior vessel like the obturator artery or a branch of the external iliac artery. O'Neill PA, Riina J, Sclafani S, et al: Angiographic findings in pelvic fractures. Clin Orthop 1996;329:60-67.
Question 11
What is the most common problem seen following epiphysiodesis for limb-length discrepancy?
Explanation
Errors in timing are by far the most common in this technically safe procedure. Incomplete growth arrest has been reported in up to 15% of patients versus timing errors in 61%. Fracture through the site has been reported rarely. Neurovascular and cartilaginous injury are extremely uncommon but always need to be considered when performing surgery in the vicinity of these structures. Blair VP III, Walker SJ, Sheridan JJ, Schoenecker PL: Epiphysiodesis: A problem of timing. J Pediatr Orthop 1982;2:281-284.
Question 12
Which of the following results cannot be achieved with an in-shoe orthosis?
Explanation
Depending on the type of materials used, an orthotic can be fabricated to achieve a variety of results. While a rigid fixed deformity can be stabilized or cushioned, an orthotic will not correct a deformity that is not passively correctable. Mizel MS, Miller RA, Scioli MW (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Foot and Ankle 2. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1998, pp 55-64. Bono CM, Berberian WS: Orthotic devices: Degenerative disorders of the foot and ankle. Foot Ankle Clin 2001;6:329-340.
Question 13
New painful paresthesias near the site of the incision after an ulnar nerve transposition is the result of injury to what nerve?
Explanation
Branches of the medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve can often be identified during routine ulnar nerve surgery crossing the medial aspect of the elbow. It should be preserved to avoid development of painful paresthesias.
Question 14
A 22-month-old child has scrapes and bruises on his head and a severe deformity of the forearm after being thrown from a car as an unrestrained passenger in a motor vehicle accident. Examination reveals a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 12. Prior to treatment of the forearm, management should include
Explanation
As CT scanning has become available, the use of radiographs of the skull has decreased in importance for evaluation of head trauma. The indications for CT scanning for suspected head trauma include any degree of obtundation, focal neurologic deficit, history of a high-velocity injury, amnesia for the injury, progressive headache, persistent vomiting, children younger than age 2 years, serious facial injury, posttraumatic seizure, skull penetration, or a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 or less. Evidence of improved outcome with use of steroids in head trauma is lacking. Steroids are useful for increased intracranial pressure caused by brain tumors or abscesses. High-dose IV methylprednisolone is indicated for spinal cord trauma and improves the ultimate degree of recovery of function. When herniation is suspected in a patient with asymmetric neurologic findings or the patient's condition is deteriorating rapidly, a mannitol infusion may be used. Hall DE: Head injuries, in Hoekelman RA (ed): Primary Pediatric Care. St Louis, Mo, Mosby, 1997, pp 1709-1712. Nelson WE, Behrman RE, Kliegman RM (eds): Nelson Essentials of Pediatrics. Philadelphia, Pa, WB Saunders, 1998, p 712.
Question 15
In patients who have undergone nonsurgical management for idiopathic adhesive capsulitis, long-term follow-up studies have shown which of the following results?
Explanation
Results have been satisfactory in many patients; however, at long-term follow-up, examination of the affected shoulder often shows some decrease in range of motion compared with the contralateral side. Although range of motion often improves over time, it does not return to normal in 60% of patients. Pain improves but is often increased compared with the contralateral side. Griggs SM, Ahn A, Green A: Idiopathic adhesive capsulitis: A prospective functional outcome study of nonoperative treatment. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2000;82:1398-1407.
Question 16
Which of the following clinical disorders is the result of a mutation in fibroblast growth factor recepter 3 (FGFR3)?
Explanation
Camptomelic dysplasia is caused by a heterozygous loss of function of the Sox9 gene. The alternatives have genetic causes, but are not linked to Sox9. Cleidocranial dysplasia is related to a defect in Cbfa-1 (Osf-2, Runx2). Schmid metaphyseal chondrodysplasia is related to Type X collagen. Fibrous dysplasia is related to a defect in the alpha subunit of stimulatory guanine-nucleotide-binding protein (Gs). Achondroplasia is related to a defect in fibroblast growth factor receptor 3. Wagner T, Wirth J, Meyer J, et al: Autosomal sex reversal and camptomelic dysplasia are caused by mutations in and around the SRY-related gene SOX9. Cell 1994;79:1111-1120. Buckwalter JA, Einhorn TA, Simon SR (eds): Orthopaedic Basic Science: Biology and Biomechanics of the Musculoskeletal System, ed 2. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2000, pp 111-131.
Question 17
What is the best initial screening test for a patient with a limb-length discrepancy?
Explanation
With the patient standing, add blocks under the short leg until the pelvis is level, then measure the blocks to determine the discrepancy. This method is an accurate, simple, and inexpensive way to assess limb-length discrepancy. Differences of less than 2 cm need no treatment. Increasing discrepancy in a growing child should be followed clinically. Radiographic examination can include scanography, CT scanography, or a standing pelvic radiograph with the pelvis leveled. CT scanography is the most accurate diagnostic test when hip, knee, or ankle contractures are present. Herring JA: Tachdjian's Pediatric Orthopedics, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2002, pp 1041-1045. Schoenecker PL, Rich MM: The lower extremity, in Morrissy RT, Weinstein SL (eds): Lovell and Winter's Pediatric Orthopaedics, ed 5. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Williams and Wilkins, 2001, pp 1120-1122. Stanitski DF: Limb-length inequality: Assessment and treatment options. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1999;7:143-153.
Question 18
A 42-year-old man with a history of renal cell carcinoma has progressive weakness in the lower extremities for the past 3 weeks. The patient desires intervention. A sagittal T2-weighted MRI scan is shown in Figure 9a, and a sagittal contrast enhanced T1-weighted MRI scan is shown in Figure 9b. He currently ambulates minimal distances with a walker. His life expectancy is 8 months. Treatment of the spine lesion should consist of
Explanation
The MRI scans show a metastatic lesion in two contiguous vertebral bodies in the lower thoracic spine. Posterior laminectomy is not indicated because this does not adequately decompress the neural elements and will lead to progressive kyphosis. A posterior fusion may prevent progressive kyphosis but will not decompress the spinal cord. Renal cell carcinoma is not radiosensitive; therefore, radiation therapy would not be helpful in relieving neurologic compression. The lesion should be treated by an anterior corpectomy and reconstruction. This will allow for complete decompression as well as reconstruction of the anterior column. Kyphoplasty is not indicated in a lesion with disruption of the posterior cortex and neurologic impairment. Spivak JM, Connolly PJ (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Spine 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2006, pp 351-366.
Question 19
Degenerative spondylolisthesis of the cervical spine is most commonly seen at which of the following levels?
Explanation
Degenerative spondylolisthesis of the cervical spine is seen almost exclusively at C3-4 and C4-5; this is in contrast to degenerative changes, which are most commonly seen at C5-6 and C6-7. Tani T, Kawasaki M, Taniguchi S, et al: Functional importance of degenerative spondylolisthesis in cervical spondylotic myelopathy in the elderly. Spine 2003;28:1128-1134.
Question 20
A distal radius fracture in an elderly man is strongly predictive for what subsequent injury?
Explanation
Fractures of the distal radius increase the relative risk of a subsequent hip fracture significantly more in men than in women. A previous spinal fracture has an equally important impact on the risk of a subsequent hip fracture in both genders.
Question 21
A healthy 25-year-old man sustains a grade IIIB open tibial fracture. Following appropriate debridement, irrigation, and stabilization with an external fixator, the soft-tissue injury is shown in Figure 30. What is the most appropriate definitive soft-tissue coverage procedure?
Explanation
This is a very large near circumferential defect with posterior as well as anterior skin and muscle injury. Bone is exposed. The posterior muscles cannot be rotated since they are part of the zone of injury. The bone and other poorly vascularized areas of this wound would not accept a skin graft. The best chance for limb salvage will be to obtain soft-tissue coverage with a free tissue transfer using the latissimus dorsi. Mathes SJ, Nahai F: Vascular anatomy of muscle: Classification and applications, in Mathes SJ, Nahai F (eds): Clinical Application for Muscle and Musculocutaneous Flaps. St Louis, MO, CV Mosby, 1982, p 20.
Question 22
The dorsal (Thompson) approach to the proximal forearm uses which of the following intermuscular intervals?
Explanation
The Thompson posterior approach is used in treatment of fractures of the proximal radius. Dissection is carried out through the interval between the extensor carpi radialis brevis (radial nerve) and the extensor digitorum communis (posterior interosseous nerve). To identify this interval, the forearm is pronated and the mobile lateral wad of muscles (the ulnar-most belly is the extensor carpi radialis brevis) is grasped with the thumb and finger and pulled from the much less mobile mass of the extensor digitorum communis. The furrow created is marked with a skin marker for subsequent skin incision. The skin incision follows a line from the lateral epicondyle of the humerus to a point corresponding to the middle of the posterior aspect of the wrist. Distally, the intermuscular plane is between the extensor carpi radialis brevis and the extensor pollicis longus. Crenshaw AH Jr: Surgical techniques and approaches, in Canale ST (ed): Campbell's Operative Orthopaedics, ed 9. St Louis, MO, Mosby-Year Book, 1998, vol 1, pp 128-129. Hoppenfeld S, deBoer P: Posterior approach to the radius, in Surgical Exposures in Orthopaedics: The Anatomic Approach, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1992, pp 136-146.
Question 23
A 16-year-old boy has had a painful ingrown nail on his great toe for the past 3 months. When initial management consisting of soaking the foot in Epsom salts and trimming the nail failed to provide relief, his family physician recommended 2 weeks of oral antibiotics. His symptoms persist, and he is now seeking a second opinion. A clinical photograph is shown in Figure 18. Management should now consist of
Explanation
The patient has a chronic ingrown nail on his great toe, which is not an uncommon occurrence in teenagers because of improper nail care. There is local infection and a foreign body reaction because of the nail. Continued conservative management with soaks and antibiotics will not improve the clinical situation. In the presence of local chronic infection, nail matrix ablation is contraindicated. Additionally, in the absence of a history of an ingrown nail, a nail matrix ablation is not medically indicated. The appropriate treatment is partial removal of the nail plate. With nail plate removal, the inflammation and local infection will resolve rapidly. Pettine KA, Cofield RH, Johnson KA, Bussey RM: Ingrown toenail: Results of surgical treatment. Foot Ankle 1988;9:130-134.
Question 24
A 21-year-old woman with Marfan syndrome is seeking evaluation of her scoliosis. She reports no back or leg pain, and the neurologic examination is normal. Lateral and bending radiographs are shown in Figures 7a through 7e. Management should consist of
Explanation
Because the patient's thoracolumbar scoliosis is of a large enough magnitude, observation or bracing is not recommended. The thoracolumbar curve is flexible enough and L4 corrects well enough to the pelvis to consider anterior spinal fusion from T10 to L4. Garfin SR, Vaccaro AR (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Spine. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1997, pp 161-171. Turi M, Johnston CE II, Richards BS: Anterior correction of idiopathic scoliosis using TSRH instrumentation. Spine 1993;18:417-422.
Question 25
The medial collateral ligament complex of the elbow originates on what portion of the medial epicondyle?
Explanation
The medial collateral ligament complex of the elbow consists of three portions: the anterior bundle, the posterior bundle, and a transverse component that has little biomechanic significance. The origin of the ligament is from the central two thirds of the anteroinferior undersurface of the medial epicondyle.
Question 26
What is the best surgical approach for the scapular fracture shown in Figure 46?
Explanation
Indications for open reduction of glenoid intra-articular fractures include those fractures with a 5-mm articular surface displacement or when the humeral head is subluxated with the fracture fragment. Kavanaugh and associates and Leung and Lam have shown that the posterior approach with plate fixation is best for most glenoid fractures, including the Ideberg type II fracture shown here. The anterior approach is best used for anterior rim and transverse fractures. Kavanagh BF, Bradway JK, Cofield RH: Open reduction and internal fixation of displaced intra-articular fractures of the glenoid fossa. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1993;75:479-484. Leung KS, Lam TP: Open reduction and internal fixation of ipsilateral fractures of the scapular neck and clavicle. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1993;75:1015-1018.
Question 27
A 16-year-old girl has a painful foot mass. A radiograph, MRI scan, and biopsy specimens are shown in Figures 35a through 35d. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
Synovial sarcoma should always be considered in the differential diagnosis of a foot mass; however, the histopathology shows a typical example of PVNS, with hemosiderin, giant cells, and synovium. Synovial chondromatosis would have metaplastic cartilage in the synovium. The radiograph shows subtle erosion of the lateral cortex of the cuboid, and the MRI scan shows a soft-tissue mass. Ghert MA, Scully SP, Harrelson JM: Pigmented villonodular synovitis of the foot and ankle: A review of six cases. Foot Ankle Int 1999;20:326-330. Jones BC, Sundaram M, Kransdorf MJ: Synovial sarcoma: MR imaging findings in 34 patients. Am J Roentgenol 1993;161:827-830. Sartoris DJ, Resnick D: Magnetic resonance imaging of pediatric foot and ankle disorders. J Foot Surg 1990;29:489-494.
Question 28
An olecranon fracture-dislocation of the elbow in which the fracture line exits distal to the coronoid process is best managed by open reduction and
Explanation
Fracture-dislocations of the elbow present difficult management problems. Standard olecranon fractures normally are not associated with a dislocation; however, the surgeon needs to recognize that some fractures that have a dislocation, in particular a posterior dislocation, represent a Monteggia equivalent. These injuries are not ulnar shaft fractures because they are fractured at or just distal to the coronoid; however, because of the unstable fracture-dislocation, the forces across this reduction are high. Two Kirschner wires and a tension band wire provide inadequate fixation. Therefore, the preferred method of fixation is plate osteosynthesis with a 3.5-mm low-contact dynamic compression plate or reconstruction plate. Jupiter JP, Kellam JF: Fractures of the forearm, in Browner BD, Jupiter JP, Levine AM, Trafton P (eds): Skeletal Trauma, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1998, pp 421-454. Quintero J: Fracture of the forearm, in Ruedi TP, Murphy WM (eds): AO Principles of Fracture Management. Stuttgart, Thieme, 2000, pp 323-337.
Question 29
A 24-year-old female soccer player has had lateral joint line pain and a recurrent effusion in the left knee after sustaining a twisting injury 6 weeks ago. She reports that symptoms worsen with athletic activities. MRI scans are shown in Figures 2a through 2c. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
The MRI scans show the typical findings of a torn discoid lateral meniscus. The average transverse diameter of the lateral meniscus is 11 or 12 mm. A discoid lateral meniscus is suggested when three or more contiguous 5-mm sagittal sections on the MRI scan show continuity of the menicus between the anterior and posterior horns, or when two adjacent peripheral sagittal 5-mm sections show equal meniscal height. Normally the black "bow tie" would be seen on two contiguous sagittal sections. The presence of a discoid meniscus can be further confirmed if coronal views reveal increased width. Jordan MR: Lateral meniscal variants: Evaluation and treatment. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1996;4:191-200.
Question 30
A 17-year-old high school soccer player sustains an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear at the beginning of the season. An MRI scan confirms a complete ACL tear with no meniscal injuries. The patient plans an early return to play and would like to avoid surgery. Therefore, the patient and family should be advised that nonsurgical management consisting of rehabilitative exercises and the use of a functional knee brace will most likely result in
Explanation
While there are athletes who can function at a full level with an ACL tear, they are in the minority. As yet, there is no reliable way to predict the patients who will be able to compensate for the loss of the ACL. Studies have confirmed the risk of recurrent instability and meniscal injury in athletes with an ACL-deficient knee who participate in cutting sports. One study showed that only 12 of 43 patients who attempted rehabilitation and bracing were able to return successfully for the season. Another study showed that 17 of 31 athletes who were able to return to their sport sustained 23 meniscal tears because of recurrent instability. Shelton WR, Barrett GR, Dukes A: Early season anterior cruciate ligament tears: A treatment dilemma. Am J Sports Med 1997;25:656-658.
Question 31
Figure 16 shows the radiograph of a 7-year-old boy who sustained a pathologic fracture of the left humerus 1 day ago. Initial management should consist of
Explanation
The radiograph shows a pathologic fracture through a unicameral (simple) bone cyst (UBC). This is the most common location and presentation of a UBC. Less than 10% of UBCs heal spontaneously following a fracture. Urgent biopsy is not indicated because the lesion appears benign and the histology of fracture callus may be misinterpreted as osteosarcoma. After the fracture heals with the use of a sling and swathe, the UBC may be treated with a minimally invasive procedure such as injection of bone marrow and/or demineralized bone matrix. The chance for success is relatively low in an active cyst located adjacent to the physis. More invasive procedures, such as curettage, Rush rod fixation, or cannulated screw decompression, have been described but are rarely necessary for treatment of upper extremity cysts. Rougraff BT, Kling TJ: Treatment of active unicameral bone cysts with percutaneous injection of demineralized bone matrix and autogenous bone marrow. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2002;84:921-929. Robosch A, Saraph V, Linhart WE: Flexible intramedullary nailing for the treatment of unicameral bone cysts in long bones. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2000;82:1447-1453.
Question 32
What acetabular procedure for developmental dysplasia of the hip does not require a concentric reduction of the femoral head in the acetabulum?
Explanation
All of the reorientation innominate osteotomies require a concentric reduction of the hip. The Staheli shelf procedure may be performed even with the hip subluxated, but it is a salvage procedure that covers a portion of the femoral head with capsular fibrocartilage rather than hyaline cartilage. Staheli LT, Chew DE: Slotted acetabular augmentation in childhood adolescence. J Pediatr Orthop 1992;12:569-580.
Question 33
The biopsy specimens seen in Figures 55a and 55b are from a lytic lesion in the sacrum of a 58-year-old man. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
The lesion is a chordoma and the other listed choices can be eliminated based on the histology. Many tumors can occur in the sacrum including chordoma, multiple myeloma, giant cell tumor, aneurysmal bone cyst, and metastatic disease. The histology in this patient shows a lobulated lesion on low power with fibrous septae separating the lobules. At higher magnification, the cells have eosinophilic vacuolated cytoplasm and are called physaliferous cells. Chordoma is a low-grade neoplasm that most commonly occurs in the sacrum and rarely in the base of the skull. The diagnosis is often delayed. Chordoma is thought to originate from notochordal remnants. Chordoma typically occurs in the midline and has an associated soft-tissue mass. Wold LE, Adler CP, Sim FH, et al: Atlas of Orthopedic Pathology, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2003, p 372. Fuchs B, Dickey ID, Yaszemski MJ, et al: Operative management of sacral chordoma. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2005;87:2211-2216.
Question 34
Titanium and its alloys are unsuitable candidates for which of the following implant applications?
Explanation
Titanium alloy is highly biocompatible, has higher strength than stainless steel, and is highly resistant to corrosion. It is particularly suited for use in fracture plates, bone screws, and intramedullary nails because of its low modulus of elasticity (low stiffness), which can reduce stress shielding. It is also widely used for porous-ingrowth coatings. However, clinical experience has shown that titanium alloy bearing surfaces such as a femoral ball are highly susceptible to severe metallic wear, particularly in the presence of third-body abrasive particles (PMMA fragments, bone chips, metal debris, etc). McKellop HA, Sarmiento A, Schwinn CP, et al: In vivo wear of titanium-alloy hip prostheses. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1990;72:512-517. Salvati EA, Betts F, Doty SB: Particulate metallic debris in cemented total hip arthroplasty. Clin Orthop 1993;293:160-173.
Question 35
A 12-year-old boy with hemophilia A and no known inhibitors sustains a tibia fracture and has pain with passive motion of the deep toe flexors. Appropriate management should consist of
Explanation
In a patient with hemophilia, factor replacement followed by assessment of compartment pressures is essential. If the patient has inhibitors, the problem is more difficult. Porcine factor has been helpful in patients with inhibitory antibodies. Recent evidence points to using activated factor VII and bypassing the intrinsic pathway. Desmopressin is an adjunct to therapy but is not as effective as factor VII. Dumontier C, Sautet A, Man M, Bennani M, Apoil A: Entrapment and compartment syndromes of the upper limb in haemophilia. J Hand Surg Br 1994;19:427-429. Carr ME Jr, Loughran TP, Cardea JA, Smith WK, Kuhn JG, Dottore MV: Successful use of recombinant factor VIIa for hemostasis during total knee replacement in a severe hemophiliac with high-titer factor VIII inhibitor. Int J Hematol 2002;75:95-99.
Question 36
Failure of high tibial osteotomy (HTO) is most closely associated with which of the following factors?
Explanation
Long-term survivorship studies have attempted to clarify patient factors related to good outcomes in HTO. One particular study showed that a patient age of less than 50 years was related to good outcomes in those who had good preoperative knee flexion. The same study found no relation between HTO failure and the presence of postoperative infection or deep venous thrombosis. The presence of a lateral tibial thrust is a contraindication to performing this surgery. As expected, good patient selection is critical to obtaining good long-term results with HTO. Naudie D, Borne RB, Rorabeck CH, Bourne TJ: Survivorship of the high tibial valgus osteotomy: A 10- to 22-year followup study. Clin Orthop 1999;367:18-27. Rinonapoli E, Mancini GB, Corvaglia A, Musiello S: Tibial osteotomy for varus gonarthrosis: A 10- to 21-year followup study. Clin Orthop 1998;353:185-193.
Question 37
Examination of a 13-year-old boy with asymptomatic poor posture reveals increased thoracic kyphosis that is fairly rigid and accentuates during forward bending. The neurologic examination is normal. Spinal radiographs show 10 degrees of scoliosis at Risser stage 2, and there is no evidence of spondylolisthesis. A standing lateral view of the thoracic spine is shown in Figure 41. The kyphosis corrects to 50 degrees. Management should consist of
Explanation
The radiograph shows excessive thoracic kyphosis (normal 20 degrees to 50 degrees) with multiple contiguous vertebral wedging and end plate irregularity, all consistent with the diagnosis of Scheuermann's kyphosis. The patient is skeletally immature; therefore, there is the potential for progression of the kyphotic deformity. Extension bracing has shown efficacy in the treatment of Scheuermann's kyphosis that measures 50 degrees to 74 degrees, and has actually reduced the curvature permanently in some patients. A thoracolumbosacral orthosis may be used if the apex of kyphosis is at T7 or lower. Indications for surgical treatment are controversial, but spinal fusion most likely should not be considered for a painless kyphosis measuring less than 75 degrees. Murray PM, Weinstein SL, Spratt KF: The natural history and long-term follow-up of Scheuermann kyphosis. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1993;75:236-248. Wenger DR, Frick SL: Scheuermann kyphosis. Spine 1999;24:2630-2639.
Question 38
In the treatment of thoracic disk herniations, what approach is associated with the highest risk of iatrogenic paraplegia?
Explanation
Laminectomy is associated with the highest risk of iatrogenic paraplegia because retraction on the cord is necessary for visualization, but retraction is difficult because of tethering of the intradural dentate ligaments. All of the other approaches allow for access to the disk herniation through an angle that avoids the cord itself, although other limitations may exist. Garfin SR, Vaccaro AR (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Spine. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1997, pp 87-96.
Question 39
What is the most appropriate orthotic management for the lesion shown in Figure 6?
Explanation
The figure shows an intractable plantar keratosis (IPK). The keratoma usually forms beneath a bony prominence. This can occur under the sesamoids, most commonly the tibial sesamoid, or under the fibular condyle of a prominent metatarsal head. The initial treatment of an IPK consists of paring down the callused lesion and placing a metatarsal pad proximal to the lesion to provide posting to unload the bony prominence.
Question 40
What is the most frequent complication of both lateral closing wedge high tibial osteotomy and medial opening wedge osteotomy?
Explanation
Scuderi and associates reported on patellar height after a high tibial osteotomy. Eighty-nine percent of the patellae, as measured by the Insall-Salvati index, and 76.3 percent, as measured by the Blackburne-Peel index, were observed to be lowered. More recently, Wright and associates reported a 64% incidence of patella baja in patients undergoing a medial opening wedge osteotomy. The incidence of intra-articular fracture during medial opening wedge osteotomy has been reported to be as high as 11% by Hernigou and associates, whereas the incidence of intra-articular fracture during lateral closing wedge high tibial osteotomy has been reported to be 10% to 20% by Matthews and associates. The incidence of peroneal nerve palsy with a lateral closing wedge high tibial osteotomy ranges from 0% to 20%, according to Marti and associates, whereas the incidence of peroneal palsy following a medial opening wedge osteotomy has been reported to be 15.7% by Flierl and associates. The exact incidence of compartment syndrome after a high tibial osteotomy is not known; however, it does not reach the level of patella baja. The incidence of deep infection after a lateral closing wedge high tibial osteotomy ranges from 0% to 4% according to Billings and associates. Scuderi GR, Windsor RE, Insall JN: Observations on patellar height after proximal tibial osteotomy. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1989;71:245-248. Wright JM, Crockett HC, Slawski DP, et al: High tibial osteotomy. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2005;13:279-289. Hernigou P, Medevielle D, Debeyre J, et al: Proximal tibial osteotomy for osteoarthritis with varus deformity: A ten to thirteen-year follow-up study. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1987;69:332-354. Matthews LS, Goldstein SA, Malvitz TA, et al: Proximal tibial osteotomy: Factors that influence the duration of satisfactory function. Clin Orthop 1988;229:193-200. Marti CB, Gautier E, Wachtl SW, et al: Accuracy of frontal and sagittal plane correction in open-wedge high tibial osteotomy. Arthroscopy 2004;20:366-372. Marti RK, Verhigan RA, Kerkhoffs GM, et al: Proximal tibial varus osteotomy: Indications, technique, and five to twenty-one-year results. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2001;83:164-170. Flierl S, Sabo D, Hornig K, et al: Open wedge high tibial osteotomy using fractioned drill osteotomy: A surgical modification that lowers the complication rate. Knee Surg Sports Traumatol Arthrosc 1996;4:149-153.
Question 41
A 28-year-old woman has left shoulder pain and a tender soft-tissue mass. Based on the MRI scan and biopsy specimens shown in Figures 74a through 74c, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
Schwannomas (neurilemomas) occur at all ages but are most frequently seen in persons between the ages of 20 and 50 years. MRI features of schwannomas are fairly nonspecific, but when they are associated with a large named nerve, the identification of a mass in continuity with that nerve is highly suggestive of a schwannoma. Most have a fairly homogeneous appearance with a high water content and often fusiform shape. Classically, the histology shows alternating Antoni A (dense spindle cell region) areas and Antoni B (loose myxoid tissue) areas. They also demonstrate uniform intense immunostaining with S-100 protein. Damron TA, Sim FH: Soft-tissue tumors about the knee. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1997;5:141-152.
Question 42
A 30-year-old right hand-dominant woman is seen in the trauma unit after a high-speed motor vehicle accident. She sustained a right shoulder anterior dislocation that is gently reduced under sedation. A CT scan is shown in Figure 3. If left untreated, the patient is at greatest risk for
Explanation
Large, displaced anterior inferior glenoid rim fractures predispose patients to recurrent anterior instability due to loss of the normal concavity compression effect of the glenoid. These defects require open reduction and internal fixation to reestablish shoulder stability. Although intra-articular fractures may lead to arthrosis, recurrent instability is more common. Robinson CM, Kelly M, Wakefield AE: Redislocation of the shoulder during the first six weeks after a primary anterior dislocation: Risk factors and results of treatment. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2002;84:1552-1559.
Question 43
A 47-year-old woman has a right bunion that has been symptomatic despite modifications in shoe wear. She requests surgical correction. An AP radiograph is shown in Figure 37. Treatment should consist of
Explanation
Because the radiograph reveals an intermetatarsal angle of greater than 15 degrees and an incongruent metatarsophalangeal joint, the treatment of choice is a proximal first metatarsal osteotomy with distal soft-tissue realignment. A distal chevron procedure would not correct this degree of deformity. A Keller procedure is reserved for a less active elderly individual. Arthrodesis is appropriate for a patient with advanced arthritis of the metatarsophalangeal joint. The double osteotomy is reserved for the congruent metatarsophalangeal joint with hallux valgus. Coughlin MJ, Carlson RE: Treatment of hallux valgus with an increased distal metatarsal articular angle: Evaluation of double and triple first ray osteotomies. Foot Ankle Int 1999;20:762-770.
Question 44
Of the following clinical situations, which is most likely to lead to osteonecrosis associated with a slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE)?
Explanation
Osteonecrosis of the femoral head is the most devastating complication of SCFE. There is a 47% incidence of ischemic necrosis associated with an unstable SCFE. By definition, the patient with an unstable SCFE is unable to bear weight even with crutches. Osteonecrosis is most likely associated with the initial femoral head displacement rather than the result of either tamponade from hemarthrosis or from gentle repositioning prior to stabilization. Age, sex, and obesity are not risk factors for osteonecrosis. Loder RT, Richards BS, Shapiro PS, et al: Acute slipped capital femoral epiphysis: The importance of physeal stability. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1993;75:1134-1140.
Question 45
A 72-year-old woman who underwent right total hip arthroplasty 7 years ago now reports right hip pain and limb shortening. Studies for infection are negative. AP and lateral radiographs are shown in Figures 13a and 13b. What is the most appropriate management?
Explanation
Current literature supports the use of reinforcement cages for the reconstruction of failed, loosened acetabular components associated with major bone loss as seen in this patient. Although results of revision using the so-called jumbo cup with screws generally have been good, the amount of bone loss and medial wall penetration shown here and the likelihood of pelvic discontinuity precludes the use of that technique. With either technique, bone grafting of remaining defects is recommended. Sporer SM, O'Rourke M, Paprosky WG: The treatment of pelvic discontinuity during acetablular revision. J Arthroplasty 2005;20:79-84.
Question 46
A 32-year-old man sustained a fracture of his upper arm in a motor vehicle accident. Radiographs are shown in Figure 32. Because of other associated injuries, surgical stabilization is chosen. What technique will result in the least complications and the best outcome?
Explanation
Most humeral fractures will heal with nonsurgical functional brace management. When the initial pain has subsided in a coaptation splint, the patient is converted to a functional brace and allowed to use the arm for activities. The fracture should heal within 6 weeks to 12 weeks with acceptable results. Surgery is indicated if there is vascular injury, open injury, floating elbow, chest injury, bilateral humeral fractures, or if a reduction cannot be obtained or maintained. The surgical treatment of choice is either antegrade reamed locked intramedullary nailing or plate osteosynthesis. Plate osteosynthesis appears to offer better results with respect to union, function, and risk of complications. Schemitsch EH, Bhandari M: Fractures of the humeral shaft, in Browner BD: Skeletal Trauma, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2003, pp 1481-1511.
Question 47
A healthy 70-year-old man has a swollen knee after undergoing a knee replacement 10 years ago. Aspiration of the knee reveals cloudy, viscous synovial fluid. Laboratory studies show an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 10 mm/h and a C-reactive protein level of less than 0.5. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
Polyethylene wear debris can result in significant synovitis and subsequent cloudy appearing synovial fluid. Typically, laboratory studies show a WBC of less than 30,000/mm3 no left shift. Cytologic examination can reveal intra-articular polyethylene particles. Infected total knee arthroplasty is extremely uncommon in a healthy, immune-competent patient who has a normal preoperative erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein level.
Question 48
A 6-year-old boy with acute hematogenous osteomyelitis of the distal femur is being treated with intravenous antibiotics. The most expeditious method to determine the early success or failure of treatment is by serial evaluations of which of the following studies?
Explanation
Successful antibiotic treatment of osteomyelitis should lead to a rapid decline in the CRP. The CRP should decline after 48 to 72 hours of appropriate treatment. Imaging studies will take much longer to show resolution of bone infection. Unkila-Kallio L, Kallio MJ, Eskola J, et al: Serum C-reactive protein, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and white blood cell count in acute hematogenous osteomyelitis of children. Pediatrics 1994;93:59-62.
Question 49
The safest surgical approach to the insertion of the tibial posterior cruciate ligament uses the interval between which of the following muscles?
Explanation
Burks and Schaffer described an approach to the tibial insertion of the posterior cruciate ligament that uses the interval between the semimembranosus and the medial gastrocnemius. The medial gastrocnemius muscle is retracted laterally and protects the neurovascular bundle. This approach is used to repair an avulsion of the posterior cruciate ligament tibial attachment or for performing a posterior cruciate ligament tibial inlay reconstruction. Berg EE: Posterior cruciate ligament tibial inlay reconstruction. Arthroscopy 1995;8:95-99.
Question 50
Figures 12a through 12e show the radiograph, MRI scans, and biopsy specimens of a 17-year-old boy. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
The images show an epiphyseal lesion. The MRI scan shows extensive bone edema surrounding the lesion, consistent with chondroblastoma. Histology shows polygonal chondroblasts in a cobblestone-like pattern and areas of calcification consistent with chondroblastoma. Although some giant cells are seen, the age of the patient and the polygonal chondroblasts differentiate this lesion from giant cell tumor. Clear cell chondrosarcoma is an epiphyseal lesion that occurs in an older population, and the cells have clear cytoplasm. This lesion is not producing bone on imaging or histologic specimen, eliminating osteosarcoma. Tuberculous septic arthritis can be an epiphyseal lesion, but granulomas would be seen on histology. Menendez LR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Musculoskeletal Tumors. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 103-111.
Question 51
A right-handed 20-year-old college baseball pitcher has had a 6-month history of vague right elbow pain while pitching. Examination reveals full flexion of the elbow and a loss of only a few degrees of full extension. The elbow is stable, but palpation reveals tenderness over the olecranon. Plain radiographs are inconclusive. MRI and CT scans are shown in Figures 20a and 20b. Management should consist of
Explanation
The patient has a stress fracture of the olecranon that occurs with repetitive throwing motions. If the fracture is not displaced, the initial treatment of choice is rest and rehabilitation to maintain elbow motion, followed by aggressive strengthening at 6 to 8 weeks. A light throwing program generally can begin at 8 to 12 weeks. Complete recovery may require 3 to 6 months. If the fracture is displaced or if nonsurgical management fails, surgery is indicated for internal fixation of the stress fracture. Azar FM, Wilk KE: Nonoperative treatment of the elbow in throwers. Oper Tech Sports Med 1996;4:91-99.
Question 52
A 38-year-old man who is an avid runner reports a several month history of right hip pain. Based on the radiograph and cross-sectional CT scan shown in Figures 33a and 33b, what is the most likely diagnosis for the lesions seen on the femoral neck?
Explanation
Synovial herniation pits or Pitt's pits are tumor simulators and are incidentally identified on radiographs obtained for either pain or trauma. The main diagnostic pitfall with this lesion is mistakenly identifying it as an osteoid osteoma. Accurate diagnosis is achieved by knowledge of the location and the characteristic imaging appearance. These are common lesions in individuals with femoroacetabular impingement. Pitt MJ, Graham AR, Shipman JH, et al: Herniation pit of the femoral neck. Am J Roentgenol 1982;138:1115-1121.
Question 53
Which of the following ligaments are the primary static restraints to inferior translation of the arm when the shoulder is in 0 degrees of abduction and neutral rotation?
Explanation
Biomechanical ligament sectioning studies have implicated both the superior glenohumeral and coracohumeral ligaments as restraints to inferior translation when the shoulder is in 0 degrees of abduction and neutral rotation. Although there is controversy over the significance of each ligament, both are involved to some degree. The middle glenohumeral ligament is more important in the midranges of abduction, and the inferior ligament is more important at 90 degrees of abduction. The coracoacromial and coracoclavicular ligaments play no role in glenohumeral restraint. Warner JJ, Deng XH, Warren RF, et al: Static capsuloligamentous restraints to superior-inferior translation of the glenohumeral joint. Am J Sports Med 1992;20:675-685.
Question 54
Figures 40a and 40b show the pre- and postoperative radiographs of an 82-year-old woman with bilateral hip pain who has had staged total hip arthroplasties. To minimize potential injury to the sciatic nerve at the time of surgery, the surgeon should
Explanation
To improve hip biomechanics and secure more suitable bone for acetabular fixation, the true acetabulum is often resurfaced in patients who have developmental dysplasia of the hip, thus lowering the hip center and lengthening the leg. Acute lengthening of more than 3 cm will place excessive tension on the sciatic nerve and require a femoral shortening to avoid sciatic nerve injury. The other maneuvers will not relieve sciatic nerve tension because of limb lengthening. Koval KJ (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 7. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 430-431.
Question 55
Which of the following treatment regimens for thromboembolic prophylaxis meets the American College of Chest Physicians Guidelines for 10-day treatment after total hip arthroplasty and total knee arthroplasty?
Explanation
Only three thromboembolic treatment protocols have reached Grade 1A status for the American College of Chest Physicians Guidelines for thromboembolic prophylaxis after total hip arthroplasty and total knee arthroplasty. Grade 1A evidence shows a clear benefit/risk improvement with supportive data from randomized clinical trials, which are strongly applicable in most clinical circumstances. Warfarin is recommended but at an INR level of 2 to 3. Low-molecular-weight heparin and fondaparinox are also acceptable treatment options. Aspirin, adjusted dose unfractionated heparin, and elastic compressive stockings are not recommended as stand-alone options. Colwell C: Evidence based guidelines for prevention of venous thromboembolism: Symposia. Proceedings of the 2005 AAOS Annual Meeting. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2005, pp 15-18.
Question 56
A 2-year-old girl has had a swollen right knee for the past 7 weeks. There is no history of significant trauma, and she has not had a fever or been ill. Her parents report that she is stiff in the morning but otherwise does not report pain. A CBC count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate are normal. Treatment with naproxen at appropriate doses for the past 2 weeks has resulted in some improvement. Radiographs show only soft-tissue swelling. Examination reveals a healthy-appearing child with a warm and swollen right knee that is only slightly tender but lacks full extension by 20 degrees. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Explanation
Up to 30% of children with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (increasingly known now as juvenile idiopathic arthritis or JIA) already have potentially damaging uveitis at the time of diagnosis. This patient has typical oligoarticular JRA (JIA) and therefore is at significant risk for uveitis. MRI, radioisotope scanning, or an ACE level most likely would not provide additional useful diagnostic information because intra-articular derangement, osteomyelitis, or sarcoidosis are all unlikely. Arthrocentesis and triamcinolone hexacetonide joint injection might be indicated if continued use of nonsteroidal medication does not result in improvement, but should be held off for at least an additional 4 to 6 weeks to see if continued use of naproxen results in control of the arthritis. Wolf MD, Lichter PR, Ragsdale CG: Prognostic factors in the uveitis of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis. Ophthalmology 1987;94:1242. Cassidy JT, Petty RE: Textbook of Pediatric Rheumatology. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2001, p 220.
Question 57
A 55-year-old man reports increasing weakness in his arms that has progressed to his lower limbs, resulting in frequent tripping and falling. Examination reveals weakness in shoulder abduction and external and internal rotation bilaterally. Fasciculation is noted. He also has weakness in elbow flexion and extension bilaterally, and his grip strength is diminished. An electromyogram and nerve conduction velocity studies show decreased amplitude of compound motor action potential, slightly slowed motor conduction velocity, and denervation signs with decreased recruitment in all extremities. The sensory study is normal. Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
The major determinant of ALS (Lou Gehrig disease) is progressive loss of motor neurons. The loss usually begins in one area, is asymmetrical, and later becomes evident in other areas. The first signs of ALS may include either upper or lower motor neuron loss. Recognition of upper motor neuron involvement depends on clinical signs, but electromyography and nerve conduction velocity studies can help identify lower motor neuron involvement. Electrodiagnostic abnormalities in three or more areas are required to make a definitive diagnosis. The motor unit potentials (MUPs) changes in ALS include impaired MUPs recruitment, unstable MUPs, and abnormal MUPs size and configuration. A number of abnormal spontaneous discharges can occur with ALS, especially fibrillation potentials and fasciculation potentials. In ALS, the motor nerve conduction study will be abnormal, but a co-existing normal sensory study is definitive for this disease. de Carvalho M, Johnsen B, Fuglsang-Frederiksen A: Medical technology assessment: Electrodiagnosis in motor neuron diseases and amyotrophic lateral sclerosis. Neurophysiol Clin 2001;31:341-348. Daube JR: Electrodiagnostic studies in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis and other motor neuron disorders. Muscle Nerve 2000;23:1488-1502.
Question 58
A 20-year-old man has a symptomatic lesion of fibrous dysplasia in the femoral neck. Management should consist of
Explanation
Fibrous dysplasia in the femoral neck frequently warrants treatment because of the risk of pathologic fracture. Cortical strut grafts reduce the risk of local recurrence compared with cancellous bone grafting. Because of the consequences associated with fracture in this location, prophylactic fixation is recommended. Radiation therapy and chemotherapy are not used for this benign condition. Simon M, et al: Surgery for Bone and Soft Tissue Tumors. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Raven, 1998, pp 197.
Question 59
An otherwise healthy 57-year-old man has persistent, severe hip pain after undergoing total hip arthroplasty 3 months ago. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Explanation
Any patient who is severely symptomatic this quickly after surgery must be evaluated for infection. Loosening is also a possible cause, but infection must be ruled-out. Bone scans are not helpful at this early postoperative stage. Normal laboratory values argue strongly against infection, but when abnormal, need to be supplemented with a hip aspiration. Aspiration remains the most selective and sensitive measure, especially when linked to a WBC count of the synovial tissues in the joint. There is no indication for an antiobiotic trial because it may make future culture sensitivity more difficult. Drancourt M, Stein A, Argenson JN, et al: Oral rifampin plus ofloxacin for treatment of staphylococcus-infected orthopedic implants. Antimicrob Agents Chemother 1993;37:1214-1218. Duncan CP, Beauchamp C: A temporary antibiotic-loaded joint replacement system for the management of complex infections involving the hip. Orthop Clin North Am 1993; 24: 751-759.
Question 60
Which of the following is an indication for surgical management of a Weber type B distal fibular fracture?
Explanation
A widened medial clear space indicates instability caused by an associated tear of the deltoid ligament; therefore, nonsurgical management is not warranted. Weber type B distal fibular fractures without a deltoid tear have a medial clear space of < 4 mm, even under stress, and may be successfully treated nonsurgically. The presence of medial hindfoot ecchymosis and medial ankle tenderness is not fully indicative of medial soft-tissue instability; however, these findings may indicate a deltoid injury and should raise suspicion of an unstable fracture injury pattern. Stress testing is necessary to demonstrate the presence or absence of instability. A small amount of comminution is also cause for increased suspicion of an unstable pattern; however, it is not a direct contraindication when considering nonsurgical management. Two millimeters of fibular displacement without lateral shift of the talus is an acceptable position when considering nonsurgical management of Weber type B distal fibular fractures. Michelson JD, Magid D, Ney DR, et al, Examination of the pathologic anatomy of ankle fractures. J Trauma 1992;32:65-70.
Question 61
A 62-year-old man has cervical myelopathy with no evidence of cervical radiculopathy. MRI reveals stenosis at C4-5 and C5-6 with severe cord compression. Examination will most likely reveal which of the following findings?
Explanation
Cervical myelopathy involves compression of the spinal cord and presents as an upper motor neuron disorder. Patients commonly have extremity spasticity and problems with ambulation and balance. Hoffman's sign is often present and is elicited by suddenly extending the distal interphalangeal joint of the middle finger; reflexive finger flexion represents a positive finding. The extremities are usually hyperreflexic with myelopathy. With cervical radiculopathy (lower motor neuron disorder), reflexes are hyporeflexic, and patients report pain along a dermatomal distribution. A hyperactive jaw jerk reflex indicates pathology above the foramen magnum or in some cases, systemic disease. Flaccid paraparesis suggests a lower motor neuron problem. Sachs BL: Differential diagnosis of neck pain, arm pain and myelopathy, in Clark CR (ed): The Cervical Spine, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Raven, 1998, pp 741-742.
Question 62
A 21-year-old man with neurofibromatosis and multiple cutaneous neurofibromas has a rapidly enlarging painless mass on his buttock. Examination reveals a nontender, well-defined 6- x 6-cm soft-tissue mass that is deep to the fascia. The best course of action should be to order
Explanation
Patients with neurofibromatosis are at risk for development of soft-tissue sarcomas (most commonly malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors). Clinical indications of development of a neurofibrosarcoma include a rapidly enlarging soft-tissue mass; therefore, this patient should be considered to have a neurofibrosarcoma until proven otherwise. MRI is superior to CT in characterizing the anatomic location of soft-tissue masses and the signal characteristics of the lesion. Areas of necrosis within the tumor may be apparent on MRI that cannot be appreciated on CT, suggesting a malignant tumor. Local imaging studies of suspected malignant tumors should be performed prior to needle or open biopsy so that the biopsy site can be excised at the time of definitive resection. Additionally, postbiopsy changes may lead to MRI artifacts that alter the interpretation of the MRI. Demas BE, Heelan RT, Lane J, Marcove R, Hajdu S, Brennan MF: Soft-tissue sarcomas of the extremities: Comparison of MR and CT in determining the extent of disease. Am J Roentgenol 1988;150:615-620.
Question 63
Figure 39 shows the AP radiograph of a 62-year-old man with degenerative osteoarthritis secondary to trauma. History reveals that he underwent total elbow arthroplasty 3 years ago. He continues to report instability and constant pain. A complete work-up, including aspiration and cultures, is negative. Treatment should consist of removal of the components and
Explanation
An unconstrained prosthesis dislocation is a disconcerting problem that is not easily resolved; however, revision to a semiconstrained prosthesis would best achieve both pain relief and stability. Removal of the components and distraction arthroplasty or conversion to a resection arthroplasty are options, but the results would be unpredictable with regards to pain relief, postoperative motion, or elbow stability. Arthrodesis is poorly tolerated. With revision to another unconstrained prosthesis, there is the risk of continued redislocation because of chronic ligamentous insufficiency. Linscheid RL: Resurfacing elbow replacement arthroplasty: Rationale, technique and results, in Morrey BF (ed): The Elbow and Its Disorders, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2000, pp 602-610.
Question 64
What is the incidence and significance of anterior cruciate ligament laxity following tibial eminence fractures in skeletally immature individuals?
Explanation
Measurable anterior cruciate ligament laxity, while frequently seen after tibial eminence fractures, usually does not cause symptoms. It is found even in patients whose fractures have been anatomically reduced and fixed, leading to speculation that it is due to stretching of the ligament at the time of injury. Willis R, Blokker C, Stall TM, et al: Long-term follow-up of anterior eminence fractures. J Pediatr Orthop 1993;13:361-364.
Question 65
Figure 48 shows an MRI scan of the knee. The arrow is pointing to what structure?
Explanation
The arrow points to the biceps femoris, which is inserted onto the fibula. The biceps femoris lies at the posterolateral aspect of the thigh. The semimembranosus and the semitendinous lie at the posterior medial aspect of the thigh. Gray H: Anatomy of the Human Body. Philadelphia, PA, Lea and Febiger, 1918, 2000.
Question 66
Figure 24 shows the radiograph of a 10-year-old boy who sustained a valgus injury to the knee. Examination reveals grade III medial laxity. Initial management should consist of
Explanation
Based on the mechanism of injury and findings of medial laxity, the most likely diagnosis is injury to either the growth plate or the medial collateral ligament. With the open physeal plate, this area of injury is presumed present until proven otherwise; therefore, stress radiographs should be obtained before implementing any treatment or ordering more extensive and expensive tests. DeLee JC: Ligamentous injury of the knee, in Stanitski CL, DeLee JC, Drez D Jr (eds): Pediatric and Adolescent Sports Medicine. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1994, vol 3, pp 406-432. Clanton TO, DeLee JC, Sanders B, Neidre A: Knee ligament injuries in children. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1979;61:1195-1201.
Question 67
What is the primary limiting membrane and mechanical support for the periphery of the physis?
Explanation
The perichondrial fibrous ring of La Croix acts as a limiting membrane that provides mechanical support for the bone-cartilage junction of the growth plate. It is continuous with the ossification groove of Ranvier, which contributes chondrocytes for the increase in width of the growth plate. The zone of provisional calcification lies at the bottom of the hypertrophic zone and is the site of initial calcification of the matrix. It is quite weak and usually is the cleavage plane for fractures; therefore, it does not qualify as mechanical support. The last intact transverse septum separates the zone of provisional calcification from the primary spongiosa and provides no real support to the physis. The primary spongiosa is the part of the metaphysis nearest the physis. Netter FH: Growth plate, in Woodburne RT, Crelin ES, Kaplan FS, Dingle RV (eds): The Ciba Collection of Medical Illustrations. Summit, NJ, Ciba-Geigy Corporation, 1987, vol 8, pp 166-167.
Question 68
Which of the following clinical scenarios represents an appropriate indication for convex hemiepiphysiodesis/hemiarthrodesis in the treatment of a child with a congenital spinal deformity?
Explanation
Convex hemiarthrodesis and hemiepiphysiodesis are procedures designed to gradually reduce curve magnitude in congenital scoliosis because of hemivertebrae. They are used to surgically create an anterior and posterior bar to arrest growth on the convexity of the existing deformity. Success of the technique is predicated on continued growth on the concave side of the deformity. Prerequisites for this procedure include curves of limited length (less than or equal to five vertebrae), curves of reasonable magnitude (less than 70 degrees), absence of kyphosis, concave growth potential, and appropriate age (younger than age 5 years).
Question 69
The MRI findings shown in Figure 51 would most likely create which of the following signs and symptoms?
Explanation
The MRI scan shows a far lateral disk herniation. With the L4-5 disk, a far lateral herniation abuts the left L4 nerve root. The findings would be consistent with those of a left L4 radiculopathy and would include pain or a sensory deficit on the anteromedial aspect of the knee, diminished patellar tendon reflex, and quadriceps weakness, perhaps making it difficult to walk up and down stairs. Fardin DF, Garfin SR (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Spine 2. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, p 329.
Question 70
A 21-year-old patient has had pain and a marked decrease in active and passive shoulder motion after having had a seizure 2 months ago as the result of alcohol abuse. Current AP and axillary radiographs and a CT scan are shown in Figures 26a through 26c. Management should consist of
Explanation
Open reduction and subscapularis and lesser tuberosity transfer into the defect is the treatment of choice in young individuals who have defects that involve between 20% to 45% of the head. Disimpaction and bone grafting is an option in injuries that are less than 3 weeks old. Closed reduction 2 to 3 months after injury usually is unsuccessful and increases the risk of fracture or neurovascular injury. Total shoulder arthroplasty is reserved for defects of greater than 50% or with associated glenoid surface damage. Hemiarthroplasty should be avoided in young individuals unless 50% or more of the head is involved. Gerber C: Chronic locked anterior and posterior dislocations, in Warner JJ, Iannotti JP, Gerber C (eds): Complex and Revision Problems in Shoulder Surgery. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1997, pp 99-113.
Question 71
The rate of complications after in situ pinning of a chronic slipped capital femoral epiphysis is highest with placement of the screw in what quadrant of the femoral head?
Explanation
The rate of complications increases as the pin moves farther from the ideal position, which is the center of the head. This is the strongest argument for the use of a single pin. The highest rate of complications, primarily osteonecrosis and pin penetration, is associated with pin placement in the anterior superior quadrant. Raney EM, Ogden JA: Slipped capital femoral epiphysis. Current Ortho 1995;9:111-116.
Question 72
A 6-year-old child sustained a closed nondisplaced proximal tibial metaphyseal fracture 1 year ago. She was treated with a long leg cast with a varus mold, and the fracture healed uneventfully. She now has a 15-degree valgus deformity. What is the next step in management?
Explanation
The tibia has grown into valgus secondary to the proximal fracture. This occurs in about one half of these injuries, and maximal deformity occurs at 18 months postinjury. The deformity gradually improves over several years, with minimal residual deformity. Therefore, treatment at this age is unnecessary as there is a high rate of recurrence and complications regardless of technique. The valgus deformity is not a result of physeal injury or growth arrest. Medial proximal tibial hemiepiphysiodesis is an excellent method of correcting the residual deformity but is best reserved until close to the end of growth. Brougham DI, Nicol RO: Valgus deformity after proximal tibial fractures in children. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1987;69:482. McCarthy JJ, Kim DH, Eilert RE: Posttraumatic genu valgum: Operative versus nonoperative treatment. J Pediatr Orthop 1998;18:518-521.
Question 73
An otherwise healthy 78-year-old woman has low back and buttock pain. Rectal examination reveals a large sacral mass. Figures 7a and 7b show a CT scan and a sagittal MRI scan of the lumbosacral spine. A biopsy specimen is shown in Figure 7c. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
A chordoma is a malignant neoplasm originating from remnants of the notochord. It is usually localized to the midline with 50% at the sacrococcygeal area, 35% at the skull base, and 15% at the mobile portion of the spine. Large vacuolated cells (physaliferous cells) are a characteristic of the tumor. Mindell ER: Chordoma. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1981;63:501-505.
Question 74
A 27-year-old woman with Down syndrome has a severe bunion with pain and deformity in the left forefoot. Nonsurgical management has failed to provide relief. She does not use any assistive ambulatory devices. A radiograph is shown in Figure 21. Treatment should now consist of
Explanation
The patient requires an arthrodesis of the first metatarsophalangeal joint because of the abnormal neuromuscular forces. The more traditional bunionectomies such as a distal chevron bunionectomy, a proximal first metatarsal osteotomy, and a double osteotomy have a high failure rate because of the underlying Down syndrome. The Keller procedure is indicated for older, sedentary individuals and has little role in the management of a neuromuscular bunion. Coughlin MJ, Abdo RV: Arthodesis of the first metatarsophalangeal joint with Vitallium plate fixation. Foot Ankle Int 1994;15:18-28.
Question 75
A sagittal T1-weighted MRI scan of the knee joint is shown in Figure 23. What structure is identified by the arrow?
Explanation
On T1-weighted images, the posterior cruciate ligament is a low-signal (black) structure that courses from the posterior aspect of the tibia to the medial femoral condyle. The posterior cruciate ligament can appear as arcuate, U-shaped, or kinked. The other structures have similar signal but different anatomic locations. Gross ML, Grover JS, Bassett LW, Seeger LL, Finerman GA: Magnetic resonance imaging of the posterior cruciate ligament: Clinical use to improve diagnostic accuracy. Am J Sports Med 1992;20:732-737.
Question 76
A 35-year-old man who snowboards sustained the injury shown in Figures 4a through 4c. What is the mechanism of injury?
Explanation
Fractures of the lateral process of the talus in snowboarders have been thought to result from pure dorsiflexion, inversion, and axial loading. In a cadaveric study, 10 cadavers were placed in fixed dorsiflexion and inversion with an axial load. This was combined with or without external rotation. No fractures occurred after axial loading in the dorsiflexed-inverted position. Fractures of the lateral process of the talus occurred in 75% of the specimens with the addition of external rotation. Boon AJ, Smith J, Zobitz ME, et al: Snowboarder's talus fracture: Mechanism of injury. Am J Sports Med 2001;29:333-338.
Question 77
A newborn with bilateral talipes equinovarus undergoes serial manipulation and casting. What is the primary goal of manipulation?
Explanation
Manipulative treatment and casting of talipes equinovarus has become popular because of disappointing surgical results and enthusiasm for the Ponseti method of manipulation. In this technique, the primary goal is to rotate the foot laterally around a talus that is held fixed by the manipulating surgeon's hands. While the navicular may be rotated anterolaterally with this technique, the primary focus is on the calcaneus. The calcaneus is rotated laterally and superiorly, not translated. Some dorsiflexion of the calcaneus can be obtained by manipulation, but the primary focus is on the rotational relationship of the talus and calcaneus, not the degree of calcaneal dorsiflexion. Ponseti IV: Common errors in the treatment of congenital clubfoot. Int Orthop 1997;21:137-141.
Question 78
A 12-year-old girl has had pain in her right knee for 1 month that started as activity-related and progressed to night pain. Radiographs are shown in Figures 16a and 16b, and a biopsy specimen is shown in Figure 16c. What is the recommended treatment?
Explanation
This is a classic appearance for an osteosarcoma. The radiographs reveal a mixed osteolytic and osteoblastic lesion in a skeletally immature patient in the distal right femoral metaphysis. The pain pattern with progressive symptoms leading to the presence of night pain is also typical for this condition. The biopsy specimen reveals pleomorphic cells and the presence of osteoid. The current standard of care in the treatment of osteosarcoma is neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by surgical resection or amputation followed by additional postoperative chemotherapy. Osteosarcoma is not radiosensitive. Wold LE, Adler CP, Sim FH, et al: Atlas of Orthopedic Pathology, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2003, p 179.
Question 79
Figures 10a and 10b show the radiographs of an athletic 9-year-old boy who has activity-related anterior knee pain with intact active knee extension. Examination reveals tenderness to palpation over the inferior pole of the patella. There is no effusion or ligamentous instability. Initial management should consist of
Explanation
The radiographs show fragmentation of the inferior pole of the patella. This finding, along with the clinical presentation, is most consistent with Sindig-Larsen-Johansson disease. This is an overuse syndrome commonly seen in boys ages 9 to 11 years. The differential diagnosis includes bipartite patella and patellar sleeve fracture. Like most overuse syndromes, Sindig-Larsen-Johansson disease responds to activity modification and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. While symptoms usually resolve with short periods of activity restriction, radiographic findings may persist. Stanitski CL: Anterior knee pain syndromes in the adolescent. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1993;75:1407-1416.
Question 80
A 45-year-old man seen in the emergency department reports a 1-week history of worsening low back pain and a progressive neurologic deficit in the S1 distribution. Examination reveals 2/5 strength in the gastrocnemius. Laboratory studies show a WBC count of 13,500/mm3 and an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 74 mm/h. Radiographs of the lumbosacral spine show narrowing of the L5-S1 disk space, with irregularity of the end plates. A sagittal T2-weighted MRI scan is shown in Figure 8. Definitive management should consist of
Explanation
The history, physical examination, laboratory, and radiographic findings are most consistent with an infectious process. When there are signs of neurologic compromise, surgery is generally recommended. This is an anterior process, and anterior column debridement is necessary, followed by stabilization. Anterior or posterior stabilization is a reasonable option, but posterior decompression alone is unlikely to adequately reverse the process and may lead to segmental kyphosis. Frymoyer JW, Wiesel SW (eds): The Adult and Pediatric Spine, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Williams and Wilkins, 2003, pp 165-189.
Question 81
Figures 32a and 32b show the radiographs of a 13-year-old boy who sustained a fracture while playing football 1 week ago. Management at the time of injury included application of a cast and the use of crutches. A follow-up office visit reveals a normal neurologic examination, and the patient reports no discomfort with the cast and crutches. Management should now include
Explanation
Stable fractures and minimally displaced fractures in children can and should be treated by closed methods. Because loss of reduction is common, alignment of tibia fractures must be monitored closely for the first 3 weeks after cast application. This is most easily handled in a cooperative patient by cast wedging. Some children require application of a second cast under general anesthesia 2 to 3 weeks after injury, particularly if the subsidence of swelling has caused the cast to loosen. Surgical indications include the presence of soft-tissue injuries, unstable fracture patterns, fractures associated with compartment syndrome, and the child with multiple injuries. Surgical options in children include percutaneous pins, external fixation, plates and screws, and intramedullary nails. Heinrich SD: Fractures of the shaft of the tibia and fibula, in Rockwood CA, Wilkins KE, Beaty JH (eds): Fractures in Children, ed 4. Philadelphia, Pa, Lippincott-Raven, 1996, pp 1340-1346.
Question 82
What muscle is most often encountered during surgical approaches to C5-6?
Explanation
The omohyoid muscle crosses the surgical field from inferior lateral to anterior superior traveling from the scapula to the hyoid bone and may need to be transected. The posterior digastric crosses the field as well but higher near C3-4. The other muscles run longitudinally. Chang U, Lee MC, Kim DH: Anterior approach to the midcervical spine, in Kim DH, Henn JS, Vaccaro AR, et al (eds): Surgical Anatomy and Techniques to the Spine. Philadelphia, PA, Saunders Elsevier, 2006, pp 45-56.
Question 83
A 14-year-old boy reports pain in the distal thigh. He denies any history of trauma. Examination reveals tenderness and swelling of the distal thigh without effusion. A radiograph and CT scan are shown in Figures 10a and 10b. A biopsy specimen is shown in Figure 10c. Management should consist of
Explanation
Based on these findings, the patient has an aneurysmal bone cyst. Frequently, fluid-fluid levels can be detected on MRI or CT images. The histologic results show a lesion that consists of cavernous spaces filled with blood. The lining of the cavity contains spindle cells, multinucleated giant cells, and reactive bone. Curettage and bone grafting is the preferred treatment method. Without treatment, these lesions can become quite large and destructive. Radiation therapy is not recommended for resectable lesions. Chemotherapy is not required for these benign lesions. Simon MA, Springfield DS, et al: Common Benign Bone Tumors: Surgery for Bone and Soft Tissue Tumors. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Raven, 1998, pp 194-200.
Question 84
A 52-year-old man has had back pain radiating to the left leg for the past 5 weeks. A radiograph, MRI scans, and biopsy specimens are shown in Figures 23a through 23f. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
The histology shows cells with bubbly, abundant clear cytoplasm typical of physaliphorous cells; therefore, the most likely diagnosis is chordoma. These tumors arise from notocord rests in the upper and lower spine.
Question 85
What is the primary mechanism of injury for the fracture shown in Figures 33a and 33b?
Explanation
The radiographs show a triplane fracture of the ankle. In adolescence, closure of the distal tibial physis starts peripherally at the anteromedial aspect of the medial malleolus and extends posteriorly and laterally. The anterolateral quadrant of the physis is the last to close, making this region the most susceptible to separation. When the foot is twisted into external rotation, the anterolateral portion of the epiphysis is avulsed by the pull of the anterior tibiofibular ligament. When this fragment alone is avulsed, the result is a juvenile Tillaux fracture. When the fracture extends to involve the remainder of the physis and posterior metaphysis, as in this patient, the result is a triplane fracture. Richards BS (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Pediatrics. Rosemont, Ill, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1996, pp 267-272. Dias LS, Giegerich CR: Fractures of the distal tibial epiphysis in adolescence. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1983;65:438-444.
Question 86
Creatine is currently being used by athletes as a dietary supplement in an attempt to enhance performance. What is the physiologic basis for its use?
Explanation
Creatine is currently used as a nutritional supplement in an attempt to enhance athletic performance. The physiologic basis for its use is based on its conversion by CK to PCr, which acts as an energy reservoir in muscle cells for the production of ATP. A number of studies that examined the effect of creatine supplementation on performance concluded that while creatine does not increase peak force production, it can increase the amount of work done in the first few anaerobic short duration, maximal effort trials. The mechanism for this enhancement of work is unknown, but it is most likely secondary to the increase in the available PCr pool. Greenhaff PL: Creatine and its application as an ergogenic aid. Int J Sport Nutr 1995;5:S100-S110. Greenhaff PL, Casey A, Short AH, Harris R, Soderlund K, Hultman E: Influence of oral creatine supplementation on muscle torque during repeated bouts of maximal voluntary exercise in man. Clin Sci 1993;84:565-571. Trump ME, Heigenhauser GJ, Putman CT, Spriet LL: Importance of muscle phosphocreatine during intermittent maximal cycling. J Appl Physiol 1996;80:1574-1580.
Question 87
A 45-year-old man is seen in the emergency department after returning from a 2-hour airplane flight. He is reporting severe pain in his right leg but has no trouble moving his ankle, leg, or knee. Venous doppler testing reveals no evidence of deep venous thrombosis. He is placed on IV cephazolin but continues to worsen. On the third day in the hospital he has increased pain, some respiratory distress, and trouble maintaining his blood pressure. His leg takes on the appearance seen in Figure 15. An urgent MRI scan shows thickening of the subcutaneous tissues and superficial swelling in the leg but no evidence of an abscess. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Explanation
The patient has necrotizing fasciitis, a rare and sometimes fatal disease that has many different etiologies. Signs that this is not a normal infection are the worsening clinical symptoms despite IV antibiotics and the systemic symptoms. He needs urgent surgical care before he becomes completely septic and unstable. He needs very aggressive debridement of his tissues. Hyperbaric oxygen and immunoglobulins are only anecdotally helpful, and would only be used after surgery. Fontes RA, Ogilvie CM, Miclau T: Necrotizing soft-tissue infections. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2000;8:151-158.
Question 88
Figures 33a and 33b show the radiographs of a 10-year-old girl who reports a 4-month history of medial foot pain after she was kicked while playing soccer. The pain is worse with activity and partially relieved by rest. Examination reveals tenderness directly over a prominent navicular tuberosity. Management should consist of
Explanation
An accessory tarsal navicular is located at the medial tuberosity of the navicular bone. Nearly all children and adolescents who have a symptomatic accessory tarsal navicular bone become asymptomatic when they reach skeletal maturity. Initial management should include activity restrictions, shoe modification to avoid pressure over the prominent navicular, and non-narcotic analgesics. Although anecdotal, the use of arch supports may be helpful. When pain is refractory to these methods, a short period of cast immobilization may be useful. Surgery should be reserved for patients who have disabling symptoms despite a prolonged period of nonsurgical management. When surgery is indicated, simple excision of the accessory navicular is recommended. Sella EJ, Lawson JP, Ogden JA: The accessory navicular synchondrosis. Clin Orthop 1986;209:280-285.
Question 89
Which of the following methods of meniscal repair has the highest load to failure strength?
Explanation
Numerous experimental studies have shown that vertical suture techniques are superior to all of the other noted methods. In fact, vertical sutures have been shown to be twice as strong as several of these techniques. DeHaven KE: Meniscus repair. Am J Sports Med 1999;27:242-250. Dervin GF, Downing KJ, Keene GC, McBride DG: Failure strengths of suture versus biodegradable arrow for meniscal repair: An in vitro study. Arthroscopy 1997;13:296-300.
Question 90
Patients in compensated shock (normal vital signs) are thought to be at risk for which of the following?
Explanation
Patients who are in compensated shock have normal vital signs but still have hypoperfusion of organ beds such as the splanchnic circulation due to preferential perfusion of the heart and brain. The response to this continued hypoperfusion may be the development of a systemic inflammatory response that may lead to multiple organ failure. The patients are thought to be at risk for a "primed" immune system due to the ongoing stimulation of the immune system and may have an exaggerated response to a second stimulus such as surgery or infection. Other markers of resuscitation should be used besides vital signs to determine when resuscitation has been completed. The use of temporizing fixation has been shown to lower systemic complication rates, and the infection and union rate after staged fixation is not altered. Schulman AM, Claridge JA, Carr G, et al: Predictors of patients who will develop prolonged occult hypoperfusion following blunt trauma. J Trauma 2004;57:795-800.
Question 91
Fixed hyperextension of the metatarsophalangeal joint is associated with
Explanation
Claw toe and hammer toe deformities are associated with dorsal subluxation of the interossei, which can no longer serve to flex the metatarsophalangeal joint. The extensor digitorum longus then loses its tenodesing effect on the proximal interphalangeal and distal interphalangeal joints and works unopposed to extend the metatarsophalangeal joint and the proximal phalanx. Without the antagonistic action of the extensor digitorum longus, the extrinsic flexors become unopposed flexors of the proximal and distal interphalangeal joints. Marks RM: Anatomy and pathophysiology of lesser toe deformities. Foot Ankle Clin 1998;3:199-213.
Question 92
A 21-year-old soccer player reports pain and is unable to straighten his knee following an acute injury during a game. He is unable to continue to play. An MRI scan is shown in Figure 3. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Explanation
The patient has a locked knee that cannot be fully extended. This is most likely the result of the mechanical block of a bucket-handle tear that has flipped into the notch. Also, the pain may be so severe that the muscle spasm prevents the knee from straightening out. When the patient is anesthetized, the muscle spasm relaxes and the meniscus can be reduced out of the notch. Arthroscopy is the treatment of choice. A meniscal repair is usually possible in large bucket-handle tears because the meniscus is torn in the red-red zone where most of the vascular supply is located. If the handle portion is badly frayed or damaged, a partial meniscectomy should be performed. The classic finding on MRI is a "double PCL sign." This is due to the flipped portion of the meniscus in the notch. Critchley IJ, Bracey DJ: The acutely locked knee: Is manipulation worthwhile? Injury 1985;16:281-283.
Question 93
A 63-year-old woman reports giving way of the knee and pain after undergoing primary total knee arthroplasty (TKA) 1 year ago. Examination reveals that the knee is stable in full extension but has gross anteroposterior instability at 90 degrees of flexion. The patient can fully extend her knee with normal quadriceps strength. Studies for infection are negative. AP and lateral radiographs are shown in Figures 12a and 12b, respectively. What is the appropriate management?
Explanation
The radiographs show posterior flexion instability that is the result of a flexion-extension gap imbalance and posterior cruciate ligament incompetence after a posterior cruciate ligament-retaining TKA. The femur is anteriorly displaced on the tibia, with lift-off of the femoral component from the tibial polyethylene. Revision to a larger femoral component will address the larger flexion gap relative to the extension gap, and a posterior stabilized implant will address the posterior cruciate ligament insufficiency. Pagnano and associates, reporting on a series of painful TKAs previously diagnosed as pain of unknown etiology, showed that the pain was secondary to flexion instability. Pain relief was achieved by revision to a posterior stabilized implant. Pagnano MW, Hanssen AD, Lewallen DG, et al: Flexion instability after primary posterior cruciate retaining total knee arthroplasty. Clin Orthop 1998;356:39-46. Fehring TK, Valadie AL: Knee instability after total knee arthroplasty. Clin Orthop 1994;299:157-162.
Question 94
The need for postoperative allogeneic blood transfusions after total hip arthroplasty has been shown to be reduced when using
Explanation
In a prospective study, 216 patients were randomized into three groups consisting of low-dose preoperative erythropoietin, high-dose preoperative erythropoietin, and placebo control. All patients were treated for 4 weeks prior to total hip arthroplasty. Both the low- and high-dose erythropoietin groups had a significantly lower rate of blood transfusions (p < 0.001) after surgery. Waddell JP: Evidence-based orthopedics. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2001;83:788.
Question 95
Which of the following is considered an advantage of metal femoral heads compared with ceramic heads?
Explanation
Ceramic-on-ceramic bearing surfaces have superior tribological properties and show lower linear wear than metal-on-metal implants. However, because of their lower strength and vulnerability to fracture, design considerations constrain the neck-length options available to ensure optimal taper fit.
Question 96
A 52-year-old man has had right shoulder pain in the deltoid region that increases at night for the past 2 months. He denies any history of trauma. Examination reveals mild tenderness over the greater tuberosity, and the Neer and Hawkins impingement signs are positive. AP and outlet lateral radiographs are shown in Figures 24a and 24b. Initial management should consist of
Explanation
The patient has the findings of classic subacromial impingement. Initial management should consist of stretching exercises directed at the posterior capsule and a program of rotator cuff and deltoid strengthening exercises performed below the horizontal in a "safe" plane. The judicious use of subacromial cortisone injections (one or two) may be helpful. Anterior acromioplasty is reserved for patients who have failed to respond to nonsurgical management. Morrison DS, Frogameni AD, Woodworth P: Non-operative treatment of subacromial impingement syndrome. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1997;79:732-737. Neer CS: Impingement lesions. Clin Orthop 1983;173:70-77.
Question 97
Contraindications to cervical laminectomy as a treatment for cervical spondylotic myelopathy include which of the following findings?
Explanation
Cervical laminectomy is an accepted treatment for multilevel cervical spondylotic myelopathy. When the compression is posterior, laminectomy addresses it directly; when the compression is anterior, it is addressed indirectly (the spinal cord floats posteriorly away from the anterior compression). Preexisting kyphosis is a contraindication to laminectomy because the cord is unable to float posteriorly away from the anterior compression, and the risk for increasing kyphosis is significant. Kyphosis after laminectomy is more likely to develop in younger patients who have fewer degenerative changes to stabilize the spine. Malone DG, Benzyl EC: Laminotomy and laminectomy for spinal stenosis causing radiculopathy or myelopathy, in Clark CR (ed.): The Cervical Spine, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Raven, 1998, pp 817-825.
Question 98
What is the most common bone tumor in the hand?
Explanation
The most common bone tumor in the hand is an enchondroma. Forty-two percent of these lesions occur in the small tubular bones. They frequently present with a fracture in these locations. Fractures are usually treated nonsurgically. Indications for surgery include patients with symptomatic lesions or those who are considered high risk for recurrent fracture. The histologic appearance of an enchondroma in the hand is more cellular than enchondromas found in the long bones. Menendez LR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Musculoskeletal Tumors. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, p 103.
Question 99
Medial dislocation of the long head of the biceps tendon in the shoulder is most commonly caused by a
Explanation
Medial dislocation of the biceps tendon in the shoulder is commonly associated with subscapularis tendon tears. Although type II SLAP tears can result in bicipital instability, type I SLAP lesions do not. Congenitally shallow grooves and tears of the transverse ligaments usually do not lead to dislocation of the biceps tendon. Supraspinatus tendon tears are associated with long head of the biceps tendon ruptures but do not cause biceps tendon dislocations. Werner A, Mueller T, Boehm D, et al: The stabilizing sling for the long head of the biceps tendon in the rotator cuff interval: A histoanatomic study. Am J Sports Med 2000;28:28-31.
Question 100
A 47-year-old male tennis player has pain in his nondominant shoulder that has failed to respond to 4 months of nonsurgical management. Examination reveals acromial tenderness and pain at the supraspinatus tendon insertion. He has a positive impingement sign, pain on forward elevation, and minimal cuff weakness. The MRI scans are shown in Figures 30a and 30b. To completely resolve his symptoms, treatment should consist of
Explanation
The MRI scans show a mesoacromion with tendonopathy of the supraspinatus. The history and physical findings indicate that the patient has a symptomatic os acromiale. Simple excision of the unstable os acromiale has not yielded consistently good results. Meticulous internal fixation using tension banding with cannulated screws and autologous bone grafting has shown good results for this problem. Hutchinson MR, Veenstra MA: Arthroscopic decompression of shoulder impingement secondary to os acromiale. Arthroscopy 1993;9:28-32.