Comprehensive 100-Question Exam
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Question 1
When conducted at near physiologic strain rates, tensile studies of the inferior glenohumeral ligament (IGHL) have shown that the
Explanation
Tensile testing of the inferior glenohumeral ligament at near physiologic strain rates has shown that the anterior band of the IGHL has the greatest stiffness of the three ligament regions and the glenoid insertion site shows greater strain than the ligament midsubstance. Bigliani LU, Pollock RG, Soslowsky LJ, Flatow EL, Pawluk RJ, Mow VC: Tensile properties of the inferior glenohumeral ligament. J Orthop Res 1992;10:187-197.
Question 2
A 50-year-old laborer sustained an isolated closed injury to his heel after falling 11 feet off a wall. A radiograph and a CT scan are shown in Figures 4a and 4b. To minimize the patient's temporary disability and allow him to return to work most rapidly, management should consist of
Explanation
With a severe articular injury to the calcaneus, the ability to achieve satisfactory results with open reduction and internal fixation diminishes. An arthrodesis is often needed to allow a person who works as a laborer to return to work. Recent literature suggests that this can be successfully performed primarily, improving the odds of an earlier return to the labor force at 1 year. Huefner T, Thermann H, Geerling J, Pape HC, Pohlemann T: Primary subtalar arthrodesis of calcaneal fractures. Foot Ankle Int 2001;22:9-14. Coughlin MJ: Calcaneal fractures in the industrial patient. Foot Ankle Int 2000;21:896-905.
Question 3
Posterior lumbar spine arthrodesis may be associated with adjacent segment degeneration cephalad or caudad to the fusion segment. Which of the following is the predicted rate of symptomatic degeneration at an adjacent segment warranting either decompression and/or arthrodesis at mid-range follow-up (5-10 years) after lumbar fusion?
Explanation
The rate of symptomatic degeneration at an adjacent segment warranting either decompression or arthrodesis was predicted to be 16.5% at 5 years and 36.1% at 10 years based on a Kaplan-Meier analysis.
Question 4
What is the primary indication for performing an arthroscopic synovectomy on a patient with hemophilia that is the result of factor VIII deficiency?
Explanation
Improved medical management has changed musculoskeletal outcomes for individuals with hemophilia. Patients with severe hemophilia receiving prophylactic administration of factor VIII may never develop a target joint that requires further orthopaedic intervention. Patients with moderate hemophilia and those patients with severe hemophilia not receiving prophylactic treatment will still develop joints that have recurrent hemarthroses. When recurrent hemarthrosis continues despite optimal medical management, synovectomy is indicated. While synovectomy is predictable in its ability to decrease joint bleeding, it does not necessarily improve joint range of motion or prevent the development of hemophilic arthropathy over time. It will not reverse articular damage to the joint once it has developed. Dunn AL, Busch MT, Wyly JB; et al: Arthroscopic synovectomy for hemophilic joint disease in a pediatric population. J Pediatr Orthop 2004;24:414-426.
Question 5
In the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)-deficient knee, which of the following variables has the highest correlation with the development of arthritis?
Explanation
Ample evidence supports an increased rate of degenerative arthritis in the ACL-deficient knee. Several variables play a role in the development of the arthritis, but the integrity of the meniscus has been shown to be the single most important factor. O'Brien WR: Degenerative arthritis of the knee following anterior cruciate ligament injury: Role of the meniscus. Sports Med Arthroscopy Rev 1993;1:114-118. Fetto JF, Marshall JL: The natural history and diagnosis of anterior cruciate ligament insufficiency. Clin Orthop 1980;147:29-38.
Question 6
A 15-year-old boy has hindfoot pain and very limited subtalar motion. A CT scan reveals a talocalcaneal coalition involving 40% of the middle facet. He has no degeneration of the posterior subtalar facet. Following failure of nonsurgical management, treatment should consist of
Explanation
The CT scan is an important test to help determine the extent of involvement of the talocalcaneal facet in a talocalcaneal coalition. In a young patient with no arthritis and joint involvement of less than 50%, resection of the coalition and fat pad interposition has been shown to be successful. A calcaneal osteotomy does not address the coalition. Subtalar arthroereisis has been used for treatment of a flexible flatfoot; tarsal coalition patients have a rigid-type flatfoot deformity. Sullivan JA: The child's foot, in Morrissy RT, Weinstein SL (eds): Lovell and Winter's Pediatric Orthopaedics, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1996, vol 2, pp 1077-1135.
Question 7
An otherwise healthy 25-year-old man sustained a wound with a 1-cm by 1.5-cm soft-tissue loss over the volar aspect of the middle phalanx of his middle finger. After appropriate debridement and irrigation, the flexor digitorum profundus tendon and neurovascular bundles are visible. The wound should be treated with a
Explanation
The wound described indicates loss of soft tissue directly to the level of the tendon, precluding use of skin grafts if excursion of the tendon is desired. A cross-finger flap is ideal for small wounds on the volar aspect of digits. A thenar flap is suitable for tip injuries. A lateral arm flap will not reach the fingers. A Moberg flap is limited to distal injuries of the thumb. Kappel DA, Burech JG: The cross-finger flap: An established reconstructive procedure. Hand Clin 1985;1:677-683.
Question 8
Figure 43 shows the lateral radiograph of a patient who underwent anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction. Based on the tunnel placement shown in the radiograph, evaluation of postoperative knee range of motion will most likely show
Explanation
The radiograph shows the correct tibial tunnel and anterior femoral tunnel; therefore, range of motion will most likely show loss of flexion. Brown CH Jr, Carson EW: Revision anterior cruciate ligament surgery. Clin Sports Med 1999;18:109-171.
Question 9
A 43-year-old woman is referred after excisional biopsy of a cutaneous soft-tissue mass from her left shoulder. Based on the biopsy specimens shown in Figures 44a and 44b, what is the best course of action?
Explanation
Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans (DFSP) is a rare superficial sarcoma that is frequently misdiagnosed at presentation. It is frequently excised prior to suspecting that the lesion is a sarcoma and if not appropriately treated with tumor bed resection to obtain wide margins, these lesions have a high incidence of local recurrence. It is recommended that the wide excision include the deep fascia and a 2.5- to 3-cm cuff of normal-appearing skin. Distant disease spread is rare and usually occurs in the face of a multiply recurrent lesion. Despite the apparent gross circumscription of these lesions, the tumor diffusely infiltrates the dermis and subcutaneous tissues. A characteristic histologic finding can be seen in the deep margins of the tumor where it intricately interdigitates with normal fat. Lindner NJ, Scarborough MT, Powell GJ, et al: Revision surgery in dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans of the trunk and extremities. Eur J Surg Oncol 1999;25:392-397.
Question 10
Progressive paralysis is most likely to be seen in association with what type of congenital vertebral abnormality?
Explanation
Anterior failure of formation results in a progressive kyphosis that may lead to cord compression and progressive neurologic deficit. Anterior failure of segmentation can also produce progressive kyphosis but usually is not severe enough to cause cord compression. Posterior failure of formation is seen in conditions such as myelomeningocele in which the neurologic deficit is generally stable. Lateral abnormalities and posterior failure of segmentation are rarely associated with progressive neurologic deficit. McMaster MJ, Singh H: Natural history of congenital kyphosis and kyphoscoliosis: A study of one hundred and twelve patients. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1999;81:1367-1383.
Question 11
What is the most frequent location of entrapment of the deep peroneal nerve?
Explanation
The most frequently described entrapment of the deep peroneal nerve is the anterior tarsal tunnel syndrome. This syndrome refers to entrapment of the deep peroneal nerve under the inferior extensor retinaculum. Entrapment can also occur as the nerve passes under the tendon of the extensor hallucis brevis. Compression by underlying dorsal osteophytes of the talonavicular joint and an os intermetatarseum (between the bases of the first and second metatarsals) have previously been described in runners. Kopell HP, Thompson WA: Peripheral entrapment neuropathies of the lower extremity. N Engl J Med 1960;262:56-60.
Question 12
High Yield
A 36-year-old woman was injured in a train derailment. She has a significant open depressed skull fracture with active bleeding, a hemopneumothorax, and blood in the left upper quadrant and colic gutter by Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma (FAST) examination. Additionally, she has the pelvic injury seen on the CT scans in Figures 18a and 18b. The mortality rate for this patient approaches
Detailed Explanation
Mortality following trauma that requires surgical intervention for head, chest, and abdominal injury exceeds 90%. The type of pelvic fracture is a predictor of associated injury, blood requirements, and overall mortality. AP III pelvic fractures require the most blood, and are associated with significant abdominal trauma and shock. Lateral compression pelvic fractures are more associated with head, chest, and occasionally abdominal trauma, and mortality often occurs from associated injuries. Dalal SA, Burgess AR, Siegel JH, et al: Pelvic fracture in multiple trauma: Classification by mechanism is key to pattern of organ injury, resuscitative requirements and outcome. J Trauma 1989;29:981-1000. Eastridge BJ, Burgess AR: Pedestrian pelvic fractures: 5-year experience of a major urban trauma center. J Trauma 1997;42:695-700.
Question 13
What is the most appropriate treatment for a chordoma involving the sacrum?
Explanation
Chordomas are very radio- and chemotherapy resistant; therefore, en bloc resection with a negative margin is the preferred treatment. Lesions at or below S3 can be resected without compromising pelvis stability, and continence usually is maintained. The mean survival rate for patients with sacral chordomas is approximately 7 years. Patients with chordoma of the mobile (cervical, thoracic, or lumbar) spine have a mean survival rate of approximately 5 years. This difference is most likely the result of an earlier diagnosis. Fardin DF, Garfin SR, Abitbol J, et al (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Spine 2. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 123-133. Stener B, Gunterberg B: High amputation of the sacrum for extirpation of tumors: Principles and technique. Spine 1978;3:351-366.
Question 14
During anterior surgery on the cervical spine, at what level would the lateral dissection of the longus coli muscle most likely cause Horner's syndrome?
Explanation
The sympathetic chain approaches the lateral border of the longus coli muscle at C6 and is more vulnerable to injury at this level. Injury to the chain will cause Horner's syndrome, usually seen as unilateral ptosis.
Question 15
A 12-year-old girl has had lower back pain for the past 6 months that interferes with her ability to participate in sports. She denies any history of radicular symptoms, sensory changes, or bowel or bladder dysfunction. Examination reveals a shuffling gait, restriction of forward bending, and tight hamstrings. Radiographs show a grade III spondylolisthesis of L5 on S1, with a slip angle of 20 degrees. Management should consist of
Explanation
Indications for surgical treatment of spondylolisthesis include pain and/or progression of deformity. Specifically, surgery is necessary when there is persistent pain or a neurologic deficit that fails to respond to nonsurgical therapy, there is significant slip progression, or the slip is greater than 50%. For patients with mild spondylolisthesis, in situ posterolateral L5-S1 fusion is adequate. In patients with more severe slips (greater than 50%), extension of the fusion to L4 offers better mechanical advantage. Postoperative immobilization may be achieved with instrumentation, casting, or both. In patients with a slip angle of greater than 45 degrees, reduction of the lumbosacral kyphosis with instrumentation or casting is desirable to prevent slip progression. Laminectomy alone is contraindicated in a child. Nerve root decompression is indicated if radiculopathy is present clinically. Seitsalo S, Osterman K, Hyvarinen H, Tallroth K, Schlenzka D, Poussa M: Progression of spondylolisthesis in children and adolescents: A long-term follow-up of 272 patients. Spine 1991;16:417-421.
Question 16
A 32-year-old woman has left second toe dactylitis (sausage toe). Radiographs show a "pencil in cup" distal interphalangeal joint deformity. Examination reveals that subtalar motion is markedly reduced. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
The patient's clinical picture is considered the classic presentation for psoriatic arthritis. The other answers are not applicable for the constellation of findings. Jahss MH: Disorders of the Foot and Ankle, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1991, pp 1691-1693.
Question 17
Figure 6 shows the lateral radiograph of a 22-year-old woman who has painful Scheuermanns's kyphosis in the middle and lower thoracic spine. When planning surgical correction using instrumentation, the distal aspect of the instrumentation should ideally extend to the
Explanation
Posterior constructs for Scheuermann's kyphosis ideally should extend from the most superior to the most inferior aspect of the Cobb angulation. However, the most distal fusion level must be in a stable or lordotic position to avoid the development of junctional kyphosis. Lowe reported that failure to incorporate the first lordotic segment of the lumbar spine is associated with a higher risk of junctional kyphosis. The first lordotic segment of the lumbar spine is typically at least one level below the distal aspect of the curve as measured by the Cobb technique and most commonly is in the upper part of the lumbar spine. Lowe TG: Scheuermann's disease. Orthop Clin North Am 1999;30:475-487.
Question 18
Plots of stress versus strain for four orthopaedic biomaterials are shown in Figure 3. Referring to the figure, what is the correct identification of the curves?
Explanation
Stress-strain plots allow easy comparison of a number of important mechanical properties, including elastic modulus (the slope of the initial straight line portion of the curve) and yield stress (the stress at the break in the curves for bone, steel, and titanium alloy). Important considerations here are much lower modulus and ultimate stress of bone and cement compared to the two metallic alloys, the fact that titanium is lower modulus but higher strength than stainless steel, and the identification of cement as the only brittle material among the four. Burstein AH, Wright TM: Fundamentals of Orthopaedic Biomechanics. Baltimore, MD, Williams and Wilkins, 1994, pp 97-129.
Question 19
What are the most likely symptoms and examination findings related to the mass in zone 2 of Guyon's canal seen in Figure 17?
Explanation
The lesion lies in zone II of the ulnar tunnel. In that zone the deep motor branch of the ulnar nerve is susceptible to compression. Distal to the hook of the hamate, the motor branch of the ulnar nerve dives deep to innervate the interossei as it begins to move from an ulnar to radial direction. Because of its course, it has little or no give in response to a mass effect from the floor of Guyon's canal. Ganglions are the most common cause of ulnar nerve entrapment in the wrist. Lesions in zone I can affect both sensory and motor aspects of the ulnar nerve as well as the motor innervation of the hypothenar muscles. Lesions at the elbow or mid-to-proximal forearm are associated with dorsal hand numbness and tingling. Kuschner SH, Gelberman RH, Jennings C: Ulnar nerve compression at the wrist. J Hand Surg Am 1988;13:577-580.
Question 20
A 42-year-old woman sustained a closed, displaced talar neck fracture in a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following is an avoidable complication of surgical treatment?
Explanation
Malunion of the talus is a devastating complication that leads to malpositioning of the foot and subsequent arthrosis of the subtalar joint complex. This is considered an avoidable complication in that accurate surgical reduction will minimize its development. Posttraumatic arthritis of the subtalar joint, osteonecrosis of the talus, posttraumatic arthritis of the ankle joint, and complex regional pain syndrome all may develop as a result of the initial traumatic event and may not be avoidable despite anatomic reduction. Rockwood and Green's Fractures in Adults, ed 5. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott, Williams and Wilkins, 2001, pp 2091-2132.
Question 21
A 29-year-old man reports a 2-week history of severe neck pain after being struck sharply on the back of the head and neck while moving a refrigerator down a flight of stairs. Initial evaluation in the emergency department revealed no obvious fracture and he was discharged in a soft collar. Neurologic examination is within normal limits, and radiographs taken in the office are shown in Figures 21a through 21c. Subsequent MRI scans show intra-substance rupture of the transverse atlantal ligament. What is the most appropriate treatment option at this time?
Explanation
Dickman and associates classified injuries of the transverse atlantal ligament into two categories. Type I injuries are disruptions through the substance of the ligament itself. Type II injuries render the transverse ligament physiologically incompetent through fractures and avulsions involving the tubercle of insertion of the transverse ligament on the C1 lateral mass. Type I injuries are incapable of healing without supplemental internal fixation. Type II injuries can be treated with a rigid cervical orthosis with a success rate of 74%. Surgery may be required for type II injures that fail to heal with 3 to 4 months of nonsurgical management. Findlay JM: Injuries involving the transverse atlantal ligament: Classification and treatment guidelines based upon experience with 39 injuries. Neurosurgery 1996;39:210.
Question 22
Examination of a 9-year-old girl who injured her left elbow in a fall reveals tenderness and swelling localized to the medial aspect of the elbow. Motor and sensory examinations of the hand are normal, and circulation is intact. A radiograph is seen in Figure 28. Management should consist of
Explanation
Avulsion fractures of the medial epicondyle are caused by a valgus stress applied to the immature elbow and usually occur in children between the ages of 9 and 14 years. Long-term studies have shown that isolated fractures of the medial epicondyle with between 5 to 15 mm of displacement heal well. Brief immobilization (1 to 2 weeks) in a long arm cast or splint yields results similar to open reduction and internal fixation. Fibrous union of the fragment is not associated with significant symptoms or diminished function. Surgical excision of the fragment yielded the worst results in one study and should be avoided. Open reduction is best reserved for those injuries in which the medial epicondylar fragment becomes entrapped in the elbow joint during reduction and cannot be extracted by closed manipulation. Farsetti P, Potenza V, Caterini R, Ippolito E: Long-term results of treatment of fractures of the medial humeral epicondyle in children. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2001;83:1299-1305.
Question 23
Figure 24 shows the radiograph of a 47-year-old woman who has severe right hip pain and a limp. Management should consist of
Explanation
Femoral shortening osteotomy for a Crowe type IV hip dislocation has been shown to provide superior results with minimal complications. Cementless fixation of the stem allows for modular implants that greatly simplify the reconstruction.
Question 24
An otherwise healthy 57-year-old man has persistent, severe hip pain after undergoing total hip arthroplasty 3 months ago. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Explanation
Any patient who is severely symptomatic this quickly after surgery must be evaluated for infection. Loosening is also a possible cause, but infection must be ruled-out. Bone scans are not helpful at this early postoperative stage. Normal laboratory values argue strongly against infection, but when abnormal, need to be supplemented with a hip aspiration. Aspiration remains the most selective and sensitive measure, especially when linked to a WBC count of the synovial tissues in the joint. There is no indication for an antiobiotic trial because it may make future culture sensitivity more difficult. Drancourt M, Stein A, Argenson JN, et al: Oral rifampin plus ofloxacin for treatment of staphylococcus-infected orthopedic implants. Antimicrob Agents Chemother 1993;37:1214-1218. Duncan CP, Beauchamp C: A temporary antibiotic-loaded joint replacement system for the management of complex infections involving the hip. Orthop Clin North Am 1993; 24: 751-759.
Question 25
What assay most directly assesses gene expression at the posttranslational level?
Explanation
Gene expression at the posttranslational level refers to proteins, as opposed to DNA or RNA. The only assay above that targets protein expression directly is the Western blot. Standard PCR is amplification of targeted DNA segments, regardless of whether or not they are actively expressed. Real-time PCR, Northern blot, and microarray expression profile analysis all quantify RNA as a means to determine posttranscriptional gene expression. Brinker MR: Cellular and molecular biology, immunology, and genetics in orthopaedics, in Miller MD (ed): Review of Orthopaedics, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2001, pp 81-94.
Question 26
A neurologic injury at T11-L2 with loss of bowel and bladder control is best described as what syndrome?
Explanation
Conus medullaris syndrome describes isolated loss of bowel and bladder function, usually at T12-L1 but can include T11-L2. In central cord syndrome, lower extremity motor function is better than upper extremity function. Cauda equina syndrome generally involves injury at the lumbar levels, with some degree of lower extremity motor loss. Posterior cord syndrome is characterized by preservation of motor function below the level of injury and position/vibratory sensory loss. In anterior cord syndrome, the lower extremity findings include loss of light touch, sharp/dull, and temperature sensations below the level of injury, as well as motor function. Apple DF Jr: Spinal cord injury rehabilitation, in Rothman RH, Simeone FA (eds): The Spine, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1992, Chapter 31.
Question 27
Following an episode of transient quadriplegia in contact sports, an athlete's return to play is absolutely contraindicated when
Explanation
Return to play decisions after traumatic spinal or spinal cord injury are not always clear-cut and often must be made on a patient-by-patient basis. The Torg ratio has been found to have low sensitivity in patients with large vertebral bodies. Abnormal electromyographic studies can persist in the face of normal function and do not define spinal injury. Duration of quadriplegia is not related to anatomic pathology. Findings on MRI scans or contrast-enhanced CT scans consistent with stenosis include lack of a significant cerebrospinal fluid signal around the cord, bony or ligament hypertrophy, or disk encroachment. Based on these findings, return to play should be avoided. Cantu RC, Bailes JE, Wilberger JE Jr: Guidelines for return to contact or collision sport after a cervical spine injury. Clin Sports Med 1998;17:137-146. Herzog RJ, Wiens JJ, Dillingham MF, Sontag MJ: Normal cervical spine morphometry and cervical stenosis in asymptomatic professional football players: Plain film radiography, multiplanar computer tomography, and magnetic resonance imaging. Spine 1991;16:178-186.
Question 28
A 56-year-old woman who underwent axillary node dissection 4 months ago now reports shoulder pain, weakness of forward elevation, and obvious winging of the scapula. What structure has been injured?
Explanation
The long thoracic nerve, which innervates the serratus anterior, is prone to injury because of its superficial location along the chest wall. The long thoracic nerve is derived from the roots of C5, C6, and C7. The spinal accessory nerve innervates the trapezius, and the thoracodorsal nerve innervates the latissimus dorsi. The posterior cord of the brachial plexus provides the axillary and the radial nerves. Hollinshead WH: Anatomy for Surgeons: The Back and Limbs, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, Harper and Row, 1982, pp 259-340.
Question 29
A 30-year-old woman has pain in her right hand. The radiograph, CT scan, and biopsy specimen are seen in Figures 38a through 38c. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
An enchondroma is the most common primary tumor of the long bones of the hand. The lesion is usually asymptomatic and often is detected when there is a pathologic fracture. Shimizu K, Kotoura Y, Nishijima N, Nakamura T: Enchondroma of the distal phalanx of the hand. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1997;79:898-900.
Question 30
A 25-year-old man has a mass on the medial aspect of the left knee. He reports that the mass has been present for several years, but a recent increase in physical activity has resulted in periodic tenderness. Radiographs are shown in Figures 13a and 13b. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
The radiographs reveal a sessile lesion projecting from the medial aspect of the distal femur. The lesion shares the cortex with the bone and the base communicates with the medullary space of the femur. This is the classic appearance of an osteochondroma, the most common benign tumor of bone. Menendez LR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Musculoskeletal Tumors. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 103-111.
Question 31
Which of the following is a long-term complication of ankle arthrodesis for posttraumatic arthritis?
Explanation
Ankle arthrodesis for posttraumatic ankle arthrosis provides reliable pain relief. However, the long-term sequela of joint arthrodesis is the development of arthrosis in the surrounding joints. Over time, following ankle arthrodesis, the ipsilateral hindfoot and midfoot joints show signs of joint space wear, and this may be symptomatic. With a stable ankle arthrodesis, progressive limb-length discrepancy or talar osteonecrosis is not expected. Ankle arthrodesis has not been definitively linked to ipsilateral knee arthritis or contralateral ankle arthritis. Coester LM, Saltzman CL, Leupold J, Pontarelli W: Long-term results following ankle arthrodesis for post-traumatic arthritis. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2001;83:219-228.
Question 32
In 1980, a 32-year-old woman was found to have right breast mass, and a biopsy revealed adenocarcinoma. She underwent a mastectomy at that time, with no other treatment. Five years later, she noticed a lump in the left breast and underwent a left mastectomy. Seven lymph nodes were positive. In 2006, she now reports hip and thigh pain for the past 3 months. Figures 69a and 69b show AP and lateral radiographs of the femur. A bone scan shows a solitary lesion. Following radiographic staging, what is the next most appropriate step in management?
Explanation
Solitary bone lesions require biopsy, for there is the possibility that the lesion may represent a primary bone sarcoma, which will necessitate a different treatment plan. This is especially true in patients with remote histories of cancer. The most likely cause of a lytic bone lesion in a patient older than age 40 years is a metastatic lesion. Rougraff BT, Kneisl JS, Simon MA: Skeletal metastases of unknown origin: A prospective study of a diagnostic strategy. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1993;75:1276-1281.
Question 33
What is the effect on knee kinematics following placement of an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) graft at the 12 o'clock position?
Explanation
Endoscopic ACL reconstructive techniques may result in a vertical graft placement. The reconstructed ligament will resist anterior translation of the tibia but the graft will not restore rotatory stability. Decreased flexion and extension are caused by placement of the femoral tunnel too anterior and posterior, respectively. Impingement of the graft on the femoral notch is caused by anterior placement of the tibial tunnel or inadequate notchplasty. Scopp JM, Jasper LE, Belkoff SM, et al: The effect of oblique femoral tunnel placement on rotational constraint of the knee reconstructed using patellar tendon autografts. Arthroscopy 2004;20:294-299.
Question 34
An 83-year-old woman reports pain in her left middle finger after a minor injury. Laboratory studies show a WBC count of 7,000/mm3, an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 3 mm/h, a uric acid of 10.4 mg/dL, and a normal serum protein electrophoresis. Radiographs are shown in Figures 49a and 49b. A core biopsy specimen is shown is Figure 49c. In addition to treatment of the finger fracture, treatment should include
Explanation
This clinical picture is most consistent with periarticular erosions from gout. The patient has multiple periarticular lytic lesions in the hand. The laboratory studies show an elevated serum uric acid level, and the biopsy specimen demonstrates acute and chronic inflammation with prominent clefts. Therefore, the preferred treatment is systemic control of her gout. Radiation therapy, chemotherapy, and/or amputation should be considered for a malignancy; however, the pathology does not demonstrate any evidence of pleomorphism, high nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio, nuclear atypia, or mitotic activity. Antibiotics for an infectious process is a consideration, but the minimal elevation in the WBC count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate does not support an infectious process. Wise CM: Crystal-associated arthritis in the elderly. Clin Geriatr Med 2005;21:491-511.
Question 35
A 62-year-old man with a long history of ankylosing spondylitis has neck pain after lightly bumping his head on the wall. Examination reveals neck pain with any attempted motion; the neurologic examination is normal. Plain radiographs show extensive ankylosis of the cervical spine and kyphosis but no fracture. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Explanation
A high level of suspicion must be given for a fracture in any patient with ankylosing spondylitis who reports neck pain, even with minimal or no trauma. The neck should be immobilized in its normal position, which is often kyphotic, and plain radiographs should be obtained. If no obvious fracture is seen, CT with reconstruction should be obtained. The placement of in-line traction can have catastrophic effects because it may malalign the spine. Brigham CD: Ankylosing spondylitis and seronegative spondyloarthropathies, in Clark CR (ed): The Cervical Spine, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Raven, 1998, pp 724-727.
Question 36
A 10-year-old boy who has had progressive low back and right buttock pain for the past 3 days is now unable to bear weight on the right side secondary to pain. He has a temperature of 101.3 degrees F (38.5 degrees C). Examination reveals full hip range of motion; but he reports pain on the right side with external rotation. Pain is elicited with compression of the iliac wings and with direct palpation of the right sacroiliac (SI) joint. An MRI scan of the pelvis shows no abscess, but there is inflammation of the SI joint. Management should consist of
Explanation
The clinical presentation and MRI findings are consistent with an acute infection of the SI joint. Bed rest and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs alone are insufficient to treat the problem. Staphylococcus aureus is the causative organism in most of these infections; therefore, unless there is an unusual factor in the history such as IV drug use, immune system compromise, or unusual travel, SI joint aspiration is unnecessary. It is often difficult to enter the SI joint, even under radiographic guidance. Management should consist of hospital admission and IV antibiotics. Blood cultures may be positive and should be obtained prior to starting antibiotics. Surgical fusion of the SI joint is not indicated. Morrissey RT: Bone and Joint Sepsis in Pediatric Orthopaedics. Philadelphia, PA, JB Lippincott, 1990. Beaupre A, Carroll N: The three syndromes of iliac osteomyelitis in children. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1979;61:1087-1092.
Question 37
What is the most common bacteria cultured from dog and cat bites to the upper extremity?
Explanation
To define bacteria responsible for dog and cat bite infections, a prospective study yielded a median of five bacterial isolates per culture. Pasteurella is most common from both dog bites (50%) and cat bites (75%). Pasteurella canis was the most frequent pathogen of dog bites, and Pasteurella multocida was the most common isolate of cat bites. Other common aerobes included streptococci, staphylococci, moraxella, and neisseria.
Question 38
Figures 21a and 21b show the clinical photograph and radiograph of a 15-year-old girl who has a deformity of her feet. Her parents are concerned because there is a family history of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease. The patient reports some mild instability of the ankle and has noticed mild early callosities; however, she is not having any significant pain. Coleman block testing reveals a forefoot valgus and supple hindfoot. She has weakness to eversion and dorsiflexion. Initial management should consist of
Explanation
Initial management of a young patient with a cavovarus deformity of the foot and a family history of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease should focus on mobilization and strengthening of the weakening muscular units and an accommodative insert. Surgical intervention should be delayed until progression of the deformity begins to cause symptoms and/or weakness of the muscular units, resulting in contractures of the antagonistic muscle units. Pinzur MS: Charcot's foot. Foot Ankle Clin 2000;5:897-912. Holmes JR, Hansen ST Jr: Foot and ankle manifestations of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease. Foot Ankle 1993;14:476-486.
Question 39
A 25-year-old man shot himself at the base of the right index finger while cleaning his handgun. Examination reveals that the finger is cool and cyanotic. A clinical photograph and radiograph are shown in Figures 44a and 44b. What is the recommended treatment?
Explanation
The gunshot wound has caused injury to multiple systems: bone, vascular, skin, and tendon; therefore, the treatment of choice is amputation. An immediate ray amputation allows for a more rapid return to activities and less time off work. Peimer CA, Wheeler DR, Barrett A, et al: Hand function following single ray amputation. J Hand Surg Am 1999;24:1245-1248.
Question 40
A 68-year-old woman undergoes a complicated four-level anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion at C3-7 with iliac crest bone graft and instrumentation for multilevel cervical stenosis. Surgical time was approximately 6 hours and estimated blood loss was 800 mL. Neuromonitoring was stable throughout the procedure. The patient's history is significant for smoking. The most immediate appropriate postoperative management for this patient should include
Explanation
Airway complications after anterior cervical surgery can be a catastrophic event necessitating emergent intubation for airway protection. Multilevel surgeries requiring long intubation and prolonged soft-tissue retraction as well as preexisting comorbidities may predispose a patient to postoperative airway complications. Sagi and associates reported that surgical times greater than 5 hours, blood loss greater than 300 mL, and multilevel surgery at or above C3-4 are risk factors for airway complications. In surgical procedures with the aforementioned factors, serious consideration should be given to elective intubation for 1 to 3 days to avoid urgent reintubation. Sagi HC, Beutler W, Carroll E, et al: Airway complications associated with surgery on the anterior cervical spine. Spine 2002;27:949-953. Epstein NE, Hollingsworth R, Nardi D, et al: Can airway complications following multilevel anterior cervical surgery be avoided? J Neurosurg 2001;94:185-188.
Question 41
In obstetrical brachial plexus palsy, which of the following signs is associated with the poorest prognosis for recovery in a 2-month-old infant?
Explanation
Persistent Horner's sign (ptosis, myosis, and anhydrosis) is a sign of proximal injury, usually avulsion of the roots from the cord which disrupts the sympathetic chain. Root rupture or avulsion proximal to the myelin sheath has less chance of healing. Two-month-old infants with persistent weakness in the other areas described may still have a good prognosis for recovery. Concurrent clavicle fracture has been shown to have no prognostic value. Clarke HM, Curtis CG: An approach to obstetrical brachial plexus injuries. Hand Clin 1995;11:563-581.
Question 42
A patient who underwent closed reduction of the hips as an infant now reports pain. An abduction internal rotation view shows an incongruous joint. Based on the findings shown in Figure 3, what is the most appropriate type of pelvic osteotomy for the right hip?
Explanation
Pelvic osteotomies that redirect hyaline cartilage over the femoral head offer the potential for long-term preservation of the hip; however, salvage procedures such as the Chiari osteotomy are indicated in patients without a concentrically reducible hip. Ito and associates reported that moderate dysplasia and moderate subluxation without complete obliteration of the joint space and a preoperative center-edge angle of at least minus 10 degrees are desirable selection criteria. Ohashi H, Hirohashi K, Yamano Y: Factors influencing the outcome of Chiari pelvic osteotomy: A long-term follow-up. J Bone Joint Surg Br 2000;82:517-525.
Question 43
A 40-year-old man has a painless mass around his left ankle. He notes minimal growth over the past year. An MRI scan is shown in Figure 73a, and biopsy specimens are shown in Figures 73b and 73c. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
The biopsy specimen is a low-power view of a soft-tissue sarcoma with a biphasic pattern of epithelial cells and fibrous spindle cells that are typical of a synovial sarcoma. A deep, painless soft-tissue mass greater than 5 cm in size is suspicious for a sarcoma. The imaging in this patient is indeterminate and the patient requires a biopsy for an accurate diagnosis. The biopsy reveals a tumor with a biphasic appearance consistent with a synovial sarcoma. These tumors are slow growing, occur primarily in the lower extremities, and are found in a younger demographic population compared to malignant fibrous histiocytoma and liposarcoma. They can occur in a biphasic pattern with clumps of epithelial cells and fibrous spindle cells or in a monophasic pattern. Synovial sarcomas stain positively for keratin. Keratin is positive in nearly all biphasic types and in many tumors of the monophasic fibrous type. Sixty percent of these tumors are found in the lower extremity. The area around the knee is the most common location, followed by the ankle and foot. Epithelioid and clear cell sarcomas are found associated with tendon sheaths of the hand and feet and are generally smaller in size. Epithelioid sarcoma may resemble granulomatous inflammation histologically; clear cell sarcoma is composed of nests of clear cells with occasional multinucleated giant cells. Pigmented villonodular synovitis is found within the synovium and is characterized by a villous histologic appearance with hemosiderin-laden macrophages. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma has a storiform histologic pattern with an abundance of pleomorphic cells. Enzinger FM, Weiss SW: Soft Tissue Tumors, ed 3. St Louis, MO, Mosby, 1995, p 757.
Question 44
Which of the following is the primary mechanism of polyethylene wear in the hip?
Explanation
Although previous theories on acetabular wear implicated fatigue cracking and delamination as primary wear mechanisms, these have actually manifested as major modes of polyethylene wear in knees. The primary mechanism of wear in polyethylene acetabular components appears to be adhesion and abrasion. In an analysis of 128 components retrieved at autopsy or revision surgery, wear appeared to occur mostly at the surface of the components and was the result of large strain plastic deformation and orientation of the surface layers into fibrils that subsequently ruptured during multidirectional motion. It was also shown conclusively that 32-mm heads displayed significantly more wear (volumetric wear) than either 22-mm or 26-/28-mm heads (1-mm increase in size increased volumetric wear by 10%). The wear at the articulating surface was characterized by highly worn polished areas superiorly and less worn areas inferiorly separated by a ridge. Abrasion was very common, occurring after adhesion and plastic deformation of polyethylene fibrils, and abrasion secondary to third-body wear. Wear rates decreased with longer survival of components, indicating a "bedding in" phenomenon, arguing against oxidative and fatigue wear. Crevice corrosion occurs in fatigue cracks with low oxygen tension (under screw heads, etc). Oscillatory fretting consists of cyclical abrading of the outer surface from small movements. Fatigue and delamination is predominant in total knee arthroplasty where stresses are maximum just below the surface of the polyethylene component, causing fatigue over time with subsequent delamination. In contrast, hip wear occurs primarily at the surface of the polyethylene component. Jasty M, Goetz DD, Bragdon CR, et al: Wear of polyethylene acetabular components in total hip arthroplasty: An analysis of one hundred and twenty-eight components retrieved at autopsy or revision operations. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1997;79:349-358. Beaty JH (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 6. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1999, pp 47-53. Bell CJ, Walker PS, Abeysundera MR, et al: Effect of oxidation on delamination of ultrahigh-molecular-weight polyethylene tibial components. J Arthroplasty 1998;13:280-290.
Question 45
Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between tissue response to thermal capsulorrhaphy and the type of device used?
Explanation
Although radiofrequency devices and lasers differ fundamentally in the way they generate heat within a tissue, both classes of devices are capable of producing temperatures within the critical temperature range (65 to 75 degrees C) for collagen denaturation and subsequent tissue shrinkage. When it comes to cell viability and tissue response, heat is heat. Once critical temperatures are reached, cells will die at 45 degrees C, collagen will become denatured at 60 degrees C, and tissue ablation will occur at 100 degrees C no matter what the source of thermal energy. Therefore, claims of a better or different type of heat have little bearing on the biologic response of the tissue. Histologic, ultrastructural, and biomaterial alterations induced by laser and radiofrequency energy have been shown to be similar. Arnoczky SP, Aksan A: Thermal modification of connective tissues: Basic science considerations and clinical implications. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2000;8:305-313. Hayashi K, Markel MD: Thermal modification of joint capsule and ligamentous tissues: The use of thermal energy in sports medicine. Operative Techniques Sports Med 1998;6:120-125.
Question 46
At the level of tibial bone resection in total knee arthroplasty, where does the common peroneal nerve lie?
Explanation
At the level of tibial bone resection in total knee arthroplasty, the common peroneal nerve lies superficial to the lateral head of the gastrocnemius and is therefore protected by this structure. In an MRI study of 60 knees, the mean distance from the bony posterolateral corner of the tibia to the nerve was 1.49 cm, with no distance less than 0.9 cm. The distance from the bone to nerve was greater in larger legs. Clarke HD, Schwartz JB, Math KR, et al: Anatomic risk of peroneal nerve injury with the "pie crust" technique for valgus release in total knee arthroplasty. J Arthroplasty 2004;19:40-44.
Question 47
A 53-year-old man reports acute, severe left shoulder pain after undergoing abdominal surgery 10 days ago. Initial management, consisting of anti-inflammatory drugs, physical therapy, and a subacromial injection of corticosteroid, fails to provide relief. Reexamination of the shoulder 2 months after the onset of symptoms reveals atrophy of the infraspinous and supraspinous fossa and profound weakness of active abduction and external rotation. His neck is supple with a full range of motion. Plain radiographs and an MRI scan of the shoulder are normal. What diagnostic study should be performed next in the evaluation of this patient?
Explanation
Suprascapular nerve palsy is a fairly uncommon yet well-known cause of shoulder pain and weakness. A variety of causes have been described, including compression by a ganglion cyst, an anomalous or thickened superior transverse scapular ligament, a humeral and scapular fracture, and traction or kinking of the nerve in the suprascapular notch. In this patient, the injury is most likely caused by traction or compression of the nerve in the suprascapular notch as the result of positioning during abdominal surgery; therefore, the studies of choice are electromyography and nerve conduction velocity studies. While MRI of the cervical spine may be of some value in ruling out a radiculopathy, the clinical history does not support such a cause for this condition. Rengachary SS, Neff JP, Singer PA, Brackett CE: Suprascapular entrapment neuropathy: A clinical, anatomical, and comparative study. Part 1: Clinical study. Neurosurgery 1979;5:441-446. Rengachary SS, Burr D, Lucas S, Hassanein KM, Mohn MP, Matzke H: Suprascapular entrapment neuropathy: A clinical, anatomical and comparative study. Part 2: Anatomical study. Neurosurgery 1979;5:447-451.
Question 48
A 34-year-old woman reports constant midlateral arm pain after sustaining minimal trauma to the shoulder. Radiographs and a biopsy specimen are shown in Figures 29a and 29b. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
Eighty percent of giant cell tumors occur in patients older than age 20 years, with the peak incidence in the third decade of life. Most of these tumors are eccentrically located and epiphyseal in location. They are lytic in nature as in this patient. Although named for the hallmarked multinucleated giant cells seen in the lesion, the basic cell type is the spindle-shaped stromal cell. Chondroblastoma is highly cellular and contains large multinucleated giant cells with intercellular chondroid material, some of which is calcified. Chondromyxoid fibroma has chondroid tissue separated by strands of more cellular tissue with occasional multinucleated giant cells. Desmoplastic fibroma is characterized by poorly cellular fibrous tissue, and lymphoma is highly cellular with characteristic round cells. Campanacci M, Baldini N, Boriani S, et al: Giant cell tumor of bone. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1987;69:106-114.
Question 49
What malignant disease most commonly develops in conjunction with chronic osteomyelitis?
Explanation
The most common malignant disease to arise in conjunction with chronic osteomyelitis is squamous cell carcinoma particularly in patients with a long-standing draining sinus tract. Dell PC: Hand, in Simon MA, Springfield D (eds): Surgery for Bone and Soft Tissue Tumors. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1998, pp 405-420.
Question 50
Which of the following findings is a prerequisite for a high tibial valgus osteotomy for medial compartment gonarthrosis?
Explanation
The indications for high tibial valgus osteotomy include a physiologically young age, arthritis confined to the medial compartment, 10 to 15 degrees of varus alignment on weight-bearing radiographs, a preoperative arc of motion of at least 90 degrees, flexion contracture of less than 15 degrees, and a motivated, compliant patient. Contraindications include lateral compartment narrowing of the articular cartilage, lateral tibial subluxation of greater than 1 cm, medial compartment bone loss, ligamentous instability, and inflammatory arthritis. Naudie D, Bourne RB, Rorabeck CH, Bourne TT: The Insall Award: Survivorship of the high tibial valgus osteotomy. A 10- to 22-year followup study. Clin Orthop 1999;367:18-27.
Question 51
What type of exercise is used early in the rehabilitation process to safely stimulate co-contraction of the scapular and rotator cuff muscles?
Explanation
Closed kinetic chain exercises are used early in the rehabilitation process. The distal segment is fixed, and an axial load is applied which provides glenohumeral compression and reduces the demand on the rotator cuff. These exercises stimulate co-contractions of the scapular and rotator cuff muscles, load scapular stabilizers, and facilitate active motion. Facilitated active motion exercises use proximal segment motion to stimulate and facilitate motion in the target tissue. These exercises are often performed in diagonal movements. Resistive active motion exercises are used later in the rehabilitation process. These are typically open kinetic chain exercises that involve active glenohumeral motion with extrinsic loads such as weights or exercise tubing. During the later stages of upper extremity rehabilitation, plyometrics are added. These exercises help to prepare the athlete for return to sport. When performed at slower speeds, these exercises emphasize stabilization and control. As the speeds increase, muscles begin to work in the stretch-shortening sequence associated with sports participation. Garrick JG (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Sports Medicine 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2004, pp 129-136.
Question 52
Which of the following results cannot be achieved with an in-shoe orthosis?
Explanation
Depending on the type of materials used, an orthotic can be fabricated to achieve a variety of results. While a rigid fixed deformity can be stabilized or cushioned, an orthotic will not correct a deformity that is not passively correctable. Mizel MS, Miller RA, Scioli MW (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Foot and Ankle 2. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1998, pp 55-64. Bono CM, Berberian WS: Orthotic devices: Degenerative disorders of the foot and ankle. Foot Ankle Clin 2001;6:329-340.
Question 53
Following application of a short leg cast, a patient reports a complete foot drop. A compression injury of the peroneal nerve at the fibular neck is confirmed by electrical studies. Which of the following muscles is expected to be the last to recover function during the ensuing months?
Explanation
The recovery process from peroneal nerve palsy may take many months as axonal regrowth occurs. Of the muscles listed, the extensor hallucis is innervated most distally by the peroneal nerve. The flexor digitorum longus is innervated by the tibial nerve.
Question 54
The blood supply to the anterior cruciate ligament is primarily derived from what artery?
Explanation
Microvascular studies have shown that the majority of the blood supply to the cruciate ligaments comes from the middle geniculate artery, although there is collateral flow through the other geniculates and from bone. Arnoczky SP: Blood supply to the anterior cruciate ligament and supporting structures. Orthop Clin North Am 1985;16:15-28.
Question 55
A 30-year-old man who participates in recreational sports reports the spontaneous onset of intermittent pain and swelling about the right knee. Examination reveals a 3+ effusion, with a range of motion of 10 degrees to 60 degrees. He has mild diffuse tenderness but no instability. MRI scans and an arthroscopic view are shown in Figures 39a through 39c. Management should consist of
Explanation
The patient has synovial chondromatosis. The MRI scans show multiple small proscribed areas of signal intensity in the gutters and suprapatellar pouch, suggesting very small loose bodies. The arthroscopic view shows the classic appearance of multiple small chondral loose bodies. Synovial chondromatosis is a condition in which the synovium undergoes metaplasia, producing multiple chondral loose bodies that can subsequently ossify. The treatment of choice, removal of the loose bodies and arthroscopic synovectomy, results in a lower incidence of recurrence than other treatment methods. Coolican MR, Dandy DJ: Arthroscopic management of synovial chondromatosis of the knee: findings and results in 18 cases. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1989;71:498-500.
Question 56
Figure 8 shows the CT scan of an 11-year-old boy who has had a 1-year history of worsening painful flatfeet. He reports pain associated with physical education at school, especially with running and jumping. Management consisting of activity restriction, anti-inflammatory drugs, and casting has failed to provide relief. Treatment should now consist of
Explanation
In most patients with symptomatic talocalcaneal coalition involving less than 50% of the subtalar joint, resection with fat graft interposition is preferred over a subtalar or triple arthrodesis, especially if reasonable range of motion can be achieved. This patient has a synchondrosis that is partially cartilaginous. Although patients may have a residual gait abnormality, most report pain relief after surgery. Scranton PE Jr: Treatment of symptomatic talocalcaneal coalition. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1987;69:533-539. Kitaoka HB, Wikenheiser MA, Schaughnessy WJ, et al: Gait abnormalities following resection of talocalcaneal coalition. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1997;79:369-374.
Question 57
What is one of the principle concerns when a fracture such as the one seen in Figure 18 is encountered?
Explanation
The injury shown is a fracture-dislocation and it is highly unstable. In addition to this concern, spinal epidural hematomas have a much higher incidence in people with ankylosing spondylitis following knee fracture. It is felt to be due to disrupted epidural veins, with hypervascular epidural soft tissue in the setting of a rigid spinal canal. Patients with ankylosing spondylitis may have other significant comorbidities, especially cardiac and pulmonary, and these should be carefully assessed. Ludwig S, Zarro CM: Complications encountered in the management of patients with ankylosing spondylitis, in Vaccaro AR, Regan JJ, Crawford AH, et al (eds): Complications of Pediatric and Adult Spine Surgery. New York, NY, Marcel Dekker, 2004, pp 279-290.
Question 58
A 4-year-old child sustains a spiral fracture to the tibia in an unwitnessed fall. History reveals three other fractures to long bones, and the parents are vague about the etiology of each. There is no family history of bone disease. The parents ask if the child has osteogenesis imperfecta (OI); however, there are no clinical or radiographic indications of this diagnosis. In addition to fracture care, management should include
Explanation
Child abuse and OI are frequently both in the differential diagnosis of a child with multiple fractures. If OI is suspected, testing is appropriate to confirm this diagnosis. This may include skull radiographs to look for wormian bones and/or fibroblast culturing and collagen analysis of a punch biopsy. Unfortunately, because of the large number of mutations that can yield the disease, DNA testing is not commercially available for OI. In this patient, however, the physician suspects nonaccidental trauma and is legally obligated in most states to notify child protective services. Because the child may be at considerable risk of further injury, hospitalization is indicated to protect the child until child protective services can complete a home investigation and assess the degree of risk. Work-up for both OI and child abuse can be done during the hospitalization. Rockwood CA, Wilkins KE, King RE (eds): Fractures in Children. Philadelphia, PA, JB Lippincott, 1984, vol 3, pp 173-175. Kempe CH, Silverman FN, Stelle BF, Droegemueller W, Silver HK: The battered-child syndrome. JAMA 1962;181:17-24.
Question 59
A 9-year-old child has right groin pain after falling from a tree. Examination reveals that the right leg is held in external rotation, and there is significant pain with attempts at passive range of motion. Radiographs are shown in Figures 43a and 43b. Management should consist of
Explanation
The complications of femoral neck fractures in children include osteonecrosis, malunion, nonunion, and premature physeal closure. It is presumed that the risk of osteonecrosis is directly related to the amount of displacement at the time of injury and is not affected by the type of treatment. The risk of the other complications can be decreased depending on the type of treatment. Anatomic reduction by either closed or open methods can reduce the risk of malunion. The addition of internal fixation allows for maintenance of the reduction. In young children who cannot comply with a partial or non-weight-bearing status, the addition of a spica cast gives added protection. Canale ST: Fractures of the hip in children and adolescents. Orthop Clin North Am 1990;21:341-352.
Question 60
A 10-year-old child with cerebral palsy undergoes bilateral hamstring lengthening for severe knee flexion contractures, and knee immobilizers are applied postoperatively. Examination at the initial postoperative check 2 hours after surgery reveals that she can dorsiflex her toes on the right foot, but not on the left foot. The physician should now
Explanation
Children with cerebral palsy are often difficult to examine. However, this patient clearly has a peroneal nerve deficit, most likely from the acute stretch after the hamstring lengthening. The nerve has the best chance of recovery if it is relaxed by flexing the knee. Once the nerve has recovered, gradual knee extension can be accomplished. Aspden RM, Porter RW: Nerve traction during correction of knee flexion deformity: A case report and calculation. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1994;76:471-473.
Question 61
Collagen orientation is parallel to the joint surface in what articular cartilage zone?
Explanation
The collagen orientation changes from parallel in the superficial zone to a more random pattern in the middle zone and finally to perpendicular in the calcified zone. Koval KJ (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 7. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 498-499.
Question 62
Which of the following is a true statement regarding thoracic disk herniations?
Explanation
Symptomatic herniations of the thoracic spine are much less common than those of the cervical or lumbar region. They tend to occur most commonly during the third to fifth decades of life and although they can be found at all levels, they are most common in the lower third near the thoracolumbar region. Posterior laminectomy and disk excision has the highest rate of neurologic deterioration and is not recommended. Multiple studies have shown that herniated thoracic disks can be found at one or more levels in 40% of asymptomatic individuals. Shah RP, Grauer JN: Thoracoscopic excision of thoracic herniated disc, in Vaccaro AR, Bono CM (eds): Minimally Invasive Spine Surgery. New York, NY, Informa Healthcare, 2007, pp 73-80.
Question 63
When comparing the addition of a trough at the greater tuberosity to direct repair of cortical bone, simulated rotator cuff repair in animal models has shown what type of change in the strength of the repair?
Explanation
There was no difference observed in the healing of tendon to bone when comparing healing to cortical bone and to a cancellous trough.
Question 64
A high school athlete reports the sudden onset of low back pain while performing a dead lift. Examination reveals a lumbar paraspinal spasm and a positive straight leg raising test. The deep tendon reflexes, motor strength, and sensation in the lower extremeties are normal. The radiographs are normal. If symptoms persist for more than a few weeks, management should consist of
Explanation
In adolescents, a lumbar herniated disk is characterized by a paucity of clinical findings; a positive straight leg raising test may be the only consistent positive finding. This may result in a long period of nonsurgical management that fails to provide relief. Activities that place a significant shear load on the lumbar spine, such as the dead lift, are associated with an increased risk of central disk herniation. When an adolescent who lifts weights has a history of low back pain that fails to respond to a short period of active rest, an MRI scan is the study of choice to evaluate for a lumbar herniated disk. Epstein JA, Epstein NE, Marc J, Rosenthal AD, Lavine LS: Lumbar intervertebral disk herniation in teenage children: Recognition and management of associated anomalies. Spine 1984;9:427-432.
Question 65
Which of the following acetabular cup designs has shown the greatest survivorship at 10 years in patients younger than age 60 years?
Explanation
Poor survivorship of cemented sockets in young patients has lead to the development of a variety of cementless designs. Of these, smooth metal-backed sockets have not performed as well as porous-coated designs. Threaded metal-backed sockets showed a 6% to 25% revision rate secondary to aseptic loosening at a mean follow-up of 4.5 to 6 years. Despite some early failed designs, cementless porous-coated metal-backed sockets have shown the best survivorship in long-term studies. Smith SE, Harris WH: Total hip arthroplasty performed with insertion of the femoral component with cement and the acetabular component without cement: Ten to thirteen-year study. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1997;79:1827-1833.
Question 66
Based on the radiographic findings shown in Figure 41, which of the following wrist ligaments is most likely disrupted?
Explanation
The radiograph shows a diastasis of the scapholunate interval, caused by certain failure of the scapholunate interosseous ligament. The lunotriquetral interosseous ligament stabilizes the lunotriquetral joint. The long radiolunate ligament originates in the volar radius and inserts in the lunate. The short radiolunate ligament originates on the ulnar margin of the radius and inserts on the ulnar margin of the lunate. The ulnolunate ligament originates at the ulnar styloid base and inserts on the volar aspect of the lunate. Linscheid RL, Dobyns JH, Beabout JW, et al: Traumatic instability of the wrist: Diagnosis, classification, and pathomechanics. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1972;54:1612-1632. Mayfield JK, Johnson RP, Kilcoyne RK: Carpal dislocations: Pathomechanics and progressive perilunar instability. J Hand Surg Am 1980;5:226-241.
Question 67
The majority of severe cervical spine injuries occurring in contact sports evolve during axial loading and flexion of the cervical spine. At what minimum degree of flexion does axial loading place the cervical spine at risk during contact sports?
Explanation
The paravertebral musculature, the intervertebral disks, and the normal lordotic curvature of the cervical spine can absorb much of the imparted energy of collision. However, when the neck is flexed approximately 30 degrees, the normal lordotic curvature is flattened and the forces applied to the vertex of the head are directed at a straight segmented column. In this situation, the cervical spine is less able to absorb the applied force. With mounting axial load, compressive deformation occurs within the intervertebral disks, causing angular deformation and buckling. The spine will fail in flexion, with resultant fracture, subluxation, or dislocation. A rotatory component added to axial compression can cause concomitant extension, rotation, and shear injury patterns. The National Football Head and Neck Injury Registry has made two recommendations to the NCAA Football Rules Committee to minimize the risk of such injuries: (1) No player should intentionally strike an opponent with the crown or top of the helmet; and (2) No player should deliberately use his helmet to butt or ram an opponent. Thomas BE, McCullen GM, Yuan HA: Cervical spine injuries in football players. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1999;7:338-347.
Question 68
Which of the following design features of a femoral component used in a total knee arthroplasty best minimizes the patellar component contact stresses?
Explanation
Several studies have shown that design of the femoral component, especially the trochlear groove portion, largely influences patellar tracking and patellofemoral contact stresses. A deep, curved anatomic femoral trochlear groove has been shown to have the lowest contact stresses. Petersilge WJ, Oishi CS, Kaufman KR, Irby SE, Colwell CW Jr: The effect of trochlear design on patellofemoral shear and compressive forces in total knee arthroplasty. Clin Orthop 1994;309:124-130. Theiss SM, Kitziger KJ, Lotke PS, Lotke PA: Component design affecting patellofemoral complications after total knee arthroplasty. Clin Orthop 1996;326:183-187.
Question 69
A 24-year-old woman who has hypotension, a head injury, and who experienced a poor response to resuscitation has been taken to the operating room for a splenectomy. Following abdominal surgery she remains unstable with increasing pulmonary respiratory pressures and decreasing oxygen saturation. She has a transverse mid-diaphyseal fracture of the tibia with a 4-cm laceration and soil-contaminated muscle in the wound. Based on these findings, management should consist of
Explanation
Because the patient is critically ill and requires expeditious care, stabilization of the long bone fracture is required, but definitive care of the fracture should be postponed. The treatment of choice at this time is irrigation with 12 L of saline solution, followed by debridement and nondefinitive stabilization with a simple four-pin external frame to regain axial and rotational alignment. When the patient's condition is more stable, more definitive care can be performed. Bosse MJ, Kellam JF: Orthopaedic management decisions in the multiple trauma patient, in Browner BD, Jupiter JP, Levine AM, Trafton P (eds): Skeletal Trauma, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1998, pp 151-164. Weresh MJ, Stover MD, Bosse MJ, Jeray K, Kellam JF: Pulmonary gas exchange during intramedullary fixation of femoral shaft fractures. J Trauma 1999;46:863-868.
Question 70
Based on the findings seen in the posteroanterior radiograph of the wrist shown in Figure 17, which of the following structures is torn?
Explanation
The radiograph shows widening between the scaphoid and lunate. The normal variance is up to 5 mm. Although several ligaments may be torn, the scapholunate interosseous ligament must be torn for this widening to occur. Cooney WP, Linscheid RL, Dobyns JH: The Wrist: Diagnosis and Operative Treatment. St Louis, MO, Mosby-Year Book, 1998, vol 1, pp 503-506.
Question 71
A 54-year-old man undergoes uneventful anterior cervical diskectomy and interbody fusion at C4-5 for focal disk herniation and C5 radiculopathy. At the 3-week follow-up examination, the patient reports a persistent cough. Pulmonary evaluation reveals a mild but persistent aspiration. Laryngoscopy reveals partial paralysis of the left vocal cord, most likely caused by
Explanation
The exact anatomic event responsible for vocal cord paralysis associated with anterior cervical surgery remains a question. Apfelbaum and associates, in an excellent review of 900 anterior cervical surgeries, identified 30 patients with vocal cord paralysis, 3 of which were permanent. They showed that retractors placed under the longus coli for anterior cervical exposures can compress the laryngeal-tracheal branches within the larynx against the tented endotracheal tube rather than the recurrent laryngeal nerve, which is extrinsic to the larynx. By releasing the endotracheal cuff and allowing the tube to recenter itself after placement of the retractors, they were able to decrease vocal cord injury from 6.4% to 1.7%. Jewett and associates suggested that a left-sided approach may result in a lower incidence of injury. Endotracheal intubation is the second most common cause of vocal cord injury, with an incidence of approximately 2%. Apfelbaum RI, Kriskovich MD, Haller JR: On the incidence, cause, and prevention of recurrent laryngeal nerve paralysis during anterior cervical spine surgery. Spine 2000;25:2906-2912.
Question 72
Figure 48a shows the full-leg standing radiograph of a patient with a prior femoral fracture. Figure 48b shows the lateral view of the same joint. The patient is scheduled to undergo total knee arthroplasty. Because the mechanical axis of the lower extremity in patients with a prior femoral fracture may be disrupted, which of the following should be used during surgery to restore the mechanical axis of the lower extremity in this patient?
Explanation
The radiograph shows hardware that was used for fixation of a prior femoral fracture. The mechanical axis of the lower extremity in this patient is nearly normal (3 degrees valgus), and the deformity at the healed fracture site (14 degrees) does not appear to affect the joint alignment and is acceptable. Use of a routine knee prosthesis will be possible in this patient. To avoid hardware removal, extramedullary jigs and/or computerized navigation may be used to measure and restore the long axis of the femur. The use of a hinged prosthesis does not influence the mechanical axis directly. Extra-articular osteotomy is occasionally needed to reverse severe deformities. Papadopoulos EC, Parvizi J, Lai CH, et al: Total knee arthroplasty following distal femoral fractures. Knee 2002;9:267-274.
Question 73
A 68-year-old man embarks on a 24-week strength training program. He trains at 80% of his single repetition maximum for both the upper and lower extremities. Which of the following changes can be anticipated?
Explanation
Consistent, long-term exercise training in older athletes has proven very beneficial in reversing both endurance and strength losses that traditionally have been seen with aging. This patient's program will lead to a significant increase in the strength, cross-sectional area, and capillary density of the trained muscles. No major changes in aerobic capacity are anticipated. Strength improvements of up to 5% per day, similar to those for younger athletes, have been identified in this population in one study. Kirkendall DT, Garrett WE Jr: The effects of aging and training on skeletal muscle. Am J Sports Med 1998;26:598-602.
Question 74
Figure 10 shows the AP radiograph of an ambulatory 76-year-old patient. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment option for this patient?
Explanation
The patient has a periprosthetic fracture around a loose cemented femoral component. The proximal bone stock is poor; therefore, this fracture may be categorized as Vancouver 3-B. Hip arthrodesis and resection arthroplasty provide suboptimal results, particularly for ambulatory patients. Although impaction allografting may be an option to restore the bone stock in a younger patient, the latter procedure will be very difficult to perform when the proximal bone is poor in quality and fractured. Cementing another component into this wide femur is not an option. The best option for revision of the femoral component in this elderly patient is proximal femoral replacement arthroplasty. Malkani AL, Settecerri JJ, Sim FH, et al: Long-term results of proximal femoral replacement for non-neoplastic disorders. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1995;77:351-356.
Question 75
A 67-year-old woman is seen in the emergency department after falling at home. Radiographs before and after treatment are shown in Figures 49a and 49b, respectively. Which of the following best explains the 8-week postinjury clinical findings seen in Figure 49c?
Explanation
Patients older than age 40 years at the time of initial anterior dislocation have low rates of redislocation; however, 15% of these patients experience a rotator cuff tear. Moreover, there is a dramatic increase (up to 40%) in the incidence of rotator cuff tears in patients older than age 60 years. Axillary nerve injury may occur but is less common than rotator cuff tear. Koval KJ (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 7. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 273-284.
Question 76
What patient factor is predictive of better outcomes for surgical management of a displaced calcaneal fracture compared to nonsurgical management?
Explanation
A recent randomized trial of surgical versus nonsurgical management of calcaneal fractures showed that patients who were on workers' compensation did poorly with surgical care. These patients had less favorable outcomes regardless of their initial management. Factors such as age, smoking, and vasculopathies compromise skin healing, leading to greater surgical risks. The best results were obtained in patients who are younger than age 40 years, have unilateral injuries and are injured during noncompensable activities. Women tend to do better with surgery than men. Howard JL, Buckley R, McCormack R, et al: Complications following management of displaced intra-articular calcaneal fractures: A prospective randomized trial comparing open reduction internal fixation with nonoperative management. J Orthop Trauma 2003;17:241-249.
Question 77
Figure 21 shows the radiograph of an 18-year-old man who was brought to the emergency department with shoulder pain following a rollover accident on an all-terrain vehicle. Examination reveals a fracture with massive swelling; however, the skin is intact and not tented over the fracture. Based on these findings, initial management should consist of
Explanation
The radiographic and clinical findings suggest a scapulothoracic dissociation with a widely displaced clavicular fracture and a laterally displaced scapula. These injuries have a high association with neurovascular injuries to the brachial plexus and subclavian artery. Emergent vascular evaluation with arteriography and possible vascular repair are indicated. This repair can be combined with open reduction and internal fixation of the clavicle to improve stability. Delay in treatment of these vascular injuries can be devastating. Iannotti JP, Williams GR (eds): Disorders of the Shoulder. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott, 1999, pp 632-635.
Question 78
Figures 39a and 39b show the radiographs of an otherwise healthy 10-year-old boy who has had thigh pain and a limp for the past 9 months. Examination reveals that the left lower extremity is 1 cm shorter, with reduced flexion, abduction, and internal rotation on the left side. The patient is at the 50th percentile for height and the 90th percentile for weight. Serum studies will most likely show
Explanation
The patient has a slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE) at a younger than average age (average age 13.5 years for boys and 12.0 years for girls); therefore, an etiology that is not idiopathic must be considered. Hypothyroidism can result in a SCFE, but these children typically fall into the category of less than the 10th percentile for height. SCFE may develop in children with a growth hormone deficiency who have undergone hormonal replacement. Osteodystrophy caused by chronic renal failure may result in a SCFE, but the bone quality is markedly osteopenic on radiographs and the children are chronically ill with both low height and weight percentiles. An elevated estrogen level results in physeal closure and is protective to physeal slippage. Therefore, this child will most likely have normal laboratory values. Loder RT, Hensinger RN: Slipped capital femoral epiphysis associated with renal failure osteodystrophy. J Pediatr Orthop 1997;17:205-211.
Question 79
The postoperative neurologic prognosis of a patient who has a tumor that is compressing the spinal cord and causing a neurologic deficit depends primarily on the
Explanation
The tumor biology, location, and pretreatment neurologic status are the best predictors of a patient's postoperative neurologic prognosis. Between 60% to 90% of patients who are ambulatory at the time of diagnosis will retain this ability after treatment. Location is important in that less space is available for the cord in the thoracic spine. Lesions located in vascular watershed regions may disrupt the vascular supply of the cord. Weinstein JN: Differential diagnosis and surgical treatment of primary benign and malignant neoplasms, in Frymoyer JW (ed): The Adult Spine: Principles and Practice. New York, NY, Raven Press, 1991, vol 1, pp 829-860.
Question 80
Closure of the rotator cuff interval results in elimination of which direction of shoulder instability?
Explanation
The rotator cuff interval consists of the superior glenohumeral and coracohumeral ligaments. Injury to this ligament complex leads to posteroinferior shoulder instability. Tightening of these tissues through surgical means has been shown to result in a significant reduction in posteroinferior translation of the humerus in relation to the glenoid. Harryman DT II, Sidles JA, Harris SL, et al: The role of the rotator interval capsule in passive motion and stability of the shoulder. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1992;74:53-66. O'Brien SJ, Schwartz RS, Warren RF, et al: Capsular restraints to anterior-posterior motion of the abducted shoulder: A biomechanical study. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 1995;4:298-308.
Question 81
A 25-year-old woman has significant pain and swelling in her left ankle after falling off her bicycle. Examination reveals that she is neurovascularly intact. Radiographs are shown in Figures 33a through 33c. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Explanation
The radiographs show a displaced ankle fracture with widening of the syndesmosis. Open reduction and internal fixation is indicated with fixation of the mortise with syndesmotic screws. Wuest TK: Injuries to the distal lower extremity syndesmosis. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1997;5:172-181.
Question 82
A 72-year-old man has had persistent pain after undergoing a hemiarthroplasty 18 months ago. Radiographs are shown in Figures 50a and 50b. What is the most likely cause of his problem?
Explanation
The radiographs demonstrate a rapid erosion of the bipolar component into the acetabulum. Although acetabular erosion is more common with unipolar hip arthroplasties, it can occur with bipolar components. Haidukewych and associates noted a very low erosion rate but none in the first 2 years. The second finding on the radiographs is the linear radiolucency progressing from the joint toward the end of the stem at the cement-bone interface suggesting chronic infection or diffuse loosening. The persistent pain since implantation also suggests chronic infection. High activity levels and osteoporosis do not lead to acetabular erosion in the first 2 years after hemiarthroplasty. While the cement technique is suboptimal, loosening and erosion should not be expected from this alone. An oversized bipolar head would extrude and not erode. Haidukewych GJ, Israel TA, Berry DJ: Long-term survivorship of cemented bipolar hemiarthroplasty for fracture of the femoral neck. Clin Orthop Relat Res 2002;403:118-126. Lestrange NR: Bipolar hemiarthroplasty for 496 hip fractures. Clin Orthop Relat Res 1990;251:7-19.
Question 83
A patient with a left-sided C6-7 herniated nucleous pulposis would likely have which of the following constellation of findings?
Explanation
A C6-7 herniation affects the C7 root. The C7 root has the middle finger as its predominant sensory distribution. Its motor function is the triceps, wrist extension, and finger metacarpophalangeal extension. The reflex is the triceps. Magee D: Principles and concepts, in Orthopedic Physical Assessment, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1997, pp 1-18.
Question 84
Figure 21 shows the AP radiograph of a 41-year-old patient who sustained a closed bicolumnar fracture of the distal humerus that resulted in a painful nonunion. What is the best initial construct for rigid stabilization of this fracture pattern?
Explanation
The dual plate fixation construct is significantly stronger than single plate or "Y" plate fixation. Two-plate constructs at right angles, the ulnar plate medially and the lateral plate posteriorly, would appear to be biomechanically optimal. This approach usually is feasible at the time of surgery. Clinically, dual 3.5-mm reconstruction or dynamic compression plates are superior to one third tubular plate fixation. Supplementary external fixation is not considered a better treatment option. Failure of fixation and nonunion are often the result of inadequate fixation and osteoporosis. Helfet DL, Hotchkiss RN: Internal fixation of the distal humerus: A biomechanical comparison of methods. J Orthop Trauma 1990;4:260-264.
Question 85
What is the most common complication following total disk arthroplasty in the lumbar spine?
Explanation
In a midterm (7 to 11 years) follow-up study of lumbar total disk arthroplasty, 5 of 55 patients had transient radicular leg pain without evidence of nerve root compression. Implant migration is rare. Deep venous thrombosis, incisional hernia, and retrograde ejaculation are less common complications of disk arthroplasty.
Question 86
An 18-year-old football player reports acute pain and swelling after a direct injury to his plantar flexed foot. Examination reveals midfoot swelling and tenderness. Nonstanding radiographs are normal. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Explanation
Differentiating between a midfoot sprain and Lisfranc diastasis is critical in the management of the athlete with an acute injury to the midfoot. Greater than 2 mm of displacement between the first and second metatarsals on a weight-bearing radiograph is an indication for anatomic reduction with internal fixation of the tarsometatarsal joints. If no subluxation is noted, treatment should consist of a non-weight-bearing cast for 6 weeks, followed by a gradual return to activity. Mizel MS, Miller RA, Scioli MW (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Foot and Ankle 2. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1998, pp 39-54.
Question 87
In Dupuytren's disease, the retrovascular cord typically displaces the radial proper digital nerve of the ring finger in what direction?
Explanation
Retrovascular cords are common in Dupuytren's disease and commonly require surgical treatment. Nerve injury in Dupuytren's surgery is an infrequent complication that occurs partly because the digital nerves can be displaced from their normal anatomic relationships by retrovascular cords. The nerves are displaced superficially, toward the center of the digit (palmarly and ulnarly). This displacement is typically seen at the level of the metacarpophalangeal joint.
Question 88
A 2-year-old child has been referred for management of congenital kyphosis. Neurologic examination is normal, and radiographs show a type I congenital kyphosis. Which of the following anomalies is seen in the MRI scan shown in Figure 6?
Explanation
There is a high incidence of intraspinal anomalies in patients with congenital scoliosis and kyphosis. Bradford and associates reported an incidence rate of 38% in 42 patients. The MRI scan shows that the filum terminale is thickened and adherent distally in the spinal canal. Although the conus is at L1, which may be normal, neurologic dysfunction may occur with further growth. There are no signals of high intensity within the cord that would suggest a syrinx. A Chiari II malformation would be found in the upper cervical region, not shown in this MRI scan. Meningocele and diastematomyelia are not present. Bradford DS, Heithoff KB, Cohen M: Intraspinal abnormalities and congenital spine deformities: A radiographic and MRI study. J Pediatr Orthop 1991;11:36-41.
Question 89
What is the most common foot and ankle deformity in patients with arthrogryposis?
Explanation
Clubfoot (talipes equinovarus) in patients with arthrogryposis is a rigid and resistant deformity. However, multiple studies document limited success with nonsurgical management. Manipulation and casting are generally a preliminary treatment before surgery; successful correction will most like require a talectomy. Guidera KJ, Drennan JC: Foot and ankle deformities in arthrogryposis multiplex congenita. Clin Orthop 1985;194:93-98. Handelsman JE, Badalamente MA: Neuromuscular studies in clubfoot. J Pediatr Orthop 1981;1:23-32.
Question 90
A 5-year-old boy sustained an elbow injury. Examination in the emergency department reveals that he is unable to flex the interphalangeal joint of his thumb and the distal interphalangeal joint of his index finger. The radial pulse is palpable at the wrist, and sensation is normal throughout the hand. Radiographs are shown in Figures 6a and 6b. In addition to reduction and pinning of the fracture, initial treatment should include
Explanation
The findings are consistent with a neurapraxia of the anterior interosseous branch of the median nerve. This is the most common nerve palsy seen with supracondylar humerus fractures, followed closely by radial nerve palsy. Nearly all cases of neurapraxia following supracondylar humerus fractures resolve spontaneously, and therefore, further diagnostic studies and surgery are not indicated. Cramer KE, Green NE, Devito DP: Incidence of anterior interosseous nerve palsy in supracondylar humerus fractures in children. J Pediatr Orthop 1993;13:502-505.
Question 91
A 26-year-old man sustains a displaced bimalleolar fracture by sliding into second base while playing baseball. Following initial closed reduction and splinting of the fracture, moderate swelling is noted. What is the safest time to perform surgery?
Explanation
Following any closed fracture, the most important determinant for the timing of surgery is the condition of the soft tissues and especially the skin. The best determinant of appropriate soft-tissue condition is the presence of wrinkling of the skin (wrinkle sign) at the site of the incision. A wrinkle sign is present when all the interstitial edema has left the skin; this may take up to 14 to 21 days of elevation. Any abrasion must be epithelialized so that there are no bacteria left at the site. To date, no other method of soft-tissue viability measurement has been shown to be of any clinical benefit. Stover MD, Kellam JF: Articular fractures: Principles, in Ruedi TP, Murphy WM (eds): AO Principles of Fracture Management. Stuttgart, Thieme, 2000, pp 105-119. Hahn DM, Colton CL, Malleolar fractures, in Ruedi TP, Murphy WM (eds): AO Principles of Fracture Management. Stuttgart, Thieme, 2000, pp 559-581.
Question 92
What is the most common malignant tumor of the foot?
Explanation
Whereas chondrosarcoma is the most frequently occurring malignant bone tumor of the foot and synovial sarcoma is the most common soft-tissue foot malignancy, the most common malignant tumor overall is melanoma. It constitutes approximately 25% of lesions found on the lower extremity. Furthermore, 31% of all melanomas arise in the foot. Mizel MS, Miller RA, Scioli MW (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Foot and Ankle 2. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1998, pp 11-26.
Question 93
A 28-year-old man who sustained an ankle fracture in a motor vehicle accident underwent open reduction and internal fixation 3 months ago. He continues to report significant ankle pain with ambulation. Radiographs are shown in Figure 26. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Explanation
The patient sustained a bimalleolar ankle fracture with a syndesmosis disruption. The initial open reduction and internal fixation did not successfully reduce the distal tibiofibular joint. The patient may need a derotational distraction osteotomy of the fibula to reduce the syndesmosis. The other procedures do not address the primary problem of the fibular malunion and syndesmosis malreduction. There is no radiographic evidence of significant arthritis; therefore, ankle arthrodesis is not indicated.
Question 94
What is the most common cause of rotator cuff injury in high school athletes?
Explanation
A large number of etiologies of rotator cuff injury have been proposed. Both intrinsic and extrinsic mechanisms have been suggested. In the young athlete the common underlying mechanism is overuse. Contributing factors include increased laxity, anatomic variation in the coracoacromial arch, and altered kinematics. Wilkins KE: Shoulder injuries: Epidemiology, in Stanitski CL, DeLee JC, Drez D Jr (eds): Pediatric and Adolescent Sports Medicine. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1994, pp 175-182.
Question 95
What is the most common cause for poor outcomes in patients who undergo total shoulder arthroplasty?
Explanation
In an article in the Journal of Shoulder and Elbow, 431 total shoulder arthroplasties were performed with a cemented all-polyethylene glenoid component between 1990 and 2000. Follow-up averaged 4.2 years. In total, 53 surgical complications occurred in 53 patients (12%). Of these, 32 were major complications (7.4%), with 17 of these requiring reoperation. Index complications in order of frequency included rotator cuff tearing, postoperative glenohumeral instability, and periprosthetic humeral fracture. Notably, glenoid and humeral component loosening requiring reoperation occurred in only one shoulder. Data from the contemporary patient group suggest that there are fewer complications of shoulder arthroplasty and less need for reoperation. Especially striking is the near absence of component revision because of loosening or other mechanical factors. Complications involving the brachial plexus have been reported following total shoulder arthroplasty but are not as common of a cause for failure. Chin PY, Sperling JW, Cofield RH, et al: Complications of total shoulder arthroplasty: Are they fewer or different? J Shoulder Elbow Surg 2006;15:19-22.
Question 96
A 37-year-old recreational tennis player undergoes surgery for tennis elbow. Following surgery, she describes clicking and popping on the lateral aspect of the elbow. A lateral pivot shift test is positive. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
Explanation
The patient has a posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) of the elbow that is most likely the result of iatrogenic injury to the lateral ulnar collateral ligament, the main ligament implicated in PLRI. The anterior band of the medial collateral ligament is implicated in valgus instability. Injury to the radial nerve is unlikely, and the lateral radial collateral ligament makes less of a contribution to elbow stability than does the ulnar component. While the origin of the extensor carpi radialis brevis may contribute to elbow stability, it is not as important a stabilizer as the lateral ulnohumeral ligament. O'Driscoll SW, Morrey BF: Surgical reconstruction of the lateral collateral ligament, in Morrey BF (ed): The Elbow. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott, Williams and Wilkins, 1994, pp 169-182.
Question 97
Figure 20 shows the MRI scan of a 20-year-old athlete who has a painful shoulder. This pathology is most commonly seen in
Explanation
The MRI scan reveals a posterior labral detachment. This injury is the result of a posteriorly directed force and is common to football players in blocking positions. Although this injury can occur with trauma in all types of athletes, it is seen with relative frequency in football. Treatment is aimed at labral repair with posterior capsulorrhaphy. Both open and arthroscopic techniques can be used. Misamore GW, Facibene WA: Posterior capsulorrhaphy for the treatment of traumatic recurrent posterior subluxations of the shoulder in athletes. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 2000;9:403-408.
Question 98
Pacinian corpuscles are lamellated nerve endings that are responsible for providing the perception of
Explanation
Pacinian corpuscles are nerve endings that provide the perception of pressure.
Question 99
Which of the following tendons is found in the same dorsal compartment of the wrist as the posterior interosseous nerve?
Explanation
The terminal branch of the posterior interosseous nerve is contained in the fourth dorsal compartment. The contents of the various dorsal wrist compartments are as follows: 1st Compartment: Abductor pollicis longus, extensor pollis brevis; 2nd Compartment: Extensor carpi radialis brevis, extensor carpi radialis longus; 3rd Compartment: Extensor pollicis longus; 4th Compartment: Extensor digitorum comminus, extensor indicus proprius, posterior interosseous nerve; 5th Compartment: Extensor digiti minimi; 6th Compartment: Extensor carpi ulnaris. The extensor indicis proprius is also contained in the fourth dorsal compartment. The extensor digiti minimi is located in the fifth dorsal compartment. The extensor carpi radialis brevis is located in the second dorsal compartment. The extensor pollicis longus is located in the third dorsal compartment, and the abductor pollicis longus is located in the first dorsal compartment. Hoppenfeld S, deBoer P: Surgical Exposures in Orthopaedics, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1994, pp 150-151.
Question 100
Figure 16 shows the radiograph of an otherwise healthy 62-year-old woman who fell. Management should consist of
Explanation
The radiograph reveals that the femoral component is grossly loose as evidenced by disruption of the cement column; therefore, retention of the original components will not yield a successful outcome. A cementless revision is the procedure of choice. A strut graft and/or plate may be added at the surgeon's discretion. A resection arthroplasty would only be considered in a nonambulatory patient. Cemented fixation of the revision component would be problematic given the numerous fracture fragments and the inability to contain the cement. Springer BD, Berry DJ, Lewallen DG: Treatment of periprosthetic fractures following total hip arthroplasty with femoral component revision. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2003;85:2156-2162.