العربية

100 Orthopedic MCQs: Trauma, Spine, Peds & Basic Science | Comprehensive ABOS Review

Updated: Feb 2026 20 Views
Comprehensive 100-Question Exam
00:00
Start Quiz
Question 1
What patient factor is predictive of better outcomes for surgical management of a displaced calcaneal fracture compared to nonsurgical management?
Trauma 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 33
Explanation
A recent randomized trial of surgical versus nonsurgical management of calcaneal fractures showed that patients who were on workers' compensation did poorly with surgical care. These patients had less favorable outcomes regardless of their initial management. Factors such as age, smoking, and vasculopathies compromise skin healing, leading to greater surgical risks. The best results were obtained in patients who are younger than age 40 years, have unilateral injuries and are injured during noncompensable activities. Women tend to do better with surgery than men. Howard JL, Buckley R, McCormack R, et al: Complications following management of displaced intra-articular calcaneal fractures: A prospective randomized trial comparing open reduction internal fixation with nonoperative management. J Orthop Trauma 2003;17:241-249.
Question 2
A 38-year-old man has winging of the ipsilateral scapula after undergoing a transaxillary resection of the first rib 3 weeks ago. What is the most likely cause of this finding?
Shoulder 2002 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 7
Explanation
During transaxillary resection of the first rib, the long thoracic nerve is at risk as it passes either through or posterior to the middle scalene muscle. Injury to this nerve may occur as the result of overly aggressive retraction of the middle scalene during the procedure. Leffert RD: Thoracic outlet syndrome. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1994;2:317-325.
Question 3
A 48-year-old man reports localized plantar forefoot pain. Examination reveals a discrete callus (intractable plantar keratosis) with well-localized tenderness beneath the second metatarsal head. The callus most likely lies beneath what structure?
Explanation
A discrete or focal callus is a response to excessive weight-bearing stress beneath the lateral (fibular) condyle of a lesser metatarsal head (most commonly second). The other structures generally have not been associated with a discrete callus. Coughlin MJ, Mann RA: Keratotic disorders of the plantar skin, in Coughlin MJ, Mann RA (eds): Surgery of the Foot and Ankle, ed 6. St Louis, MO, Mosby-Year Book, 1993, pp 413-465.
Question 4
Which of the following factors can contribute to patellar subluxation following routine total knee arthroplasty?
Hip 2004 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 23
Explanation
Excessive resection of the lateral facet of the patella can lead to subluxation. Rotational alignment of the components can have a significant impact on patellar tracking. Internal rotation of the femoral component leads to more lateral alignment of the patella within the trochlear groove. Internal rotation and medial placement of the tibial component results in lateralization of the tibial tubercle with an increase in the Q angle. Excessive valgus alignment of the mechanical axis, or insufficient correction of preoperative valgus, has a similar effect on the Q angle, and both can result in a higher rate of tracking problems.
Question 5
A 28-year-old man has had a 2-year history of progressive lateral ankle pain. History reveals that he underwent a triple arthrodesis at age 13 for a tarsal coalition. The pain has been refractory to braces, custom inserts, and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. Weight-bearing radiographs of the ankle and foot are shown in Figures 3a through 3d. Surgical management should include which of the following?
Foot & Ankle 2009 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 8 Foot & Ankle 2009 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 9 Foot & Ankle 2009 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 10 Foot & Ankle 2009 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 11
Explanation
The patient has a valgus-supination triple arthrodesis malunion. Weight-bearing radiographs show excessive residual valgus through the subtalar joint, producing lateral subfibular impingement, and residual forefoot abduction and midfoot supination through the talonavicular joint, lateralizing the weight-bearing forces through the foot. The deformity is best managed with a medial displacement calcaneal osteotomy and transverse tarsal derotational osteotomy. Ankle arthroscopy and lateral ligament reconstruction are indicated in the event of ligament instability. Tendon transfer, lateral column lengthening, and heel cord lengthening are used for treatment of adult flatfoot from posterior tibial tendon insufficiency. Ankle arthrodesis and ankle arthroplasty are not indicated in this patient because the lateral ankle symptoms are the result of the underlying deformity in the hindfoot, the patient is young, and the ankle joint is relatively normal. Haddad SL, Myerson MS, Pell RF IV: Clinical and radiographic outcome of revision surgery for failed triple arthrodesis. Foot Ankle Int 1997;18:489-499.
Question 6
Figures 16a and 16b show the radiographs of an otherwise healthy 3 1/2-year-old boy who has an isolated deformity of the left leg. Definitive primary treatment of this condition should consist of
Pediatrics 2001 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 28 Pediatrics 2001 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 29
Explanation
Treatment of congenital pseudarthrosis of the tibia is problematic. To achieve union, a resection of the pseudarthrosis, stabilization, and bone grafting must be performed. Simple cast immobilization does not yield union. There are various options for the resection, immobilization, and grafting. On the first surgical attempt, retrograde intramedullary nailing offers the best chance for success by transfixing the ankle and subtalar joints with abundant autogenous bone grafting. Distraction osteogenesis and vascularized free fibular graft are reserved as salvage procedures. Gilbert A, Brockman R: Congenital pseudarthrosis of the tibia: Long-term follow-up of 29 cases treated by microvascular bone transfer. Clin Orthop 1995;314:37-44. Boero S, Catagni M, Donzelli O, Facchini R, Frediani PV: Congenital pseudarthrosis of the tibia associated with neurofibromatosis - 1: Treatment with Ilizarov's device. J Pediatr Orthop 1997;17:675-684.
Question 7
A 20-year-old collegiate football player sustains an injury to his left foot 3 weeks before the start of the fall season. Examination reveals localized tenderness over the lateral midfoot and normal foot alignment. Radiographs are shown in Figures 28a through 28c. What is the treatment of choice?
Foot & Ankle 2009 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 7 Foot & Ankle 2009 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 8 Foot & Ankle 2009 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 9
Explanation
Due to the relatively high incidence of delayed union and nonunion associated with this mildly displaced Jones-type fracture, and the temporal proximity to his playing season, intramedullary screw fixation is the treatment of choice in this collegiate athlete to best ensure healing and expedite his return to football. If nonsurgical management were elected, application of a non-weight-bearing short leg cast would be appropriate since a higher likelihood of healing is expected with it versus a short leg walking cast. The risk of recurrent fracture of fractures that heal with nonsurgical management has reportedly been high (approximately 30%). Quill GE: Fractures of the proximal fifth metatarsal. Orthop Clin North Am 1995;26:353-361. Torg JS, Balduini FC, Zelko RR, et al: Fractures of the base of the fifth metatarsal distal to the tuberosity: Classification and guidelines for nonsurgical and surgical management. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1984;66:209-214.
Question 8
A 35-year-old woman dislocated her right shoulder in a fall from a step stool several months ago. She now reports several painful recurrences. Examination reveals anterior and inferior apprehension that reproduces her symptoms. An MRI scan is shown in Figure 17. Management should consist of
Upper Extremity Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 16
Explanation
The MRI findings reveal a disruption of the humeral insertion of the glenohumeral ligaments and joint capsule (humeral avulsion of the glenohumeral ligament). This lesion has been reported to account for an 8% rate of recurrent dislocation in a subset of patients who are typically older than those with the more common lesions of the glenoid labrum (Bankart lesion). Open repairs have been reported to be successful in the prevention of recurrent instability. Since there is no Bankart lesion, open or arthroscopic labral repairs are not indicated. Nonsurgical management is possible if the patient does not want to undergo surgery; however, the recurrence rate is very high. Wolf EM, Cheng JC, Dickson K: Humeral avulsion of glenohumeral ligaments as a cause of anterior shoulder instability. Arthroscopy 1995;11:600-607. Bokor DJ. Conboy VB. Olson C: Anterior instability of the glenohumeral joint with humeral avulsion of the glenohumeral ligament: A review of 41 cases. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1999;81:93-96.
Question 9
A 30-year-old woman who runs approximately 30 miles a week has had right hip and groin pain for the past 3 weeks. Examination reveals an antalgic gait, limited motion of the right hip, and pain, especially with internal and external rotation. Plain radiographs are normal, and an MRI scan is shown in Figure 21. Management should consist of
Sports Medicine Board Review 2001: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 25
Explanation
A stress fracture of the hip is a relatively common problem in endurance sports. These fractures are classified as compression-side, tension-side, and displaced femoral neck fractures. The MRI scan shows a compression-side stress fracture. Compression-side fractures usually occur in the inferior or calcar area of the proximal femur, and non-weight-bearing crutch ambulation for 6 to 7 weeks will most likely result in healing. Once the patient is walking without pain or a limp, activities can be slowly increased. Because tension-side fractures have a high risk of displacement, treatment should consist of immediate internal fixation. Griffin LY (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Sports Medicine. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1994, pp 239-253.
Question 10
Which of the following is considered the best measure of the adequacy of resuscitation in the first 6 hours after injury?
Explanation
The end point of resuscitation is adequate tissue perfusion and oxygenation. Blood lactate is the end point of anaerobic metabolism. The level of blood lactate reflects global hypoperfusion and is directly proportional to oxygen debt. Two separate prospective studies have verified a significant difference in mortality when blood lactate was used as a measure of resuscitation when compared to traditional parameters (mean arterial pressure, urine output, central venous pressure, and heart rate). Base deficit is a direct measure of metabolic acidosis and an indirect measure of blood lactate levels. It correlates well with organ dysfunction, mortality, and adequacy of resuscitation. It is easy to measure, can be obtained rapidly, and is an excellent assessment of the adequacy of resuscitation. Porter JM, Ivatury RR: In search of the optimal end points of resuscitation in trauma patients: A review. J Trauma 1998;44:908-914.
Question 11
An active 72-year-old woman sustained a mid-diaphyseal right humerus fracture 16 months ago. History reveals that she was first treated with a brace for 7 months. Additional treatment consisted of intramedullary nailing 9 months ago. Recently the rod was removed, and the patient now reports pain and gross motion at the fracture site. Current radiographs are shown in Figures 37a and 37b. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Trauma 2000 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 22 Trauma 2000 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 23
Explanation
The patient has a well-established nonunion in a very porotic bone. Electrical stimulation has been found effective in treating tibial nonunions, but there is very little data on humeral nonunions, especially chronic well-established ones. Ultrasound stimulation is effective in accelerating fracture healing, but there is little data concerning the treatment of nonunions. Intramedullary nailing with bone graft is an option, but it maybe difficult to obtain a rigid construct in a very porotic bone. An Ilizarov-type external fixator would be an alternative, but there is little clinical data for the humerus and it may be poorly tolerated. A plate and screw construct with bone graft combines rigidity with the biologic advantage of the bone graft. A recent series reported on the use of a plate combined with onlay allograft for recalitrant nonunions. Cement augmentation for screw fixation either in the canal or added to the screw holes may be helpful in select cases. Hornicek FJ, Zych GA, Hutson JJ, Malinin TI: Salvage of humeral nonunions with onlay bone plate allograft augmentation. Clin Orthop 2001;386:203-209.
Question 12
Figure 10 shows the MRI scan of a 56-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer who now reports progressive paraparesis. Her general health remains good. Treatment should consist of
Spine Surgery Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 1
Explanation
If the patient's medical condition and prognosis remain good in the presence of significant and progressive neurologic deficit from cord compression, then the most reliable means of restoring function is via surgical decompression and fusion. Decompression should be directed toward the compressing structure (eg, anteriorly if the compression is from the anterior side). This procedure can be done via a posterolateral technique, such as costotransversectomy in some cases.
Question 13
A 6-year-old African-American boy with sickle cell disease has had pain and limited use of his right arm for the past 3 days. History reveals that he sustained a humeral fracture approximately 3 years ago. A lateral radiograph is shown in Figure 25. Based on these findings, a presumptive diagnosis of chronic osteomyelitis is made. What are the two most likely organisms?
Pediatrics 2004 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 3
Explanation
The risk of Salmonella osteomyelitis is much greater in patients with sickle cell disease than the general population. The exact reason for this increased risk is still unclear, but it appears to be associated with an increased incidence of gastrointestinal microinfarcts and abscesses. Both Staphylococcus aureus and Salmonella have been mentioned as the most prevalent causative organisms. Piehl FC, David RJ, Prugh SI: Osteomyelitis in sickle cell disease. J Pediatr Orthop 1993;13:225-227. Givner LB, Luddy RE, Schwartz AD: Etiology of osteomyelitis in patients with major sickle hemoglobinopathies. J Pediatr 1981;99:411-413. Epps CH Jr, Bryant DD III, Coles MJ, Castro O: Osteomyelitis in patients who have sickle-cell disease: Diagnosis and management. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1991;73:1281-1294.
Question 14
A 38-year-old man who is an avid tennis player has had persistent pain over the medial aspect of his knee for the past 6 years. He notes that the pain occurs on a daily basis with any significant activity. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs have failed to provide relief. Radiographs are shown in Figures 22a and 22b. What is the best course of action?
Hip & Knee Reconstruction Board Review 2007: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 12 Hip & Knee Reconstruction Board Review 2007: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 13
Explanation
In a relatively young patient who is an avid tennis player, the treatment of choice is a joint preserving procedure. The radiographs reveal varus alignment with loading of the medial compartment. After all nonsurgical management options have been used, the best treatment option is a medial opening wedge osteotomy. A lateral closing wedge osteotomy of the proximal tibia is also a reasonable option, but it is not one of the choices. A unicompartmental arthroplasty or a total knee arthroplasty would place significant restrictions in this patient. A unispacer may be a temporizing procedure but is controversial and without substantial data in the literature. The knee arthroscopy will not address the medial compartment osteoarthritis. Nagel A, Insall JN, Scuderi GR: Proximal tibial osteotomy: A subjective outcome study. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1996;78:1353-1358. Rinonapoli E, Mancini GB, Corvaglia A, et al: Tibial osteotomy for varus gonarthrosis: A 10- to 21-year followup study. Clin Orthop 1998;353:185-193.
Question 15
In the treatment of all magnitudes of bunionette deformities, what is the most common complication associated with lateral condylectomy of the fifth metatarsal head?
Explanation
When a lateral condylectomy alone is performed for all bunionette deformities, a high recurrence rate is expected. Lateral condylectomy should be used alone when the primary deformity is an enlarged lateral condyle of the fifth metatarsal head. In cases with significant divergence of the fifth metatarsal shaft in relationship to the fourth metatarsal shaft or with lateral bowing of the distal fifth metatarsal shaft, the lateral fifth metatarsal prominence will not be effectively reduced and recurrent symptoms and deformity are expected. Transfer metatarsalgia and/or dislocation of the metatarsophalangeal joint can infrequently occur with excessive metatarsal head excision. Arthrosis of the metatarsophalangeal joint has not been frequently reported. Coughlin MJ, Mann RA: Keratotic disorders of the plantar skin, in Coughlin MJ, Mann RA (eds): Surgery of the Foot and Ankle, ed 6. St Louis, MO, Mosby-Year Book, 1993, pp 413-465. Kelikian H: Deformities of the lesser toe, in Kelikian H (ed): Hallux Valgus, Allied Deformities of the Forefoot and Metatarsalgia. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1965, pp 327-330.
Question 16
Linazolid exerts its antimicrobial action by inhibiting bacterial
Explanation
Linazolid is the first agent of the oxazolidinone group of antibiotics and is very active against methicillin-sensitive Staphylococus aureus, S epidermidis, and vancomycin-resistant enterococci. The drug has no gram-negative activity. Linazolid inhibits protein synthesis by blocking formation of the 70S ribosomal translation complex. This mechanism of action is unique to the oxazolidinones. Rybak MJ, Cappelletty DM, Moldovan T, et al: Comparative in vitro activities and postantibiotic effects of the oxazolidinone compounds eperezolid (PNU-100592) and linezolid (PNU-100766) versus vancomycin against Staphylococcus aureus, coagulase-negative staphylococci, Enterococcus faecalis, and Enterococcus faecium. Antimicrob Agents Chemother 1998;42:721-724.
Question 17
When performing ankle arthroscopy through the anterolateral portal, what anatomic structure is at greatest risk?
Explanation
The superficial branch of the peroneal nerve travels subcutaneously anterior to the lateral malleolus at the ankle. It can be easily damaged by deep penetration of the knife blade when making this portal or when passing shavers in and out of the portal. Anesthesia or dysesthesia from laceration or neuroma formation can cause significant postoperative morbidity. The anterior tibialis tendon, anterior tibial artery, and the deep peroneal nerve are located much more anterior and central on the ankle. The sural nerve is posterior lateral to the ankle and is not at risk from this portal. Ferkel RD, Heath DD, Guhl JF: Neurological complications of ankle arthroscopy. Arthroscopy 1996;12:200-208.
Question 18
Manipulation under anesthesia for resistant frozen shoulder should be avoided in patients with
Explanation
Severe osteoporosis is a contraindication to manipulation under anesthesia in patients with a resistant frozen shoulder because of the higher risk of humeral fracture. Manipulation is considered for frozen shoulder in patients who are symptomatic despite undergoing a reasonable course of appropriate physical therapy. Harryman DT II: Shoulder: Frozen and stiff. Instr Course Lect 1997;42:247-257.
Question 19
A 52-year-old woman slipped on ice in her driveway. Radiographs are shown in Figures 19a and 19b. The patient was treated in a short leg cast with weight bearing as tolerated for 6 weeks. Due to persistent tenderness at the fracture site, a CAM walker was used for an additional 8 weeks. Nine months after the injury, the patient still walks with a limp and reports pain with deep palpation at the fracture site. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Foot & Ankle Board Review 2009: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 14 Foot & Ankle Board Review 2009: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 15
Explanation
Persistent pain at the fracture site in the absence of infection is most likely due to a nonunion, best detected by CT. Walsh and DiGiovanni reported on a series of closed rotational fibular fractures in which nonunions were detected by CT in the absence of standard ankle radiographic findings. Repeat immobilization would not be appropriate at this late date. Pain management/sympathetic blocks would be considered if the patient displayed pain with light touch and disproportionate pain consistent with a complex mediated pain syndrome. Acupuncture would be expected to be of limited benefit. Walsh EF, DiGiovanni C: Fibular nonunion after closed rotational ankle fracture. Foot Ankle Int 2004;25:488-495.
Question 20
Figures 46a through 46e show the radiographs of a 22-year-old man who injured his wrist in a motorcycle accident. He has no other injuries. What is the best course of action?
Upper Extremity 2005 Practice Questions: Set 5 (Solved) - Figure 6 Upper Extremity 2005 Practice Questions: Set 5 (Solved) - Figure 7 Upper Extremity 2005 Practice Questions: Set 5 (Solved) - Figure 8 Upper Extremity 2005 Practice Questions: Set 5 (Solved) - Figure 9 Upper Extremity 2005 Practice Questions: Set 5 (Solved) - Figure 10
Explanation
The patient has a fracture-dislocation of the radiocarpal joint. Attached to the large radial styloid fragment are the extrinsic wrist ligaments to the carpus. This injury should be treated with open reduction and internal fixation of the styloid fracture. Radiolunate fusion or extrinsic ligament repair is suggested when the extrinsic ligaments are ruptured, resulting in ulnar translocation of the carpus. Dumontier C, Meyer ZU, Reckendorf G, et al: Radiocarpal dislocations: Classification and proposal for treatment: A review of twenty-seven cases. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2001;83:212.
Question 21
Which of the following procedures is included in third-generation cement technique?
Explanation
The so-called third-generation cement technique adds porosity reduction techniques, centralization devices, and surface modifications to the femoral component. The surgeon must be aware of the meaning of the various generations of cement technique when interpreting the results presented at meetings and in the literature. Pellicci PM, Tria AJ Jr, Garvin KL (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Hip and Knee Reconstruction 2. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2000, pp 181-193.
Question 22
A 35-year-old male laborer with isolated posttraumatic degenerative arthritis of the right hip undergoes the procedure shown in Figure 8. What is the most appropriate position of the right lower extremity?
Hip 2004 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 22
Explanation
The primary indication for hip arthrodesis is isolated unilateral hip disease in a young, active patient. Avoiding abductor damage and preserving proximal femoral anatomy are imperative to allow conversion to a future total hip arthroplasty. Optimal positioning is 30 degrees of flexion to allow swing-through. Neutral abduction and adduction and slight external rotation allow the most efficient gait while allowing sufficient support in stance. A small degree of adduction is acceptable for a successful hip arthrodesis. Callaghan JJ, Brand RA, Pedersen DR: Hip arthrodesis: A long term follow-up. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1985;67:1328-1335.
Question 23
An otherwise healthy 35-year-old woman reports dorsal wrist pain and has trouble extending her thumb after sustaining a minimally displaced fracture of the distal radius 3 months ago. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Trauma Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 9
Explanation
Extensor pollicis longus tendon rupture can occur after a fracture of the distal radius, even a minimally displaced one. Poor vascularity of the tendon within the third dorsal compartment is the suspected etiology, not the displaced fracture fragments. Tendon transfer will suitably restore active extension of the thumb interphalangeal joint. Christophe K: Rupture of the extensor pollicis longus tendon following Colles fracture. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1953;35:1003-1005.
Question 24
A 6-year-old girl has the bilateral foot deformity shown in Figure 1. There is no family history of disease. Examination reveals fixed hindfoot equinus, and muscle function testing shows strong posterior tibial function, fair plus anterior tibial function, poor peroneal function, and strong gastrocnemius function. A Coleman block test shows a correctable hindfoot. Nerve conduction velocity studies show diminished function in the peroneal and ulnar nerves on both sides. Pathologic changes found in a sural nerve biopsy include "onion bulb" formation, and DNA testing confirms the presence of a mutation in the MPZ gene, consistent with hereditary motor sensory neuropathy type III (HMSN-III). What is the best course of action?
Pediatrics 2004 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 2
Explanation
The patient has HMSN-III or Dejerine-Sottas syndrome. This form of HMSN progresses very rapidly and frequently results in severe foot deformity in early childhood. The changes are progressive and are the result of muscle imbalance during growth. Balancing of the foot musculature is essential, particularly during the phases of rapid growth of the foot. However, this cannot be accomplished using the anterior tibial muscle because it is already weak and the transfer will further weaken it. Bony procedures also may be required, and tendon transfers cannot be depended on to correct bony deformity. However, these procedures can be deferred until the foot is closer to adult size. Surgeries that lead to joint arthrodesis, such as triple arthrodesis and some midfoot osteotomies, are contraindicated because the feet may lose protective sensation as the disease progresses. Fusions in insensate feet are less successful than realignment procedures that maintain mobility. Wetmore RS, Drennan JC: Long-term results of triple arthrodesis in Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1989;71:417-422. Roper BA, Tibrewal SB: Soft tissue surgery in Charcot-Marie-Tooth. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1989;71:17-20.
Question 25
What percent of patients initially diagnosed with classic, high-grade osteosarcoma of the extremity have visible evidence of pulmonary metastasis on CT of the chest?
Basic Science 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 9
Explanation
CT studies show that approximately 10% to 20% of patients with high-grade osteosarcoma have pulmonary metastases at diagnosis. Although not visible on current staging studies, it is believed that up to 80% of patients have micrometastatic disease that requires systemic chemotherapy. Because it is not possible to identify those patients who do not have disseminated micrometastatic disease, most patients are treated presumptively with chemotherapy. Kaste SC, Pratt CB, Cain AM, et al: Metastases detected at the time of diagnosis of primary pediatric extremity osteosarcoma at diagnosis: Imaging features. Cancer 1999;86:1602-1608.
Question 26
A 32-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus treated with methotrexate and oral corticosteroids reports right groin pain with ambulation and night pain. Examination reveals pain with internal and external rotation and flexion that is limited to 105 degrees because of discomfort. Laboratory studies show a serum WBC of 9.0/mm3 and an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 35 mm/h. Figures 5a and 5b show AP and lateral radiographs of the right hip. Further evaluation should include
Hip 2004 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 11 Hip 2004 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 12
Explanation
The radiographs show Ficat and Arlet stage 2 osteonecrosis. The femoral head remains round, and there are sclerotic changes in the superolateral quadrant. Patients with systemic lupus erythematosus are at risk for osteonecrosis because of prednisone use and the underlying metabolic changes associated with the condition (hypofibrinolysis and thrombophilia). MRI is the best diagnostic method for detecting osteonecrosis, with a greater than 98% sensitivity and specificity. For this patient, an MRI can assess the contralateral hip for any involvement and can quantify the extent of the lesion. Mont MA, Jones LC, Sotereanos DG, Amstutz HC, Hungerford DS: Understanding and treating osteonecrosis of the femoral head. Instr Course Lect 2000;49:169-185.
Question 27
Figure 14 shows a lateral radiograph of a knee joint. The bony structure indicated by the arrow is a sesamoid bone that resides in what tendon?
Anatomy Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 1
Explanation
The radiograph shows a fabella, a sesamoid bone that is usually found within the tendon of the lateral head of the gastrocnemius. It can be confused with a loose body on radiographs. It occurs in 18% of patients and is often bilateral. Anderson JE (ed): Grant's Atlas of Anatomy, ed 7. Baltimore, MD, Williams & Wilkins, 1978, pp 4-69.
Question 28
A 4-month-old infant is unable to flex her elbow as a result of an obstetrical brachial plexus palsy. This most likely illustrates a predominate injury to what structure?
Explanation
Erb's palsy is the most common form of obstetrical plexus palsy resulting in C5, C6, or upper trunk deficits. This causes loss of shoulder abduction and elbow flexion. The biceps muscle and the brachialis muscles are predominately responsible for flexion of the elbow. Each of these muscles is innervated by individual branches of the musculocutaneous nerve which are supplied predominately by axons from the C6 nerve root and the upper trunk of the brachial plexus. Netter F: The Ciba Collection of Medical Illustrations: The Musculoskeletal System, Part 1: Anatomy, Physiology and Metabolic Disorders. West Caldwell, NJ, Ciba-Geigy Corporation, 1987, vol 8, pp 28-29. Wolock B, Millesi H: Brachial plexus-applied anatomy and operative exposure, in Gelberman RH (ed): Operative Nerve Repair and Reconstruction. Philadelphia, PA, JB Lippincott, 1991, pp 1255-1272.
Question 29
A 32-year-old man has a closed oblique displaced fracture at the junction of the lower and middle third of the humeral shaft and a complete radial nerve palsy. Closed reduction is performed and is felt to be acceptable. Management of the radial nerve palsy should consist of
Explanation
In patients who have radial nerve dysfunction associated with a closed humeral fracture, nerve function usually will return to normal without surgical exploration. If clinical findings or electromyographic studies show no improvement at 3 months, surgical exploration and repair can be performed. Tendon transfers are performed if nerve repair is deemed unsuccessful. Pollock FH, Drake D, Bovill EG, et al: Treatment of radial neuropathy associated with fractures of the humerus. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1981;63:239-243.
Question 30
The MRI scan shown in Figure 24 reveals a right-sided herniated nucleus pulposus at L4-5 in a patient with pain in the right leg. Administration of a caudal epidural steroid injection provides immediate relief. Over the next week he notes generalized weakness of the lower extremities and has one episode of urinary incontinence. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Spine Surgery 2000 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 11
Explanation
Whenever a patient's condition changes following a test or a procedure, the physician must determine the cause. A steroid flare reaction will not cause incontinence or weakness of the lower extremities. An L4-5 diskectomy may alleviate the problem if the right-sided L4-5 disk herniation is the etiology of the symptoms. However, it is unlikely that a right-sided disk herniation alone will cause a cauda equina syndrome. Possible etiologies include a further extrusion of a disk fragment at L4-5 that now obliterates the spinal canal, a disk herniation at another level, or an epidural abscess following injection of corticosteroids through a caudal approach. In the presence of a possible infection, myelography should not be performed from a lumbar puncture. The fastest and least invasive way to make an appropriate diagnosis is to obtain an MRI of the lumbar spine. In this patient, the MRI revealed an epidural abscess that was compressing the cauda equina. Because of the large dose of steroids that were injected, the patient did not manifest symptoms such as fevers and chills until late in the course. Knight JW, Cordingley JJ, Palazzo MG: Epidural abscess following epidural steroid and local anaesthetic injection. Anaesthesia 1997;52:576-578.
Question 31
The parents of a 15-month-old child report that he is not yet walking. Further evaluation, rather than reassurance and observation, should be conducted if the child is not performing what other activity?
Pediatrics Board Review 2007: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 1
Explanation
A child not ambulating at age 15 months is still within normal limits. The child should be able to sit by age 9 months. The remaining milestones listed are reached later in development.
Question 32
Torsional moments about the longitudinal axis of a total hip arthroplasty show what change during stair climbing compared with walking?
Explanation
The magnitudes of out-of-plane loads on a total hip replacement during activities of daily living can be substantial. Bergmann and associates studied these forces about two instrumented hip prostheses. They noted that the torsional moment about the hip during stair climbing is twice as high as during slow walking and that similar moments are generated during slow jogging. Higher loads were noted when the patients stumbled without falling. They also noted that the torsional moments observed in vivo were close to or even exceeded the experimentally determined limits of the torsional strength of implant fixations. Hurwitz DE, Andriacchi TP: Biomechanics of the hip, in Callaghan JJ, Rosenberg AG, Rubash HE (eds): The Adult Hip. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Raven, 1998, pp 75-85.
Question 33
A 51-year-old woman with no preoperative neurologic deficit is undergoing elective anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion (ACDF) with plating and fusion for a C5-6 disk herniation with right-sided neck pain. Thirty minutes into the surgery the neurophysiologic monitoring shows a rapid drop and then loss of amplitude in the right cortical somatosensory-evoked potential waveform. All other waveforms remained normal and unchanged, including right-sided cervical (subcortical) and peripheral (Erb's point), and those from the left-sided upper extremity and both lower extremities. What is the most likely cause of the change?
Spine Surgery 2009 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 25
Explanation
The change noted is focal and confined to the cortex, sparing the opposite side, both lower extremities, and the subcortical waveforms, making all the choices unlikely with the exception of carotid compression with focal cortical ischemia. This may be associated with poor collateral flow from the opposite hemisphere due to an incomplete circle of Willis. Drummond JC, Englander RN, Gallo CJ: Cerebral ischemia as an apparent complication of anterior cervical discectomy in a patient with an incomplete circle of Willis. Anesth Analg 2006;102:896-899.
Question 34
Which of the following lesions is best suited for autologous chondrocyte implantation?
Explanation
Articular chondrocyte implantation is best performed for focal chondral defects of one area of the joint. It is not indicated for osteoarthritis. Mandelbaum BR, Brown JE, Fu F, et al: Articular cartilage lesions of the knee. Am J Sports Med 1998;26:853-861. Minas T, Nehrer S: Current concepts in the treatment of articular cartilage defects. Orthopedics 1997;20:525-538.
Question 35
An adult with a distal humeral fracture underwent open reduction and internal fixation. What is the most common postoperative complication?
Explanation
Most patients lose elbow range of motion after open reduction and internal fixation of a distal humeral fracture. Ulnar nerve dysfunction, nonunion, and infection all occur less commonly. Webb LX: Distal humerus fractures in adults. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1996;4:336-344.
Question 36
Posterior spinal fusion for scoliosis should be performed on a patient with Duchenne muscular dystrophy when
Explanation
Progressive scoliosis develops in most patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. The onset of spinal deformity typically follows the cessation of walking, and curves can be expected to progress about 10 degrees per year. Posterior spinal fusion with instrumentation should be performed as soon as a curve of 25 degrees or greater is documented and before deterioration of pulmonary function (a FVC of less than 30%) precludes surgery. Patients with kyphotic posture tend to progress more rapidly than those with lordotic posture. Brace treatment is contraindicated because it is not definitive and it may mask curve progression while pulmonary function is concomitantly worsening. Beaty JH (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 6. Rosemont, Ill, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1999, pp 635-651.
Question 37
Which of the following substances does not have androgenic effects?
Sports Medicine Board Review 2004: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 15
Explanation
Growth hormone is the most abundant substance produced by the pituitary gland. Growth hormone has a direct anabolic effect by accelerating the incorporation of amino acids into proteins. It is becoming an increasingly popular anabolic steroid substitute; however, it is expensive and difficult to obtain. Androstenedione is an androgen produced by the adrenal glands and gonads. It acts as a potent anabolic steroid and is converted in the liver directly to testosterone with a resultant increase in levels after administration. DHEA is a naturally occurring hormone made by the adrenal cortex. It is converted to androstenedione, which in turn is converted to testosterone. The beneficial and adverse effects of DHEA can be correlated directly with those of testosterone. Nandrolone is also a potent anabolic steroid. It is commonly taken as 19-norandrostenedione and may be more favored because of its potent anabolic effects with less androgenic effects (no conversion to estrogen compounds). Creatine sales have skyrocketed, and it is a popular nutritional supplement. There is an expectation that creatine can increase strength and power performance; however, direct anabolic effects have not been demonstrated. Creatine serves as a substrate for hydrogen ions and contributes to the resynthesis of ATP (adenosine triphosphate) during maximal exercise. By enhancing ATP production and buffering local pH in muscle, there may be improved tolerance of anaerobic activities. Increases in muscle mass may be related to increased perception of improved training ability or an increase in muscle water content. Silver M: Use of ergogenic aids by athletes. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2001;9:61-70.
Question 38
A 44-year-old man reports persistent left leg pain following a L5-S1 hemilaminotomy and partial diskectomy. Examination shows a grade 4 weakness of the left extensor hallucis longus and a positive left straight leg raise. A radiograph is shown in Figure 1a, and sagittal and axial MRI scans are shown in Figures 1b and 1c. Nonsurgical management consisting of medication, physical therapy, and injections has failed to provide relief. Surgical management should consist of
Spine Surgery 2009 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 4 Spine Surgery 2009 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 5 Spine Surgery 2009 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 6
Explanation
The patient has a grade I isthmic spondylolisthesis at L5-S1. He has an L5 radiculopathy with foraminal stenosis. Any further treatment needs to include an arthrodesis and foraminal decompression. Isolated interbody fusion is contraindicated in patients with spondylolisthesis, as is total disk arthroplasty. Therefore, the best procedure is a posterior fusion with instrumentation and bone graft along with a foraminal decompression. Spivak JM, Connolly PJ (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Spine 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2006, pp 311-317.
Question 39
Based on the findings seen at C5-6 in Figure 30, the most likely deficit for this patient will be weakness of the
Spine Surgery Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 3
Explanation
A herniated cervical disk at C5-6 causes a C6 radiculopathy. There are eight cervical nerve roots and seven cervical vertebrae, and C8 exits between the C7 and T1 vertebrae. The C6 nerve root typically innervates the biceps and wrist extensor. The deltoid is predominantly innervated by C5. The wrist flexor and triceps are predominantly innervated by C7. Grip strength is predominantly a function of C8.
Question 40
A previously asymptomatic 14-year-old girl sustained a twisting injury to her ankle. Radiographs are shown in Figures 2a and 2b. Management should consist of
Basic Science 2008 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 6 Basic Science 2008 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 7
Explanation
The radiographs show a well-defined, irregular, eccentric lesion in the distal tibia metaphysis with a thin sclerotic margin. The radiographs are diagnostic of nonossifying fibroma, a common entity in this age group and in this location. No further work-up is indicated. The patient was asymptomatic prior to the injury and the lesion is small and thus not worrisome for an impending pathologic fracture; therefore, no treatment is indicated beyond observation. The natural history of these lesions is to gradually ossify as the patient reaches skeletal maturity. Menendez LR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Musculoskeletal Tumors. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 69-75.
Question 41
Figures 5a and 5b show the radiographs of an active 52-year-old man who has increasing knee pain and progressive varus deformity after undergoing total knee arthroplasty 7 years ago. Examination reveals a small effusion, but he has good motion and stability. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Anatomy 2005 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 15 Anatomy 2005 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 16
Explanation
The radiographs show narrowing of the medial joint space, which indicates polyethylene wear and progressive varus alignment. Wear particles incite osteolytic lesions like the one seen on the lateral radiograph. O'Rourke MR, Callaghan JJ, Goetz DG, et al: Osteolysis associated with a cemented modular posterior-cruciate-substituting total knee design. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2002;84:1362-1371.
Question 42
Based on the findings shown in Figures 22a and 22b, corrective surgery to obtain maximal safe correction and optimal instrumentation fixation should be performed at which of the following locations?
Spine Surgery 2006 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 10 Spine Surgery 2006 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 11
Explanation
The clinical photograph and radiograph show an iatrogenic flatback deformity with loss of the normal lumbar lordosis. The safest correction for this malalignment typically is performed away from the spinal cord in the midlumbar spine, most commonly at L2 or L3. The more distal the correction is performed, the more sagittal plane translation of the C7 plumb line with respect to the posterior sacrum. Performing the osteotomy too distally, however, makes it difficult to obtain adequate distal fixation. Shufflebarger HL, Clark CE: Thoracolumbar osteotomy for postsurgical sagittal imbalance. Spine 1992;17:S287-S290.
Question 43
What normal tissue has a low signal intensity (appears black) on both T1- and T2-weighted images?
Anatomy 2002 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 3
Explanation
Tendons, cortical bone, ligaments, menisci, and fibrous tissue will show low signal intensity (SI) on both T1- and T2-weighted images. Fat-containing tissues, such as subcutaneous fat and bone marrow, will show high SI on T1-weighted images and low SI on T2-weighted images. Tissues with high water content, such as joint fluid, intervertebral disk, and edema, will show low SI on T1-weighted images and high SI on T2-weighted images. Kasser JR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 5. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1996, pp 65-70.
Question 44
The acceleration of an object under the influence of a force depends directly on the mass of the object. The angular acceleration of an object under the influence of a moment depends directly on the
Basic Science 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 3
Explanation
Similar to the action of a force, a moment tends to angularly accelerate an object in a manner proportional to a quantity related to the mass of the object. The concept of a more massive object requiring a larger force to cause the same straight line acceleration is straightforward. The concept for changing angular velocity is similar but not identical. The proportional constant between the moment and the resulting angular acceleration is the mass moment of inertia, which depends not only on the mass of the object, but also its distribution. The unit of mass moment of inertia is obtained by multiplying the mass of the object by the square of the distance between an equivalent location of the center of rotation of the object and an equivalent location of the center of mass. Orthopaedic surgeons can change both the amount of mass carried by a limb and the way that the mass is distributed. For example, in applying a cast to the leg, the physician can affect the mass of the cast by the choice of casting material and by the size of the cast. As the mass moment of inertia of the limb increases (eg, by applying the cast farther down on the leg or using a heavier casting material), the patient will need to exert larger moments to angularly accelerate the leg during gait. Andriacchi T, Natarajan RN, Hurwitz DE: Musculoskeletal dynamics, locomotion, and clinical applications, in Mow VC, Hayes WC (eds): Basic Orthopaedic Biomechanics, ed 2. New York, NY, Lippincott-Raven, 1997, pp 43-47.
Question 45
What percent of the adult human meniscus is vascularized?
Explanation
The adult menisci are considered to be relatively avascular structures, with the peripheral blood supply originating predominately from the lateral and medial genicular arteries. Branches of these vessels form the perimeniscal capillary plexus, which supplies the peripheral border throughout its attachment to the joint capsule. Vascular penetration studies have shown that 10% to 30% of the peripheral portion of the medial meniscus and 10% to 25% of the lateral meniscus are vascularized. Arnoczky SP, Warren RF: Microvasculature of the human meniscus. Am J Sports Med 1982;10:90-95.
Question 46
A 48-year-old woman reports bilateral thigh pain that is limiting her function as a librarian. A radiograph and a bone scan are shown in Figures 23a and 23b. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Anatomy Board Review 2008: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 17 Anatomy Board Review 2008: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 18
Explanation
The radiograph reveals bilateral severe acetabular protrusio. The bone scan and history confirm involvement of multiple joints, including the knees and the hindfoot. Although the first four choices can all cause the acetabular protrusio, the associated multiple joint involvement suggests the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Arthrokatadysis, or primary protrusio acetabuli, is often associated with osteomalacia but not other joint disease. Developmental dysplasia is a common cause of bilateral hip pathology but does not have acetabular protrusio. Resnick D: Diagnosis of Bone and Joint Disorders, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1995, pp 956-957. Wheeless' Textbook of Orthopaedics: Acetabular Protrusio. www.wheelessonline.com/ortho/acetabular_protrusio
Question 47
When compared to traditional open repair through a posterior incision, percutaneous Achilles tendon repair clearly results in a reduction of what complication?
Explanation
Prospective studies, including randomized and randomized multicenter reports, have shown that percutaneous or mini-open acute Achilles tendon repair has comparable functional results when compared to traditional open techniques. Calder and Saxby reported one superficial infection out of 46 patients with a mini-open repair; Assal and associates and Cretnik and associates had no wound complications or infections. The other complications have not proved to be less likely with the mini-open or percutaneous technique. Assal M, Jung M, Stern R, et al: Limited open repair of Achilles tendon ruptures: A technique with a new instrument and findings of a prospective multicenter study. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2002;84:161-170. Calder JD, Saxby TS: Early, active rehabilitation following mini-open repair of Achilles tendon rupture: A prospective study. Br J Sports Med 2005;39:857-859.
Question 48
Medial dislocation of the long head of the biceps tendon in the shoulder is most commonly caused by a
Explanation
Medial dislocation of the biceps tendon in the shoulder is commonly associated with subscapularis tendon tears. Although type II SLAP tears can result in bicipital instability, type I SLAP lesions do not. Congenitally shallow grooves and tears of the transverse ligaments usually do not lead to dislocation of the biceps tendon. Supraspinatus tendon tears are associated with long head of the biceps tendon ruptures but do not cause biceps tendon dislocations. Werner A, Mueller T, Boehm D, et al: The stabilizing sling for the long head of the biceps tendon in the rotator cuff interval: A histoanatomic study. Am J Sports Med 2000;28:28-31.
Question 49
A 55-year-old man reports increasing weakness in his arms that has progressed to his lower limbs, resulting in frequent tripping and falling. Examination reveals weakness in shoulder abduction and external and internal rotation bilaterally. Fasciculation is noted. He also has weakness in elbow flexion and extension bilaterally, and his grip strength is diminished. An electromyogram and nerve conduction velocity studies show decreased amplitude of compound motor action potential, slightly slowed motor conduction velocity, and denervation signs with decreased recruitment in all extremities. The sensory study is normal. Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Upper Extremity Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 27
Explanation
The major determinant of ALS (Lou Gehrig disease) is progressive loss of motor neurons. The loss usually begins in one area, is asymmetrical, and later becomes evident in other areas. The first signs of ALS may include either upper or lower motor neuron loss. Recognition of upper motor neuron involvement depends on clinical signs, but electromyography and nerve conduction velocity studies can help identify lower motor neuron involvement. Electrodiagnostic abnormalities in three or more areas are required to make a definitive diagnosis. The motor unit potentials (MUPs) changes in ALS include impaired MUPs recruitment, unstable MUPs, and abnormal MUPs size and configuration. A number of abnormal spontaneous discharges can occur with ALS, especially fibrillation potentials and fasciculation potentials. In ALS, the motor nerve conduction study will be abnormal, but a co-existing normal sensory study is definitive for this disease. de Carvalho M, Johnsen B, Fuglsang-Frederiksen A: Medical technology assessment: Electrodiagnosis in motor neuron diseases and amyotrophic lateral sclerosis. Neurophysiol Clin 2001;31:341-348. Daube JR: Electrodiagnostic studies in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis and other motor neuron disorders. Muscle Nerve 2000;23:1488-1502.
Question 50
Figures 42a and 42b show the radiographs of a 52-year-old man who sustained a fall from a motorcycle 6 months ago and now reports pain and stiffness in his left shoulder. What is the most reliable treatment to improve function and comfort of the shoulder?
Upper Extremity Board Review 2008: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 10 Upper Extremity Board Review 2008: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 11
Explanation
Appropriate treatment is based on multiple considerations, which include the chronicity of the dislocation, the amount of humeral head involvement, the medical condition, and functional limitations of the patient. It has been shown that shoulder arthroplasty for locked posterior dislocation provides pain relief and improved motion. Transfer of the lesser tuberosity with its attached subscapularis tendon into the defect is recommended for anteromedial humeral defects that are smaller than approximately 40% of the joint surface. Subscapularis transfer as described by McLaughlin and the modification thereof later described by Hawkins and associates in which the lesser tuberosity is transferred into the defect, have yielded good results if the defect is less than 40% of the humeral head. Prosthetic replacement is preferred for larger defects. If the dislocation is less than 3 weeks old and has less than 25% of humeral head involvement, closed reduction with the patient under general anesthesia should be attempted and the stability assessed by internally rotating the arm. If the arm can be safely internally rotated to the abdomen, then 6 weeks of immobilization in an orthosis that maintains the shoulder in slight extension and external rotation can yield a good result. If the dislocation has been present for more than 3 weeks, closed reduction becomes exceedingly difficult. Gerber C, Lambert SM: Allograft reconstruction of segmental defects of the humeral head for the treatment of chronic locked posterior dislocation of the shoulder. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1996;78:376-382. Spencer EE Jr, Brems JJ: A simple technique for management of locked posterior shoulder dislocations: Report of two cases. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 2005;14:650-652. Sperling JW, Pring M, Antuna SA, et al: Shoulder arthroplasty for locked posterior dislocation of the shoulder. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 2004;13:522-527. Hawkins RJ, Neer CS II, Pianta RM, et al: Locked posterior dislocation of the shoulder. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1987;69:9-18.
Question 51
What significant structure is most at risk during a posterior approach of the Achilles tendon near its musculotendinous junction?
Foot & Ankle Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 26
Explanation
The sural nerve crosses near the midline at the level of the musculotendinous junction before descending to its more lateral location distally. The saphenous nerve and vein are further medial and at less risk. The posterior tibial nerve is at risk only during deep dissection, such as harvesting flexor hallucis longus tendon graft. The plantaris muscle lies in this area but is of little clinical significance. Webb J, Moorjani N, Radford M: Anatomy of the sural nerve and its relation to the Achilles tendon. Foot Ankle Int 2000;21:475-477.
Question 52
Figure 50 shows the AP radiograph of an asymptomatic 82-year-old woman who underwent total hip arthroplasty 16 years ago. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Anatomy Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 14
Explanation
Pelvic osteolysis in the presence of a well-fixed porous-coated socket is a recognized complication in total hip arthroplasty. The radiograph shows large lytic lesions superiorly adjacent to an acetabular screw and inferiorly extending into the ischium. It also reveals eccentricity of the femoral head with respect to the acetabular component, consistent with polyethylene wear. Koval KJ (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 7. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, p 440.
Question 53
A knock-out mouse for the Vitamin D receptor has which of the following phenotypes?
Explanation
A knock-out mouse to the Vitamin D receptor would cause loss of vitamin D function, resulting in rickets. Renal failure would not occur; although Vitamin D is converted from 25 (OH) D to 1,25 (OH) D in the kidney, the active hormone acts on the gut and bone. Osteopetrosis can be seen as the phenotype for the c fos knock-out mouse; the Jansen-type metaphyseal dysplasia phenotype results from overactivation of the PTH/PTHrp receptor. Although compensatory hyperparathyroidism would occur, excessive PTH would not be able to rescue the skeletal loss and instead phosphoturia and phosphotasia would result. Glowacki J, Hurwitz S, Thornhill TS, et al: Osteoporosis and vitamin-D deficiency among postmenopausal women with osteoarthritis undergoing total hip arthroplasty. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2003;85:2371-2377.
Question 54
A 10-year-old boy reports a gradual onset of weakness; however, he is fully ambulatory. History reveals that he has a 17-year-old brother who has just stopped walking because of a similar condition. Laboratory studies show a creatine kinase level of 5,480 IU/L (normal 25 to 232 IU/L), and examination shows a slightly positive Gower sign. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
The patient has Becker muscular dystrophy. Patients with this condition have a slower rate of progression of disease compared with patients who have Duchenne muscular dystrophy, and walking may continue into the late teens. The creatine kinase level is not as high as in Duchenne muscular dystrophy, which can range from 20,000 to 30,000 IU/L. Becker muscular dystrophy is allelic to Duchenne muscular dystrophy, resulting in a mutation in the dystrophin gene. Myotonic dystrophy is characterized by a progressive inability to relax the muscles after contracture. The Gower sign is not helpful in this disease. Patients with Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease, one type of which is also known as HMSN type II, do not have elevated creatine kinase levels and usually present with a foot deformity. Spinal muscular atrophy, type II, usually presents with severe weakness in the second year of life. Matsuo M: From molecular diagnosis to gene therapy. Brain Dev 1996;18:167-172. Darras BT: Molecular genetics of Duchenne and Becker muscular dystrophy. J Pediatr 1990;117:1-15.
Question 55
In revision total hip arthroplasty, an acetabular reconstruction cage is best indicated for which of the following patterns of bone loss?
Hip 2001 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 12
Explanation
Acetabular cage reconstruction is indicated in severe disruption of acetabular bone stock when a cementless acetabular component cannot be stabilized in intimate contact with a sufficient bed of structurally sound and viable host bone, with or without a structural graft. Cages are used in pelvic discontinuity where they provide a bridge between the ilium and the ischium, while supporting a cemented cup. All of the other scenarios are amenable to achieving an adequate rim fit for a cementless component, using a jumbo cup if necessary. Whiteside LA: Selection of acetabular component, in Steinberg ME, Garino JP (eds): Revision Total Hip Arthroplasty. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Williams and Wilkins, 1999, pp 209-220.
Question 56
What is the most common primary malignant tumor of bone in childhood?
Basic Science Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 37
Explanation
Osteosarcoma is the most common primary malignant tumor of bone in childhood, followed by Ewing's sarcoma. Rhabdomyosarcoma is a soft-tissue sarcoma of childhood. Chondrosarcoma rarely occurs in childhood. Osteochondromas are benign tumors of the bone. Simon M, Springfield D, et al: Osteogenic Sarcoma: Surgery for Bone and Soft Tissue Tumors. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Raven, 1998, p 226.
Question 57
An otherwise healthy 70-year-old man has back and bilateral leg pain in an L5 distribution that is aggravated by standing more than 10 minutes or walking more than 100 feet. He has to sit to get relief. Neurologic and pulse examinations are normal. A radiograph and MRI scan are shown in Figures 4a and 4b. Treatment should consist of
Spine Surgery 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 10 Spine Surgery 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 11
Explanation
The patient has a degenerative spondylolisthesis at L4-5 with associated spinal stenosis. His symptoms are consistent with neurogenic claudication. Based on these findings, the surgical treatment of choice is decompression and posterolateral fusion. Use of instrumentation is controversial. Laminectomy alone is reserved for the patient who is frail medically. There is no role for an anterior approach or for fusion alone without decompression. Fischgrund JS, Mackay M, Herkowitz HN, et al: Degenerative lumbar spondylolisthesis with spinal stenosis: A prospective, randomized study comparing decompressive laminectomy and arthrodesis with and without spinal instrumentation. Spine 1997;22:2807-2812.
Question 58
Figures 32a and 32b show the radiographs of an active 13-year-old boy who has persistent left thigh pain and a limp despite a trial of protected weight bearing. Management should consist of
Basic Science 2002 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 18 Basic Science 2002 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 19
Explanation
The plain radiographs show an eccentric metaphyseal lesion involving a long bone in a skeletally immature patient. The lesion is longer than it is wide, with distinctly lobular outer edges that are sclerotic. These findings are characteristic of a nonossifying fibroma. Small asymptomatic lesions may be followed clinically. Larger lesions that occupy greater than two thirds of the width of the shaft and are located in areas of high mechanical stress such as the femur are more prone to fracture than smaller lesions. Pain is often a sign of impending fracture or the presence of a small fracture that may not be apparent on radiographs. The natural history of the lesion is to resolve over a period of years. The procedure that would allow the patient to return to contact sports is curettage and bone grafting. Intralesional steroid injection has been advocated in the treatment of unicameral bone cysts and eosinophilic granuloma but not nonossifying fibromas. En block resection is not indicated for a benign lesion. Low-dose radiation therapy has been used for eosinophilic granuloma but not for nonossifying fibromas. Walker RN, Green NE, Spindler KP: Stress fractures in skeletally immature patients. J Pediatr Orthop 1996;16:578-584.
Question 59
What type of multiple lesions is associated with Maffucci's syndrome?
Explanation
Maffucci's syndrome is a form of enchondromatosis associated with subcutaneous and deep hemangiomas. Similar to Ollier's disease, the risk of malignant transformation of the enchondromas is much higher than that of a solitary enchondroma. Multifocal nonossifying fibromas associated with other clinical findings such as mental retardation and café-au-lait spots is known as Jaffe-Campanacci syndrome. There are two types of multifocal forms of histiocytosis: Letterer-Siwe and Hand-Schüller-Christian disease. Schwartz HS, Zimmerman NB, Simon MA, et al: The malignant potential of enchondromatosis. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1987;69:269-274. Frassica F: Orthopaedic pathology, in Miller M (ed): Review of Orthopaedics, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1996, pp 292-335.
Question 60
Compared with cobalt-chromium, the biomechanical properties of titanium on polyethylene articulation in total hip replacement result in
Hip 2001 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 2
Explanation
The surface hardness of titanium is low compared with that of cobalt-chromium alloys. Titanium articulations are easily scratched, resulting in a significantly increased rate of wear and debris production. The wear and resulting lysis can also result in an increased rate of loosening. Simon SR (ed): Orthopaedic Basic Science. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1994, pp 449-486. Agins HJ, Alcock NW, Bansal M, et al: Metallic wear in failed titanium-alloy total hip replacements: A histological and quantitative analysis. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1988;70:347-356.
Question 61
Osteolysis after total knee arthroplasty can be minimized through prosthetic design features such as
Hip 2004 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 15
Explanation
The incidence of osteolysis is minimal in studies reporting the use of all polyethylene or monolithic metal-backed tibial components. Osteolysis has been reported in patients with total knee arthroplasties using cementless implants with modular components. Micromotion between the tibial tray and the polyethylene results in backside wear, leading to osteolysis. Osteolysis also has been reported in cemented posterior cruciate-substituting modular components. O'Rourke and associates reported a 16% incidence of osteolysis in patients with a posterior stabilized implant because of the use of modular polyethylene and the subsequent abrasive wear. Oxidation of the polyethylene that is the result of the method of sterilization and shelf life has also been implicated in the high incidence of osteolysis, along with patient factors such as activity level and weight.
Question 62
An 11-year-old girl has had pain in the medial arch of her foot for the past 3 months. She reports that pain is present even with daily activities such as walking to class at school, and ibuprofen provides some relief. She denies any history of trauma. Examination reveals a flexible pes planus with focal tenderness over a prominent tarsal navicular tuberosity. Radiographs show a prominent accessory navicular. Management should consist of
Foot & Ankle 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 30
Explanation
The patient has the classic symptoms, examination findings, and radiographs for a painful accessory navicular. Initial treatment should always be nonsurgical, specifically cast immobilization. Surgery should be reserved for those patients who fail nonsurgical management. Corticosteroids should not be injected into a posterior tibial tendon or insertion point because they can weaken the tendon and possibly cause tendon rupture. Triple arthrodesis and biopsy have no role in the management of a painful accessory navicular.
Question 63
Figure 31 shows the radiograph of an 8-year-old boy who has a swollen forearm after falling out of a tree. Examination reveals that all three nerves are functionally intact, and there is no evidence of circulatory embarrassment. Management should consist of
Trauma 2000 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 12
Explanation
The patient has a Bado type IV Monteggia lesion. It involves dislocation of the radial head and fractures of both the radial and ulnar shafts. These fractures are very difficult to manage by closed reduction alone. The radial and ulnar shafts first have to be stabilized surgically to give a lever arm to reduce the radial head. In this age group, intramedullary pins are easy to insert percutaneously and cause less tissue trauma than plates and screws. In these types of injuries, the focus is often on the forearm fracture; the radial head dislocation may not be appreciated as was the case with this patient. Gibson WK, Timperlake RW: Operative treatment of a type IV Monteggia fracture-dislocation in a child. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1992;74:780-781.
Question 64
Figure 6 shows an object being held in an outstretched hand. To offset the moment created by the object (ignoring the weight of the forearm), the biceps must generate a force of
Basic Science Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 1
Explanation
Answering this question requires understanding of two important biomechanics concepts. First, because neither the object being held in the hand nor the body is moving and, hence, their accelerations are zero, the problem is one of static equilibrium in which the sum of the moments acting on the body is zero. Second, a moment is the action of a force that causes an object to rotate about any point away from its line of action. The magnitude of the moment is the magnitude of the force multiplied by the perpendicular distance between the line of action and the point (often called the moment arm or lever arm). In this problem, two forces are causing moments about the elbow. The magnitude of the moment caused by the object in the hand is 5 N times 30 cm or 150 N-cm. To maintain equilibrium, the moment caused by the biceps force must also have a magnitude of 150 N-cm. Its moment arm is 2 cm, so the magnitude of the biceps force is 150 N-cm divided by 2 cm, which equals 75 N. In general, functional loads such as the object are always at a mechanical advantage (ie, have a longer moment arm) over the muscle. Therefore, muscles must generate large forces to overcome the moments caused by even small functional loads. An KN, Chao ES, Kaufman KR: Analysis of muscle and joint loads, in Mow VC, Hayes WC (eds): Basic Orthopaedic Biomechanics, ed 2. New York, NY, Lippincott-Raven, 1997, pp 1-14.
Question 65
A 14-year-old girl has a painful hallux valgus deformity that has not responded to shoe modifications. Figure 21 shows a standing AP radiograph. What is the most appropriate surgical procedure?
Pediatrics 2007 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 1
Explanation
The radiograph reveals an increased first-second intermetatarsal angle and a congruent metatarsophalangeal joint with an abnormal distal metatarsal articular angle. Correction of both of these abnormalities requires a proximal and distal first metatarsal osteotomy. Coughlin M: Juvenile bunions, in Coughlin MJ, Mann RA (eds): Surgery of the Foot and Ankle, ed 6. St Louis, MO, Mosby, 1993, pp 297-339.
Question 66
When compared to smokers who do not quit, an improvement in the rate of lumbar fusion is seen in patients who cease smoking for at least how many months postoperatively?
Spine Surgery 2009 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 17
Explanation
The effects of cigarette smoking and smoking cessation on spinal fusion have been studied extensively. Although permanent smoking cessation is ideal, significant improvements in fusion rates are seen in patients who avoid smoking for greater than 6 months postoperatively.
Question 67
A 58-year-old woman has had a painless periscapular mass for the past year. An MRI scan and biopsy specimen are shown in Figures 4a and 4b. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Basic Science 2002 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 14 Basic Science 2002 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 15
Explanation
Elastofibroma is a rare tumor that most commonly occurs in adults who are older than age 55 years. The lesions usually grow between the chest wall and the scapula, and 10% are bilateral. Histologic analysis shows that they are composed of equal amounts of elastin and collagen with occasional fibroblasts. Briccoli A, Casadei R, Di Renzo M, Favale L, Bacchini P, Bertoni F: Elastofibroma dorsi. Surg Today 2000;30:147-152.
Question 68
Figure 45 shows the lateral radiograph of a 19-year-old swimmer who has had back pain for the past 2 months. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Anatomy Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 7
Explanation
The patient has a pars interarticularis defect of L5 without apparent listhesis. The other diagnoses are not present. Papanicolaou N, Wilkinson RH, Emmans JB, Treves S, Micheli LJ: Bone scintigraphy and radiography in young athletes with low back pain. Am J Roentgenol 1985;145:1039-1044.
Question 69
A 9-year-old girl reports progressive right knee pain. Radiographs are shown in Figures 59a and 59b. Work-up reveals no other sites of disease. Low- and high-power photomicrographs are shown in Figures 59c and 59d. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Basic Science 2008 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 63 Basic Science 2008 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 64 Basic Science 2008 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 65 Basic Science 2008 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 66
Explanation
This classic case of osteosarcoma illustrates the typical radiographic and histologic characteristics of this disease. The radiographs show an aggressive-appearing lesion of the distal femur. The lesion has both lytic and blastic areas. Periosteal reaction is present in the form of a Codman's triangle. The radiographs are highly suggestive of osteosarcoma. The photomicrographs show malignant spindle cells that produce osteoid, thus confirming the diagnosis of osteosarcoma. Treatment of osteosarcoma is multimodal including multi-agent chemotherapy and surgery (wide resection or amputation). Bacci G, Ferrari S, Bertoni F, et al: Long-term outcome for patients with nonmetastatic osteosarcoma of the extremity treated at the Instituto Ortopedico Rizzoli according to the Instituto Ortopedico Rizzoli/osteosarcoma-2 protocol: An updated report. J Clin Oncol 2000;18:4016-4037. Bielack SS, Kempf-Bielack B, Delling G, et al: Prognostic factors in high-grade osteosarcoma of the extremities or trunk: An analysis of 1,702 patients treated on neoadjuvant cooperative osteosarcoma study group protocols. J Clin Oncol 2002;20:776-790.
Question 70
Which of the following tendons is the primary antagonist of the posterior tibialis tendon?
Foot & Ankle Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 2
Explanation
The primary action of the posterior tibialis tendon is inversion of the foot; secondarily, it plantar flexes the ankle. The anterior tibialis tendon also inverts the foot and only partially antagonizes the posterior tibialis tendon. The primary action of the peroneus longus is plantar flexion of the first ray. It secondarily everts the posterior tibialis tendon. The action of the flexor digitorum longus tendon is synergistic with the posterior tibialis tendon. The primary action of the peroneus brevis tendon is eversion; therefore, it is the primary antagonist of the posterior tibialis tendon. Sarrafian SK: Anatomy of the Foot and Ankle: Descriptive, Topographic, Functional, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, JB Lippincott, 1993, pp 550-551.
Question 71
Figures 30a and 30b show the MRI scans of a 51-year-old woman who has had an enlarging soft-tissue mass in her right thigh for the past 18 months. Examination reveals no inguinal adenopathy. Results of a biopsy show a high-grade sarcoma. A bone scan is unremarkable, and a CT scan of the chest shows no evidence of pulmonary metastasis. According to the Musculoskeletal Tumor Society (MSTS) staging system, the tumor should be classified as what stage?
Basic Science 2002 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 12 Basic Science 2002 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 13
Explanation
According to the MSTS staging system, soft-tissue sarcomas are staged according to the following factors: grade, site, and metastasis. Roman numerals are used to designate malignant tumors, and Arabic numerals are used for benign tumors. Low-grade malignant tumors are staged as I while intermediate- and high-grade tumors are staged as II. Site is defined as intracompartmental (A) or extracompartmental (B). Any metastasis is staged as III. This patient has a high-grade tumor (II), and the MRI scans show that it is confined to a single compartment; therefore, it is staged as IIA. There is no evidence of metastatic disease. Enneking WF, Spanier SS, Goodman MA: A system for the surgical staging of musculoskeletal sarcoma. Clin Orthop 1980;153:106-120. Peabody TD, Monson D, Montag A, Schell MJ, Finn H, Simon MA: A comparison of the prognoses for deep and subcutaneous sarcomas of the extremities. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1994;76:1167-1173. Pisters PW, Leung DH, Woodruff J, Shi W, Brennan MF: Analysis of prognostic factors in 1,041 patients with localized soft tissue sarcomas of the extremities. J Clin Oncol 1996;14:1679-1689.
Question 72
A 25-year-old left hand-dominant man has severe left shoulder pain after being involved in a high-speed motor vehicle accident. Examination reveals that he is unable to move the left shoulder. His neurovascular status is intact in the entire left upper extremity. A radiograph is shown in Figure 19. What is the most appropriate surgical management of this injury?
Upper Extremity Board Review 2008: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 20
Explanation
In this young patient, every attempt must be made to retain the native proximal humerus; therefore, open reduction and internal fixation should be attempted of both the articular segment and tuberosities to the humeral shaft. This is best accomplished through an open approach. Shoulder arthroplasty should be reserved for the elderly and for failed internal fixation. Ko JY, Yamamoto R: Surgical treatment of complex fractures of the proximal humerus. Clin Orthop Relat Res 1996;327:225-237.
Question 73
A 15-year-old boy who participates in track reports acute pain along the left iliac crest during a sprint. Examination reveals that the anterior superior iliac spine is nontender. The most likely diagnosis is an injury to the
Sports Medicine 2001 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 29
Explanation
The patient has iliac apophysitis. The radiographic findings are easily overlooked but usually reveal slight asymmetric widening of the iliac crest apophysis. The apophysis is the most vulnerable structure, as it is three to five times weaker than the tendon. This is not an epiphyseal site, and injury to the muscle or the tendinous insertion to bone (enthesis) is unlikely. Clancy WG Jr, Foltz AS: Iliac apophysitis and stress fractures in adolescent runners. Am J Sports Med 1976;4:214-218. Waters PM, Millis MB: Hip and pelvic injuries in the young athlete, in Stanitski CL, DeLee JC, Drez D Jr (eds): Pediatric and Adolescent Sports Medicine. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1994, pp 279-293. Lombardo SJ, Retting AC, Kerlan RK: Radiographic abnormalities of the iliac apophysis in adolescent athletes. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1983;65:444-446.
Question 74
An 18-year-old gymnast has had a 1-year history of foot pain. Examination reveals medial midfoot tenderness without swelling. Non-weight-bearing in a cast for 6 weeks has failed to provide relief. An axial CT scan of the midfoot is shown in Figure 20. What is the optimal treatment for this condition?
Sports Medicine 2007 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 11
Explanation
Stress fractures of the navicular are often seen in running and jumping sports. Whereas most individuals heal with nonsurgical management consisting of 6 weeks of casting, this gymnast has had pain for 1 year and nonsurgical management has failed. Open reduction with bone grafting is the preferred treatment. Quirk RM: Stress fractures of the navicular. Foot Ankle Int 1998;19:494-496.
Question 75
Which of the following is considered an important factor in improved cemented femoral stem survivorship?
Explanation
Cement technique, relative stem to canal size and position, stem design, surgical technique, and femoral anatomy are important factors in cemented stem survivorship. Varus stem position, a wide diaphyseal to metaphyseal ratio (stovepipe femur), thin cement mantles (1 mm or less), and nonrounded femoral stem designs are negative prognostic factors for stem survivorship. Precoating with methylmethacrylate has not been shown to provide any increased survivorship over nonprecoated stems. Noble PC, Collier MB, Maltry JA, Kamaric E, Tullos HS: Pressurization and centalization enhance the quality and reproducibility of cement mantles. Clin Orthop 1998;355:77-89. Crowninshield RD, Brand RA, Johnston RC, Milroy JC: The effect of femoral stem cross-sectional geometry on cement stresses in total hip reconstruction. Clin Orthop 1980;146:71-77.
Question 76
Which of the following complications occurs more commonly after antegrade femoral nail insertion when compared with retrograde insertion?
Explanation
There is no difference between the rates of union, malunion, range of motion of the hip or knee, muscle weakness, or infection for the two types of femoral nail insertion. The only difference is the location of the morbidity, which is around the insertion point of the rod. The antegrade technique has more morbidity about the hip, and the retrograde insertion technique has more morbidity about the knee. Morgan E, Ostrum RF, DiCicco J, McElroy J, Poka A: Effects of retrograde femoral intramedullary nailing on the patellofemoral articulation. J Orthop Trauma 1999;13:13-16. Ricci WM, Bellabarba C, Evanoff B, Herscovici D, DiPasquale T, Sanders R: Retrograde versus antegrade nailing of femoral shaft fractures. J Orthop Trauma 2001;15:161-169. Ostrum RF, Agarwal A, Lakatos R, Poka A: Prospective comparison of retrograde and antegrade femoral intramedullary nailing. J Orthop Trauma 2000;14:496-501.
Question 77
Use of prophylactic knee bracing in contact sports participants results in which of the following?
Sports Medicine 2007 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 19
Explanation
Several studies have looked at the effects of knee bracing, and it appears to be effective in prophylactically decreasing the incidence of medial collateral ligament sprains. Najibi and Albright reported that although evidence is not conclusive, bracing appears to help decrease the incidence of medial collateral ligament injuries. Albright and associates showed similar findings. Prophylactic knee braces have been associated with an increased incidence of ankle injuries. Albright JP, Powell JW, Smith W, et al: Medial collateral ligament knee sprains in college football: Effectiveness of preventive braces. Am J Sports Med 1994;22:12-18.
Question 78
In the preoperative planning of revision acetabular reconstruction, the surgeon should identify significant posterior column deficiency by noting which of the following radiographic features?
Explanation
Proximal and medial migration of the femoral head usually indicates deficiencies of the dome or anterior column. Wear of the polyethylene may result in osteolysis and impingement, which are not indicative of any major bone deficiency. A significant osteolytic lesion in the ischium may represent a major posterior column deficiency that can create a technical challenge during the reconstruction. Paprosky WG, Magnus RE: Principles of bone grafting in revision total hip arthroplasty: Acetabular technique. Clin Orthop 1994;298:147-155.
Question 79
A 17-year-old woman seen in the emergency department reports right knee pain and swelling that has progressively worsened over the past several weeks. Radiographs are shown in Figures 31a and 31b. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Anatomy 2008 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 2 Anatomy 2008 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 3
Explanation
The radiographs reveal a blastic lesion of the proximal tibial metaphysis with cortical destruction, mineralization extending into the soft tissue laterally, indistinct margins, and destruction of the normal trabecular pattern. In this age group, with this aggressive appearance, osteosarcoma is the most likely diagnosis. Chondroblastoma and giant cell tumor are generally geographic and lytic. Chondrosarcoma is rare in this age group and would likely be a secondary lesion from an underlying chondroid tumor that is not present here. Whereas infection can have a wide variety of appearances, it tends to be more lytic in the acute presentation. Sanders TG, Parsons TW: Radiographic imaging of musculoskeletal neoplasia. Cancer Control 2001;8:221-231.
Question 80
Figure 4 shows the AP radiograph of a 28-year-old woman who has had moderate pain in the left hip for the past year. Nonsurgical management has failed to provide relief. She denies any history of hip pain, pathology, or trauma. Management should consist of
Hip 2001 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 10
Explanation
The radiograph shows developmental dysplasia of the hip with the hip reduced and congruent. The treatment of choice is a periacetabular osteotomy because it can improve hip biomechanics and prolong the function of the hip joint. This procedure should be performed prior to the development of severe degenerative changes. Observation will not alter the patient's natural history or the biomechanics of the hip. A total hip arthroplasty should be delayed until severe degenerative changes are present. A Chiari osteotomy is a salvage osteotomy used for a noncongruent subluxated hip. A Pemberton osteotomy requires an open triradiate cartilage; therefore, it is not an option in an adult. Trousdale RT, Ekkernkamp A, Ganz R, Wallrichs SL: Periacetabular and intertrochanteric osteotomy for the treatment of osteoarthrosis in dysplastic hips. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1995;77:73-85.
Question 81
Figures 5a and 5b show the radiographs of an 11-year-old boy who felt a pop and immediate pain in his right knee as he was driving off his right leg to jam a basketball. Examination reveals that the knee is flexed, and the patient is unable to actively extend it or bear weight on that side. There is also a large effusion. Management should include
Pediatrics 2001 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 7 Pediatrics 2001 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 8
Explanation
Fractures through the cartilage on the inferior pole of the patella, the so-called sleeve fracture, are often difficult to diagnose because of the paucity of ossified bone visible on the radiographs. If the fracture is missed and the fragments are widely displaced, the patella may heal in an elongated configuration that may result in compromise of the extensor mechanism function. The treatment of choice is open reduction and internal fixation using a tension band wire technique to achieve close approximation of the fragments and restore full active knee extension. Heckman JD, Alkire CC: Distal patellar pole fractures: A proposed common mechanism of injury. Am J Sports Med 1984;12:424-428.
Question 82
A 65-year-old woman sustained an axial load on the arm followed by an abduction injury after falling on ice. Treatment in the emergency department consisted of reduction of an anterior dislocation. She now has a positive drop arm sign and a positive lift-off test. An MRI scan is shown in Figure 9. Based on these findings, management should consist of
Upper Extremity 2005 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 22
Explanation
Dislocation of the long head of the biceps tendon is the result of a defect in the region of the rotator cuff interval, coracohumeral ligament-superior glenohumeral ligament pulley, or an associated tear of the medial insertion of the subscapularis tendon. In the case of an intra-articular dislocation of the long head of the biceps tendon associated with a tear of the subscapularis tendon, stabilization of the biceps tendon is difficult in this situation; therefore, biceps release or tenodesis and repair of the subscapularis tendon is the treatment of choice. Eakin CL, Faber KJ, Hawkins RJ, et al: Biceps tendon disorders in athletes. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1999;7:300-310. Sethi N, Wright R, Yamaguchi K: Disorders of the long head of the biceps tendon. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 1999;8:644-654.
Question 83
What is the most common cause of mechanical failure of an orthopaedic biomaterial during clinical use?
Explanation
In most orthopaedic applications, the materials are strong enough to withstand a single cycle of loading in vivo. However, these loads may be large enough to initiate a small crack in the implant that can grow slowly over thousands or millions of cycles, eventually leading to gross failure. Such fatigue failure has occurred with virtually every type of implant, including stainless steel fracture plates and screws, bone cement in joint arthroplasty, and polyethylene inserts in total knee arthroplasty. Lewis G: Fatigue testing and performance of acrylic bone-cement materials: State-of-the-art review. J Biomed Mater Res Br 2003;66:457-486. Stolk J, Verdonschot N, Huiskes R: Stair climbing is more detrimental to the cement in hip replacement than walking. Clin Orthop 2002;405:294-305.
Question 84
A 15-year-old boy reports leg pain after being tackled during football practice. Radiographs and a CT scan are shown in Figures 46a through 46c. The patient has a pathologic fracture through what underlying lesion?
Anatomy Board Review 2008: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 7 Anatomy Board Review 2008: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 8 Anatomy Board Review 2008: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 9
Explanation
The images show a lobulated, eccentric, well-marginated lesion that is typical of a nonossifying fibroma. The lesion is slightly expansile, and the CT scan findings show that the lesion is very well marginated and the cortex is disrupted, which is a common finding. None of the characteristics of this lesion is aggressive in nature. Menendez LR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Musculoskeletal Tumors. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 69-75.
Question 85
Figure 19 shows the radiograph of a 45-year-old woman who has a painful nonunion. Treatment should consist of
Trauma Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 16
Explanation
The radiograph reveals a reverse obliquely subtrochanteric/intertrochanteric fracture. Open reduction and internal fixation should be accomplished with a 95-degree fixed angle device. An intramedullary nail with screw fixation into the head is another possible technique. Either method should correct the varus deformity. Exchange of a high-angled screw and plate device to a longer side plate and bone grafting does not afford any improvement in the mechanical stability. Hardware removal and retrograde intramedullary nailing is not indicated for this level of a proximal femoral injury. Placement of an implantable bone stimulator may change local biologic factors but would not enhance mechanical stability. The patient's femoral head is intact without signs of collapse; therefore, hardware removal, proximal femoral resection, and total hip arthroplasty are not warranted. Haidukewych GJ, Israel TA, Berry DJ: Reverse obliquity fractures of the intertrochanteric region of the femur. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2001;83:643-650.
Question 86
A 43-year-old bus driver sustains a hyperextension injury to her arm and shoulder 4 months after undergoing an open Bankart repair. Examination reveals increased external rotation, anterior shoulder pain, and internal rotation weakness. Her examination also reveals the findings shown in Figure 44. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Shoulder Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 8
Explanation
An isolated tear of the subscapularis tendon has been noted as early as 1835 by Smith. In Gerber and associates' 1991 report of 16 men with an average age of 51 years, isolated subscapularis tendon rupture was often caused by a violent hyperextension injury. All patients reported pain anteriorly along with night pain. They also noted pain and weakness of the arm. The lift-off test is performed by having the patient lift the palm of the hand away from the small of the back. The patient must have sufficient internal rotation to allow this test to be performed. A subscapularis rupture is likely if the patient cannot perform the lift-off test. Hertel R, Ballmer FT, Lombert SM, Gerber C: Lag signs in the diagnosis of rotator cuff rupture. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 1996;5:307-313. Gerber C, Krushell RJ: Isolated rupture of the tendon of the subscapularis muscle: Clinical features in 16 cases. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1991;73:389-394. Greis PE, Kuhn JE, Schultheis J, Hintermeister R, Hawkins R: Validation of the lift-off test and analysis of subscapularis activity during maximal internal rotation. Am J Sports Med 1996;24:589-593.
Question 87
The wear resistance of ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene can be improved by exposing the polymer to high-energy radiation (eg, gamma or electron beam), followed by a thermal treatment. What is one detrimental side effect of this process?
Explanation
Highly cross-linked polyethylene has gained widespread acceptance for joint arthroplasty components because of reported experimental and early clinical accounts of significant reductions in wear. Cross-linking is increased by imparting additional energy into the polymer (above that conventionally used for sterilization). The thermal treatments after cross-linking stabilize the material against oxidative degradation by quenching free radicals and also reduce the elastic modulus. One disadvantage of the increased cross-linking is a reduction in toughness that makes the polyethylene more susceptible to crack initiation and propagation. The reduced toughness raises concerns for gross component fracture and fracture at stress concentrations that can arise with the locking mechanisms used to secure polyethylene inserts into metallic backings. Nonconsolidated polyethylene particles have been associated with increased subsurface density secondary to oxidative degradation in conventional polyethylene implants. The quenching of free radicals by thermal treatment in highly cross-linked polyethylene should prevent this problem. Collier JP, Currier BH, Kennedy FE, et al: Comparison of cross-linked polyethylene materials for orthopaedic applications. Clin Orthop 2003;414:289-304. Buckwalter JA, Einhorn TA, Simon SR (eds): Orthopaedic Basic Science: Biology and Biomechanics of the Musculoskeletal System, ed 2. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2000, pp 203-208.
Question 88
A 19-year-old college student reports a 1-week history of wrist pain following an intramural rugby match. A PA radiograph is shown in Figure 6. He denies any prior wrist injury. What is the best course of action?
Trauma 2009 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 12
Explanation
The patient has a scaphoid fracture involving the proximal pole. Surgical treatment is recommended for such fractures because of the prolonged period of cast immobilization necessary and the increased risk of delayed union, nonunion, and/or osteonecrosis with nonsurgical management. A cannulated compression screw, inserted in the central scaphoid via a dorsal approach, is biomechanically advantageous and provides greater stability for fracture healing than Kirschner wires. Recently, good outcomes have been reported with arthroscopic-assisted percutaneous fixation of nondisplaced or minimally displaced scaphoid fractures. Rettig ME, Raskin KB: Retrograde compression screw fixation of acute proximal pole scaphoid fractures. J Hand Surg Am 1999;24:1206-1210. Chan KW, McAdams TR: Central screw placement in percutaneous screw scaphoid fixation: A cadaveric comparison of proximal and distal techniques. J Hand Surg Am 2004;29:74-79. Bedi A, Jebson PJ, Hayden RJ, et al: Internal fixation of acute non-displaced scaphoid waist fractures via a limited dorsal approach: An assessment or radiographic and functional outcomes. J Hand Surg Am 2007;32:326-333.
Question 89
Calcitonin acts as an antiresorptive agent by
Basic Science Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 46
Explanation
Calcitonin is a hormone that binds to osteoclasts and acts to decrease both osteoclast activity and number. Calcitonin is most effective in reducing vertebral compression fractures in high-turnover osteoporosis. It is also effective in treating regional osteoporosis. Because of its analgesic effect, it is helpful in treating painful acute compression fractures associated with osteoporosis.
Question 90
Figures 1a through 1c show the radiograph and MRI scans of a 16-year-old patient who has a painful hip. Examination reveals a significant limp, limited abduction and internal rotation, and severe pain with internal rotation and adduction. A biopsy specimen is shown in Figure 1d. What is the deposited pigment observed in this condition?
Basic Science 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 4 Basic Science 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 5 Basic Science 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 6 Basic Science 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 7
Explanation
Pigmented villonodular synovitis (PVNS) is a synovial proliferative disorder that remains a diagnostic difficulty. The most common clinical features are mechanical pain and limited joint motion. On radiographs, the classic finding is often a large lesion, associated with multiple lucencies. Other findings may include a normal radiographic appearance, loss of joint space, osteonecrosis of the femoral head, or acetabular protrusion. MRI is the imaging modality of choice and will show the characteristic findings of a joint effusion, synovial proliferation, and bulging of the hip. The synovial lining has a low signal on T1- and T2-weighted images, secondary to hemosiderin deposition. Copper deposition occurs in patients with Wilson's disease, which mainly affects the liver. Bhimani MA, Wenz JF, Frassica FJ: Pigmented villonodular synovitis: Keys to early diagnosis. Clin Orthop 2001;386:197-202.
Question 91
What type of thoracolumbar spinal injury is associated with an increased risk of neurologic deterioration following admission to the hospital?
Explanation
Gertzbein's Scoliosis Research Society Morbidity and Mortality report noted that neurologic deterioration developed in approximately 16% of patients who were hospitalized with fracture-dislocations of the thoracolumbar spine, a particular concern with rotational burst fractures (AO type C). Patients with standard burst fractures and Chance fractures had a markedly lower incidence of neurologic involvement and tended to remain neurologically stable. Gertzbein SD: Neurologic deterioration in patients with thoracic and lumbar fractures after admission to the hospital. Spine 1994;19:1723-1725.
Question 92
A 47-year-old man has an acute swollen, red, painful first metatarsophalangeal joint. He denies any history of similar symptoms. What is the first step in evaluation?
Foot & Ankle 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 3
Explanation
The patient's symptoms are typical for gouty arthropathy, and the diagnosis can only be confirmed with aspiration and visualization of the crystals. A concomitant infection also must be ruled out; therefore, it is important to obtain a cell count and culture. Colchicine may have a role in gouty management, but the diagnosis must be confirmed. Allopurinol is not effective in acute gouty arthropathy. Measurement of serum uric acid levels is often not helpful in making a definitive diagnosis. Steroid injections should be deferred until cell count and culture results indicate no accompanying infection. Richardson EG (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Foot and Ankle 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2004, pp 172-173.
Question 93
Which of the following muscles has dual innervation?
Anatomy 2008 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 9
Explanation
The brachialis muscle typically receives dual innervation. The major portion is innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve. Its inferolateral portion is innervated by the radial nerve. The others listed have single innervation. The anterior approach to the humerus, which requires splitting of the brachialis, capitalizes on this dual innervation.
Question 94
An otherwise healthy 54-year-old man who underwent a successful multilevel lumbar decompression and fusion 4 years ago now reports increasingly severe bilateral thigh claudication with paresthesia and severe back pain for the past 12 months. Physical therapy, bracing, and epidural steroids have failed to provide relief. A radiograph and MRI scans are shown in Figures 15a through 15c. He is afebrile, and laboratory studies show an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 5 mm/h and a normal WBC count. What is the best course of action?
Spine Surgery Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 11 Spine Surgery Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 12 Spine Surgery Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 13
Explanation
The patient has degeneration of an adjacent segment with resultant kyphosis and stenosis. Because he is healthy, has responded well to previous surgery, and has a potentially correctable lesion, he is not a good candidate for an end-stage failed back procedure such as a morphine pump. The stenosis is exacerbated by the deformity; therefore, a simple decompression will contribute to instability. Because of the kyphosis and the patient's relatively young age, the treatment of choice is restoration of sagittal alignment and posterior decompression.
Question 95
A 50-year-old man reports the onset of back pain and incapacitating pain radiating down his left leg posterolaterally and into the first dorsal web space of his foot 1 day after doing some yard work. He denies any history of trauma. Examination reveals ipsilateral extensor hallucis longus weakness. MRI scans are shown in Figures 19a through 19c. What nerve root is affected?
Spine Surgery 2006 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 4 Spine Surgery 2006 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 5 Spine Surgery 2006 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 6
Explanation
The MRI scans clearly show an extruded L4-5 disk that is affecting the L5 root on the left side. In addition, the L5 root has a cutaneous distribution in the first dorsal web space. S1 affects the lateral foot, and L4 affects the medial calf. An HS: Principles and Techniques of Spine Surgery. Baltimore, MD, Williams and Wilkins, 1998, pp 98-100.
Question 96
What is the peak period of onset in children with pauciarticular juvenile rheumatoid arthritis?
Pediatrics Board Review 2007: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 9
Explanation
Approximately one half of patients with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) have the pauciarticular form, which by definition includes only patients with fewer than five joints involved. The peak period of onset is between the ages of 2 and 4 years, with half of the affected children coming to medical attention before age 4 years. The knee is most often affected, with the ankle-subtalar and elbow joints next in frequency. The average duration of the disease is 2 years and 9 months, with half the cases lasting less than 2 years. Arthritis, in Herring JA (ed): Tachdjian's Pediatric Orthopaedics, ed 3. St Louis, MO, WB Saunders, 2002, pp 1811-1839.
Question 97
An orthopaedic surgeon frequently uses hip and knee prostheses from a specific manufacturer. The surgeon becomes acquainted with the manufacturer's representative who provides the support for these prostheses in the hospital. They develop a personal relationship outside of work through a common interest in sailing. Together they become interested in buying a sailboat. The manufacture's representative suggests a partnership in a boat costing $200,000. The manufacture's representative would purchase a 90% interest and the surgeon a 10% interest in the boat. There would be no restrictions on use of the boat by the surgeon. What should the orthopaedic surgeon do?
Explanation
Rejecting this proposal is the only appropriate course of action. Accepting it would, in essence, be receiving a huge gift from industry in the form of a sailboat. Physicians frequently assert that they are not influenced by gifts and relationships with industry representatives, but evidence is to the contrary. Such an arrangement constitutes a tremendous incentive to use the manufacturer's products. The fact that the boat partnership seems completely outside of the orthopaedic business relationship does not excuse it. Conflicts of interest should always be resolved and in the best interest of patient care, and in this case the best course clearly is to avoid the conflict of interest totally. An equal interest in the boat does not eliminate the conflict of interest. AAOS Standard of Professionalism -Orthopaedist -Industry Conflict of Interest (Adopted 4/18/07), Mandatory Standard numbers 6-8. www3.aaos.org/member/profcomp/SOPConflictsIndustry.pdf Opinions on Ethics and Professionalism: The Orthopaedic Surgeon's Relationship with Industry (Document 1204), in Guide to the Ethical Practice of Orthopaedic Surgery, ed 7. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2007, pp 36-40. www.aaos.org/about/papers/ethics/1204eth.asp AdvaMed Code of Ethics on Interactions with Health Care Professionals, Advanced Medical Technology Association, Washington, DC. www.AdvaMed.org
Question 98
A patient is treated with volar plating for a distal radius fracture. The CT scan shown in Figure 15 is obtained after union of the fracture because the patient reports ongoing symptoms. The prominent hardware is most likely injuring what tendon?
Anatomy 2008 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 34
Explanation
Extensor tendon injuries have been reported after volar plating of distal radius fractures. The CT scan shows prominent dorsal hardware a few millimeters ulnar to Lister's tubercle. The second compartment, the ECRL and ECRB, is radial to Lister's tubercle. The ECU runs along the distal ulna. The contents of the fourth dorsal compartment run just ulnar to Lister's tubercle. The EDC tendon is likely irritated in this patient. The EPB runs along the radial border of the radius and is well away from prominent hardware. Benson EC, Decarvalho A, Mikola EA, et al: Two potential causes of EPL rupture after distal radius volar plate fixation. Clin Orthop Relat Res 2006;451:218-222.
Question 99
A 65-year-old man has a painful right hip mass that has been growing for several years. A radiograph, CT scan, and photomicrograph are shown in Figures 56a through 56c. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Basic Science 2008 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 50 Basic Science 2008 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 51 Basic Science 2008 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 52
Explanation
This is a conventional chondrosarcoma. The radiograph and the CT scan show a lesion arising from the inferior pubic ramus with a large soft-tissue mass. Abundant punctate, stippled, or "popcorn-like" calcification is present. The photomicrograph demonstrates hypercellular cartilage. Surgical resection is the only effective treatment. Whereas chemotherapy might play a role in the treatment of a dedifferentiated chondrosarcoma, it has no role in the treatment of a conventional chondrosarcoma. Chondrosarcomas are relatively radioresistant. Donati D, El Ghoneimy A, Bertoni F, et al: Surgical treatment and outcome of conventional pelvic chondrosarcoma. J Bone Joint Surg Br 2005;87:1527-1530. Lee FY, Mankin HJ, Fondren G, et al: Chondrosarcoma of bone: An assessment of outcome. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1999;81:326-338.
Question 100
A 6-year-old Little League pitcher has had pain in the right elbow for the past 2 weeks. Examination reveals mild lateral elbow joint tenderness with full range of motion and no effusion or collateral laxity. A radiograph is shown in Figure 38. Initial management should consist of
Pediatrics Board Review 2007: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 9
Explanation
The radiograph shows osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) of the capitellum, one manifestation of "pitcher's elbow." The lesion is nondisplaced, and healing is possible if the inciting throwing activities are curtailed. Long arm cast treatment may be reasonable for the noncompliant patient but should not exceed 6 weeks duration. Surgical treatment is indicated for loose bodies or cartilage flaps. Elbow OCD lesions are now being seen in younger children as more participate in organized sports, especially baseball and gymnastics. Bauer M, Jonsson K, Josefsson PO, et al: Osteochondritis dissecans of the elbow: A long-term follow-up study. Clin Orthop 1992;284:156-160. Takahara M, Ogino T, Sasaki I, et al: Long term outcome of osteochondritis dissecans of the humeral capitellum. Clin Orthop 1999;363:108-115.
Table of Contents
Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Written & Medically Reviewed by
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon