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100 Orthopedic MCQs: Basic Science, Trauma, Spine & Pediatrics | ABOS Board Review

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Comprehensive 100-Question Exam
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Question 1
The artery located within the substance of the coracoacromial ligament is a branch of what artery?
Explanation
The acromial branch of the thoracoacromial artery courses along the medial aspect of the coracoacromial ligament and may be encountered when performing an open or arthroscopic subacromial decompression. Bleeding can be controlled by ligation of its branch from the thoracoacromial artery. The other arteries may be injured in other surgical exposures of the shoulder. Esch JC, Baker CL: The shoulder and elbow, in Whipple TL (ed): Arthroscopic Surgery. Philadelphia, PA, JB Lippincott, 1993, pp 65-66.
Question 2
Figures 3a and 3b show the inversion stress radiographs of a patient's ankle. What is the most likely ligament injury pattern?
Anatomy 2002 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 4 Anatomy 2002 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 5
Explanation
The radiographic findings show 30 degrees of talar tilt (severe) and 10 mm of anterior translation that typically involves laxity of both of the major lateral ligaments of the ankle (anterior talofibular and calcaneofibular). There is no evidence of deltoid laxity. Harper MC: Stress radiographs in the diagnosis of lateral instability of the ankle and hindfoot. Foot Ankle 1992;13:435-438.
Question 3
A 20-year-old collegiate football player who sustained blunt head trauma during the first half of a game is emotional and confused. During the halftime intermission, his affect, memory, and disorientation are totally resolved and have returned to preinjury baseline. The only residual finding is a very mild headache. He wants to play the second half. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Explanation
There is almost universal acceptance that an athlete may return to play after blunt head trauma only if he or she is totally asymptomatic. Mild residual symptoms are considered an absolute contraindication for return to play. Returning to play after a cardiovascular challenge or sport-specific activities is permitted on the pretext that the athlete is totally asymptomatic prior to these maneuvers. Neuropsychiatric testing is being used more frequently to monitor residual cognitive effects after head trauma. It has not been used as a return to play criterion. Garrick J (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Sports Medicine 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2004, pp 29-48.
Question 4
A 30-year-old elite marathon runner reports chronic pain over the lateral aspect of the distal right leg and dysesthesia over the dorsum of the foot with active plantar flexion and inversion of the foot. Examination reveals a tender soft-tissue fullness approximately 10 cm proximal to the lateral malleolus. The pain is exacerbated by passive plantar flexion and inversion of the ankle. There is also a positive Tinel's sign over the site of maximal tenderness. There is no motor weakness, and deep tendon reflexes are normal. Radiographs and MRI of the leg are normal. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Sports Medicine 2007 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 7
Explanation
The patient has entrapment of the superficial peroneal nerve against its fascial opening in the distal leg. It is typically exacerbated by passive or active plantar flexion and inversion of the foot, which leads to traction of the nerve as it exits this opening. Treatment involves release of the fascial opening to reduce this traction phenomenon. Closure of the defect will only aggravate the condition and potentially result in an exertional compartment syndrome. A four-compartment fasciotomy is only indicated for an established compartment syndrome of the leg. Styf J: Diagnosis of exercise-induced pain in the anterior aspect of the lower leg. Am J Sports Med 1988;16:165-169. Sridhara CR, Izzo KL: Terminal sensory branches of the superficial peroneal nerve: An entrapment syndrome. Arch Phys Med Rehabil 1985;66:789-791.
Question 5
Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding undetected intraoperative surgical glove perforation?
Explanation
The incidence of undetected intraoperative surgical glove perforation has been demonstrated at approximately 8.5%, occurring most frequently on the index finger or left hand of the assistant surgeon. The frequency of glove perforation is higher in surgeries lasting longer than 3 hours. Al-Habdan I, Sadat-Ali M: Glove perforation in pediatric orthopaedic practice. J Pediatr Orthop 2003;23:791-793.
Question 6
What neurovascular structure is in closest proximity to the probe in the arthroscopic view of the elbow shown in Figure 50?
Upper Extremity 2008 Practice Questions: Set 5 (Solved) - Figure 4
Explanation
The image shows a view of the radiocapitellar joint from an anterior medial portal. The radial nerve lies on the elbow capsule at the midportion of the capitellum. It is at risk for injury when capsular excision is performed in this region. Field LD, Altchek DW, Warren RF, et al: Arthroscopic anatomy of the lateral elbow: A comparison of three portals. Arthroscopy 1994;10:602-607.
Question 7
A 35-year-old male laborer with isolated posttraumatic degenerative arthritis of the right hip undergoes the procedure shown in Figure 8. What is the most appropriate position of the right lower extremity?
Hip 2004 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 22
Explanation
The primary indication for hip arthrodesis is isolated unilateral hip disease in a young, active patient. Avoiding abductor damage and preserving proximal femoral anatomy are imperative to allow conversion to a future total hip arthroplasty. Optimal positioning is 30 degrees of flexion to allow swing-through. Neutral abduction and adduction and slight external rotation allow the most efficient gait while allowing sufficient support in stance. A small degree of adduction is acceptable for a successful hip arthrodesis. Callaghan JJ, Brand RA, Pedersen DR: Hip arthrodesis: A long term follow-up. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1985;67:1328-1335.
Question 8
In the first dorsal compartment of the wrist, what tendon most frequently contains multiple slips?
Explanation
The first extensor compartment of the wrist typically contains a single extensor pollicis brevis tendon and the abductor pollicis longus tendon that nearly always has multiple tendon slips. The extensor pollicis brevis tendon is frequently found to be separated from the slips of the abductor pollicis longus tendon by an intracompartmental septum. During surgery, this septum must be divided to complete the release of the compartment. Jackson WT, Viegas SF, Coon TM, Stimpson KD, Frogameni AD, Simpson JM: Anatomical variations in the first extensor compartment of the wrist: A clinical and anatomical study. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1986;68:923-926.
Question 9
A 25-year-old man is involved in a motor vehicle accident and brought to the emergency department at 4 am on Sunday morning. He has a closed distal third femoral shaft fracture. His leg is initially pulseless but after applying inline traction, a distal pulse can be palpated and the limb appears to be viable. The pulse in the injured limb "feels" different than the pulse in the uninjured limb. What is the next step in assessing the vascular status of this limb?
Trauma 2009 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 40
Explanation
The patient initially has a distal third femoral fracture and a pulseless limb. The first step is to reduce the fracture and reassess the vascular status. Although the pulse returns, it feels different than the quality of the pulse in the contralateral uninjured extremity. There is a risk of a vascular injury with this fracture pattern due to tethering of the femoral vessels at the adductor hiatus; therefore, the vascular status needs further assessment since the pulses are not symmetrical. A physical examination is not very accurate in assessing whether a vascular injury is present; therefore, serial examinations are not appropriate. Angiography is very sensitive and specific but is time consuming and can cause complications secondary to the dye and the arterial puncture required to perform it. Duplex ultrasound is effective but is very operator-dependent and may not be available 24 hours a day. The ABI is easily performed and has been shown to be sensitive and specific. If the value is greater than 0.9, the negative predictive value is 99% and when the value is less than 0.9, it is 95% sensitive and 97% specific for a major arterial injury. It has been shown to be useful for blunt lower extremity injuries as well as knee dislocations. Levy BA, Zlowodzki MP, Graves M, et al: Screening for extremity arterial injury with the arterial pressure index. Am J Emerg Med 2005;23:689-695. Abou-Sayed H, Berger DL: Blunt lower-extremity trauma and politeal artery injuries: Revisiting the case for selective arteriography. Arch Surg 2002;137:585-589.
Question 10
A 30-year-old woman has pain in her right hand. The radiograph, CT scan, and biopsy specimen are seen in Figures 38a through 38c. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Basic Science Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 1 Basic Science Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 2 Basic Science Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 3
Explanation
An enchondroma is the most common primary tumor of the long bones of the hand. The lesion is usually asymptomatic and often is detected when there is a pathologic fracture. Shimizu K, Kotoura Y, Nishijima N, Nakamura T: Enchondroma of the distal phalanx of the hand. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1997;79:898-900.
Question 11
A 6-year-old girl has never been able to crawl or walk and can sit only when propped. History reveals no complications during pregnancy or delivery. Examination reveals a 30-degree scoliosis from T4 to L3. Deep tendon reflexes are absent, but fasciculations are present. The most likely genetic defect is the result of an abnormality in
Pediatrics Board Review 2004: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 20
Explanation
The patient's findings are consistent with an intermediate form of spinal muscular atrophy. Children with this condition appear normal at birth but are not able to walk. The disorder affects anterior horn cells. Fasciculations may be present, but deep tendon reflexes are typically absent. The development of scoliosis is almost universal with this type of spinal muscular atrophy. More than 90% of patients with spinal muscular atrophy have deletions in the telomeric survival motor neuron gene. Peripheral myelin protein 22 is abnormal in Charcot-Marie-Tooth type IA. Connexin 32 is abnormal in the X-linked type of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease. Neurofibromin is affected in neurofibromatosis type 1. Friedreich's ataxia is secondary to a disorder of frataxin. Buckwalter JA, Einhorn TA, Simon SR (eds): Orthopaedic Basic Science, ed 2. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2000, pp 111-131.
Question 12
Figures 26a and 26b show the radiograph and MRI scan of a 22-year-old man with knee pain. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Basic Science Board Review 2008: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 19 Basic Science Board Review 2008: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 20
Explanation
The lesion is an osteochondroma. This is demonstrated by a pedunculated bone-forming lesion where the medullary space of the lesion communicates with the medullary space of the host bone. The cortex of the exostosis is in continuity with the cortex of the underlying bone. The MRI scan reveals that there is no significant cartilage cap, alleviating concern for malignant conversion to a chondrosarcoma. Osteoblastoma and osteosarcoma typically have mixed areas of bone formation and bone destruction. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma of bone is usually purely lytic. Vaccaro AR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 8. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2005, pp 197-215.
Question 13
A 58-year-old reports pain and stiffness in his left shoulder following a seizure episode. Diagnosis at the time of the seizure is a frozen shoulder, and management consists of an aggressive physical therapy program of stretching exercises. Four months later he continues to have shoulder pain and has not gained any additional range of motion. A CT scan is shown in Figure 50. Management should now consist of
Shoulder Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 16
Explanation
Humeral arthroplasty is indicated for chronic posterior dislocations when the impression defect in the humeral head is greater than 45% to 50%. If the condition remains undiagnosed for more than 9 to 12 months, secondary degenerative changes on the glenoid may occur, necessitating total shoulder arthroplasty. Open reduction and transfer of the subscapularis and lesser tuberosity are used for impression defects that consist of 20% to 40% of the humeral articular surface. Closed reduction and immobilization with the arm in slight extension and external rotation is useful when the posterior dislocation is diagnosed within the first 6 weeks and the articular defect is less than 20%. Hawkins RJ, Neer CS II, Pianta RM, Mendoza FX: Locked posterior dislocation of the shoulder. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1987;69:9-18.
Question 14
A 12-year-old girl has had progressive left knee pain for the past 4 months. She reports that the pain is unrelated to activity, and she has no history of fever or recent infections. Examination reveals full range of motion of the knee but tenderness along the medial joint line. Plain radiographs and MRI scans are shown in Figures 39a through 39d. A biopsy specimen of the lesion is shown in Figure 39e. Treatment should include
Basic Science Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 4 Basic Science Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 5 Basic Science Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 6 Basic Science Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 7 Basic Science Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 8
Explanation
The lesion is a chondroblastoma. The plain radiographs show a well-defined radiolucent lesion in the distal femoral epiphysis of a skeletally immature patient. The margins are well defined, suggesting a benign growth. The epiphysis is an unusual location for bone tumors, except for chondroblastomas. Of all chondroblastomas, 95% are located within the epiphysis. The MRI scans show a punctate appearance that is commonly seen in cartilage lesions. The biopsy specimen shows a chondroid lesion with polygonal chondrocytes. These findings are consistent with a chondroblastoma. The natural history of chondroblastomas is for continued growth and bone destruction if left untreated. Treatment should consist of curettage, with or without the use of physical or chemical adjuvants, and bone grafting.
Question 15
A 19-year-old woman has had a painful prominence on the lateral border of her fifth metatarsal head since she was a young girl. Nonsurgical management, including the use of a wide toe box shoe, has failed to provide relief. Examination reveals a callus over the lateral prominence and on the plantar portion as well. A clinical photograph and a radiograph are shown in Figures 34a and 34b. Treatment should consist of
Foot & Ankle 2000 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 13 Foot & Ankle 2000 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 14
Explanation
The type of deformity described is a type 2 bunionette. There is often a congenital component to this deformity. The bowing of the fifth shaft differentiates a large intermetatarsal angle from a type 3 deformity. A distal chevron osteotomy corrects 1 degree in the intermetatarsal angle for every 1-mm shift. Because of limitations in the width of the fifth metatarsal neck, the allowable shift is generally 3 to 4 mm. This shift will not compensate for the large intermetatarsal angle. The floating osteotomy has a high rate of delayed union/nonunion and a low satisfaction rate. Metatarsal head excision has a high complication rate, including severe shortening, transfer metatarsalgia, stiffness, and pain. A more proximal procedure is necessary to correct the large intermetatarsal angle and the lateral bowing. The osteotomy of choice is a diaphyseal shaft osteotomy. Because this patient has a plantar callosity and a lateral callosity, the osteotomy is angled superiorly to elevate the fifth shaft with the shift, eliminating overload of the plantar metatarsal head and subsequent callus formation. Shereff MJ, Yang QM, Kummer FJ, Frey CC, Greenidge N: Vascular anatomy of the fifth metatarsal. Foot Ankle 1991;11:350-353. Coughlin MJ: Treatment of bunionette deformity with longitudinal diaphyseal osteotomy with distal soft tissue repair. Foot Ankle 1991;11:195-203.
Question 16
A patient who sustained injuries in a motorcycle accident 30 minutes ago has significant motor and sensory deficits corresponding to a C6 level of injury. A lateral radiograph obtained during the initial on-scene evaluation reveals bilateral jumped facets at C5-C6; this appears to be an isolated injury. The patient is awake and alert. The next step in management of the dislocation should consist of
Spine Surgery 2000 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 18
Explanation
Surgical open reduction may increase the neurologic deficit if a disk herniation exists. Evidence from animal studies suggests that rapid decompression of the spinal cord may improve recovery. Serially increasing traction weight to reduce the dislocation has been shown to be safe when used in patients who are awake. Indications for MRI include patients who are unable to cooperate with serial examinations, the need for open reduction, and progression of deficit during awake reduction. Delamarter RB, Sherman J, Carr JB: Pathophysiology of spinal cord injury: Recovery after immediate and delayed decompression. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1995;77:1042-1049. Star AM, Jones AA, Cotler JM, Balderston RA, Sinha R: Immediate closed reduction of cervical spine dislocations using traction. Spine 1990;15:1068-1072.
Question 17
A 67-year-old woman has had pain in the area of the metatarsal heads and toes bilaterally for the past 18 months. She describes a diffuse discomfort and a constant burning sensation. She notes that the area feels swollen. Examination reveals that her pulses are normal, and there is no frank swelling or focal tenderness. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
Patients with peripheral neuropathy will often initially see an orthopaedic surgeon and report symptoms of burning, numb, dead, or wooden feet. A simple diagnostic evaluation with a tuning fork (to test vibratory sensibility) or use of the Semmes-Weinstein monofilaments will help make the diagnosis. Mizel MS, Miller RA, Scioli MW (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Foot and Ankle 2. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1998, pp 113-121.
Question 18
What is the most common diagnosis in a patient older than age 40 years with a destructive bony lesion?
Explanation
The most common destructive lesions in a patient older than age 40 years are, in decreasing incidence, metastatic carcinoma, multiple myeloma, lymphoma, and chondrosarcoma. Osteosarcoma is found primarily in younger patients.
Question 19
A man sustained the injury shown in Figures 51a and 51b. He underwent closed reduction of the radial head dislocation and open reduction and internal fixation of the ulnar fracture. What is the most common cause of persistent radial head subluxation?
Trauma Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 23 Trauma Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 24
Explanation
The radiographs reveal a Monteggia injury, with a proximal ulnar shaft fracture and a radial head dislocation. Treatment involves open reduction and internal fixation of the ulnar fracture. With correct reduction of the ulna, the radial head is reducible and remains stable, despite an obvious soft-tissue injury around the elbow. Problems with persistent radial head subluxation are almost always attributed to malreduction of the ulnar fracture. Rare causes of persistent radial head subluxation are interposition of soft tissues in the joint and lateral ligamentous injuries. Jupiter JB, Kellam JF: Diaphyseal fractures of the forearm, in Browner B, Jupiter J, Levine A, Trafton P (eds): Skeletal Trauma, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1992, pp 1421-1454.
Question 20
Duchenne's muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder that is transmitted by which of the following modes of inheritance?
Pediatrics Board Review 2007: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 20
Explanation
Patients with Duchenne's muscular dystrophy show progressive muscular weakness because of the absence of dystrophin and have the clinical picture of progressive muscle weakness. The condition is an X-linked genetic disease. Fitzgerald RH, Kaufer H, Malkani AL: Orthopaedics. St Louis, MO, Mosby Year Book, 2002, pp 1573-1583.
Question 21
What is the most common problem seen following epiphysiodesis for limb-length discrepancy?
Pediatrics Board Review 2004: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 24
Explanation
Errors in timing are by far the most common in this technically safe procedure. Incomplete growth arrest has been reported in up to 15% of patients versus timing errors in 61%. Fracture through the site has been reported rarely. Neurovascular and cartilaginous injury are extremely uncommon but always need to be considered when performing surgery in the vicinity of these structures. Blair VP III, Walker SJ, Sheridan JJ, Schoenecker PL: Epiphysiodesis: A problem of timing. J Pediatr Orthop 1982;2:281-284.
Question 22
Figure 41 shows the MRI scan of a 39-year-old man who has severe left groin and anterior thigh pain. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Anatomy 2002 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 23
Explanation
The MRI scan shows near complete involvement of the femoral head with bone marrow changes and some collapse of the necrotic segment. This is most suggestive of osteonecrosis.
Question 23
Figure 19 shows an arthroscopic view from the anterior lateral portal of the knee looking into the suprapatella pouch. The use of an electrothermal device during this procedure most commonly causes significant postoperative complications by damaging which of the following structures?
Anatomy Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 11
Explanation
While it is possible to damage any of these structures, unrecognized intraoperative laceration without adequate coagulation of the superior lateral geniculate artery is common. This can result in significant postoperative hemarthrosis and a return to surgery when bleeding cannot be controlled. Cash JD, Hughston JC: Treatment of acute patella dislocation. Am J Sports Med 1988;16:244-249.
Question 24
A 12-year-old girl has bilateral developmentally dislocated hips. History reveals no previous treatment, and she reports no discomfort. Good long-term clinical results are most likely to occur with
Explanation
The natural history of complete developmental dislocation of the hip is dependent on two factors: bilaterality and the presence or absence of a false acetabulum. Patients with bilateral dislocations may have low back pain because of hyperlordosis, but they tend to have less disability than patients with unilateral dislocations who have secondary problems related to limb-length inequality. Degenerative joint disease and clinical disability are most likely to develop in patients with completely dislocated hips and well-developed false acetabula. In a 12-year-old child who has bilateral developmental hip dislocations, it would be difficult to obtain surgical treatment results that are better than the natural history of the disorder. Abductor strengthening exercises are unlikely to influence the long-term outcome in this disorder. Surface replacements are not indicated in young asymptomatic patients. Weinstein SL: Natural history of congenital hip dislocation (CDH) and hip dysplasia. Clin Orthop 1987;225:62-76.
Question 25
The radiograph shown in Figure 54 reveals that the plate on the second metacarpal is acting in what manner?
Upper Extremity 2008 Practice Questions: Set 5 (Solved) - Figure 9
Explanation
There are four ways in which a plate acts: compression, tension bend, bridge or spanning, and buttress. Since there is no cortical contact with the large span of comminution, this plate is acting as a bridge plate. A bridge plate is defined as when the plate is used as an extramedullary splint attached to the two main fragments, leaving the comminution untouched.
Question 26
What is the treatment of choice for the injury shown in Figures 20a through 20c?
Trauma Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 18 Trauma Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 19 Trauma Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 20
Explanation
The radiographs show multiple carpometacarpal dislocations. Reduction is often obtainable but difficult to maintain. Internal fixation is required to maintain the reduction, preferably with Kirschner wires. Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning is preferred by some surgeons. Others recommend open reduction to remove irreconstructable osteochondral fragments from the individual joints and to ensure correct reduction of the carpometacarpal joints. Kirschner wires are removed at 6 to 8 weeks. Prokuski LJ, Eglseder WA Jr: Concurrent dorsal dislocations and fracture-dislocations of the index, long, ring, and small (second to fifth) carpometacarpal joints. J Orthop Trauma 2001;15:549-554.
Question 27
A 21-year-old professional ballet dancer reports a painful popping sensation over her right hip joint. Examination reveals that symptoms are reproduced with hip flexion and external rotation. Which of the following studies will best confirm the diagnosis?
Sports Medicine 2007 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 17
Explanation
The patient has snapping hip syndrome of the internal type, which is more common in ballet dancers. It is caused by the iliopsoas tendon gliding over the iliopectineal line or the femoral head. The diagnosis usually can be made by the history and physical examination. Snapping is reproduced by hip flexion and extension or flexion with external rotation and abduction. Conventional and dynamic ultrasonography will confirm the snapping structure. Radiographs occasionally show calcifications near the lesser trochanter. MRI can be used to rule out other diagnoses that can simulate snapping hip. Gruen GS, Scioscia TN, Lowenstein JE: The surgical treatment of internal snapping hip. Am J Sports Med 2002;30:607-613.
Question 28
A 57-year-old woman with diabetes mellitus has purulent drainage from a lateral incision after undergoing open reduction and internal fixation of a displaced ankle fracture 10 days ago. Examination reveals moderate erythema and a foul odor coming from the wound. Cultures are obtained. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Explanation
Early postoperative wound infections after open reduction and internal fixation should be treated with aggressive debridement and maintenance of stability of the fracture. If infection persists following healing of the fracture, the hardware should be removed. Carragee EJ, Csongradi JJ, Bleck EE: Early complications in the operative treatment of ankle fractures: Influence of delay before operation. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1991;73:79-82.
Question 29
A 46-year-old woman has bilateral groin pain, with more severe pain on the left side than on the right side. Figures 44a and 44b show a radiograph and a T1-weighted MRI scan. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Anatomy Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 2 Anatomy Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 3
Explanation
The radiograph reveals bilateral patchy sclerosis of the femoral heads without evidence of collapse. The MRI scan shows bilateral head involvement with a common serpentine-like low-intensity signal of the superior femoral head that is common to osteonecrosis. Changes confined to the femoral head effectively exclude rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis. Resnick D (ed): Diagnosis of Bone and Joint Disorders, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2002, vol 4, pp 3160-3162.
Question 30
A 21-year-old collegiate pitcher has had pain in his dominant shoulder for the past 3 months despite management consisting of rest, rehabilitation, and an analysis of throwing mechanics. An arthroscopic photograph from the posterior portal is shown in Figure 10. The biceps anchor to the bone was not detached to probing. Treatment of the lesion to the left of the cannula should consist of arthroscopic
Shoulder 2002 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 24
Explanation
The lesion is a variation of a type I superior labrum anterior and posterior lesion; therefore, appropriate treatment is simple debridement. Biceps tenodesis or release is not indicated because the biceps tendon and anchor are intact. There is no indication for labral repair or capsulorraphy. Beaty JH (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 6. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1999, pp 261-270.
Question 31
An adult with a distal humeral fracture underwent open reduction and internal fixation. What is the most common postoperative complication?
Explanation
Most patients lose elbow range of motion after open reduction and internal fixation of a distal humeral fracture. Ulnar nerve dysfunction, nonunion, and infection all occur less commonly. Webb LX: Distal humerus fractures in adults. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1996;4:336-344.
Question 32
What range of motion parameters are required for a patient with posttraumatic elbow stiffness to accomplish all the normal activities of daily living?
Explanation
Activities of daily living such as dressing, eating, and bathing can all be performed with elbow motion through a 100 degrees arc of flexion and extension (30 degrees to 130 degrees) and a 100 degrees arc of forearm rotation (50 degrees pronation, 50 degrees supination). Some patients can accomplish these activities of daily living with 10 degrees less motion at each end point. This is referred to as the functional arc of motion. Kasser JR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 5. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1996, pp 283-294.
Question 33
A 48-year-old man has recurrent right knee pain. Figure 52a shows the sagittal proton density T2-weighted MRI scan, and Figure 52b shows the sagittal T2-weighted MRI scan at the same level. The arrow is pointing to a
Anatomy Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 16 Anatomy Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 17
Explanation
Meniscal tears have many configurations and locations. The normal medial meniscus has a bow-tie configuration on the two most medial consecutive sagittal views. Toward the center of the joint the anterior and posterior horns have a triangular shape. These images show an abnormal intra-articular low-signal structure located anterior to the intact posterior cruciate ligament. This most likely represents a torn and displaced posterior horn of the medial meniscus, sometimes called "double PCL sign". A popliteal cyst and ligaments of Wrisberg and Humphry are not visible on these figures. Helms CA: MR image of the knee, in Fundamentals of Skeletal Radiology, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1995, pp 172-191.
Question 34
An acetabular reinforcement cage is most often indicated for which of the following conditions?
Explanation
An acetabular reinforcement cage is required infrequently except when there is pelvic discontinuity in which there is no posterior column support of the acetabular cup. A larger cup inserted with cement and morselized bone graft is an effective technique for contained cavitary and anterior wall defects. Zone 1 osteolysis and a medial wall defect are essentially the same as a contained cavitary defect and can be reconstructed using cementless cups. Berry DJ, Lewallen DG, Hanssen A, Cabanela ME: Pelvic discontinuity in revision total hip arthroplasty. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1999;81:1692-1702.
Question 35
A 4-month-old infant is referred for evaluation of congenital scoliosis. The child has no congenital heart anomalies, and a renal ultrasound shows that he has one kidney. Examination reveals mild scoliosis and a large hairy patch on the child's back. Neurologic evaluation is normal for his age. A clinical photograph and radiograph are shown in Figures 19a and 19b. Initial management should consist of
Pediatrics Board Review 2007: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 21 Pediatrics Board Review 2007: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 22
Explanation
Congenital anomalies of the spine, including failure of formation and failure of segmentation, are associated with other anomalies in other organ systems that develop at the same time. These include anomalies in the genitourinary system, cardiac anomalies, Sprengel's deformity, radial hypoplasia, and gastrointestinal anomalies including imperforate anus and trachealesophageal fistula. Spinal dysraphism is the most common associated abnormality. McMaster found an 18% incidence before the common use of MRI. Bradford and associates reported on 16 of 42 patients with congenital spinal anomalies and spinal dysraphism using MRI. Neural axis lesions may be associated with visible midline abnormalities such as a hairy patch or nevus. The child has already had a cardiac and renal work-up, and based on the findings of the hairy patch and congenital vertebral anomalies, MRI of the entire spine is prudent at this time. Spinal fusion is indicated for progressive congenital scoliosis or kyphosis. Physical therapy does not affect the natural history of congenital scoliosis. McMaster MJ: Occult intraspinal anomalies and congenital scoliosis. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1984;66:588-601. Bradford DS, Heithoff KB, Cohen M: Intraspinal abnormalities and congenital spine deformities: A radiographic and MRI study. J Pediatr Orthop 1991;11:36-41.
Question 36
What three structures are considered the primary constraints necessary for elbow stability?
Explanation
The three primary constraints necessary for elbow stability in all directions are the ulnar part of the lateral collateral ligament (also called the lateral ulnar collateral ligament), the anterior band of the medial collateral ligament, and the coronoid. The radial head and capsule are secondary constraints to elbow instability. Kasser JR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 5. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1996, pp 283-294.
Question 37
Which of the following prognostic indicators is associated with the least favorable outcome for patients newly diagnosed with osteosarcoma?
Explanation
Distant bone metastasis is associated with an extremely poor prognosis for patients with osteosarcoma (5-year survival rate of less than 10%). Most osteosarcomas are high grade and extracompartmental, and approximately half are greater than 8 cm at presentation. The 5-year survival rate for these patients is approximately 70%. Patients with a solitary pulmonary metastasis have a prognosis worse than patients without detectable metastases but not as bad as those with bone metastases. Bielack SS, Kempf-Bielack B, Delling G, et al: Prognostic factors in high-grade osteosarcoma of the extremities or trunk: An analysis of 1,702 patients treated on neoadjuvant cooperative osteosarcoma study group protocols. J Clin Oncol 2002;20:776-790. Heck RK, Stacy GS, Flaherty MJ, et al: A comparison study of staging systems for bone sarcomas. Clin Orthop Relat Res 2003;415:64-71.
Question 38
A 36-year-old man has a moderate-sized left paracentral L5-S1 disk herniation with compression of the S1 nerve. Examination will most likely reveal sensory changes at what location?
Explanation
Because the left paracentral L5-S1 disk herniation is compressing the left S1 nerve root, the patient will have numbness along the lateral border and plantar surface of the foot. Numbness along the anterior thigh stopping at the knee is consistent with an L3 radiculopathy. Sensory changes at the dorsum of the foot and great toe normally signify an L5 distribution; the medial leg signifies an L4 distribution. Perianal numbness involves the S2-S5 nerve roots. Wisneski RJ, Garfin SR, Rothman RH, Lutz GE: Lumbar disk disease, in Herkowitz HN, Garfin SR, Balderston RA, Eismont FJ, Bell GR, Wiesel SW (eds): Rothman and Simeone The Spine, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1999, vol 1, pp 629-634.
Question 39
An 8-year-old girl was treated for a Salter-Harris type I fracture of the right distal femur 2 years ago. Examination reveals symmetric knee flexion, extension, and frontal alignment compared to the contralateral knee. She has 1-cm of shortening of the right femur. History reveals that she has always been in the 50th percentile for height, and her skeletal age matches her chronologic age. Radiographs are shown in Figure 9. What is the expected consequence at maturity?
Pediatrics 2007 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 23
Explanation
The child has a near complete central physeal arrest of the distal femur and worsening limb-length discrepancy will develop. She is growing at the average rate for the population. The distal femoral physis grows at a rate of roughly 9 mm per year. Girls finish their growth at approximately age 14 years. Thus, at maturity the left leg will be 6.4 cm longer than the right. An angular deformity has not developed at this point and her arrest is central; therefore, angular deformity is unlikely to develop in any plane. Little DG, Nigo L, Aiona MD: Deficiencies of current methods for the timing of epiphysiodesis. J Pediatr Orthop 1996;16:173-179.
Question 40
The usual presentation of traumatic subscapularis tears is most often seen after forced
Upper Extremity Board Review 2008: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 19
Explanation
The typical mechanism of injury is a fall and the patient grasps something to prevent the fall. This maneuver forces the arm into external rotation against resistance. Kreuz PC, Remiger A, Erggelet C, et al: Isolated and combined tears of the subscapularis tendon. Am J Sports Med 2005;33:1831-1837.
Question 41
A 69-year-old man reports pain over his bunion while wearing shoes and pain in the joint with push-off when barefoot. Nonsurgical management has failed to provide relief. Radiographs are shown in Figures 8a and 8b. What is the surgical procedure of choice?
Foot & Ankle 2009 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 25 Foot & Ankle 2009 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 26
Explanation
Arthrodesis is indicated for severe bunion and hallux valgus deformities, but particularly with extensive degenerative disease of the first metatarsophalangeal joint. The other bunionectomy procedures have different indications, none of which include symptomatic first metatarsophalangeal degenerative disease. Richardson EG(ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Foot and Ankle 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2004, pp 3-15.
Question 42
The modified Brostrom lateral ankle ligamentous reconstruction uses which of the following structures to provide supplementary stabilization?
Anatomy Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 25
Explanation
The modified Brostrom lateral ankle ligament stabilization procedure uses the remnants of the anterior talofibular and the calcaneofibular ligaments, supplemented by the inferior retinaculum and the transferred talocalcaneal ligament to stabilize the lateral ankle. Chrisman and associates described the use of one half of the peroneus brevis. Watson-Jones and Evans used the entire peroneus brevis. The peroneus longus has been taken by mistake. The plantaris has been used in triligamentous reconstruction. Gould N, Seligson D, Gassman J: Early and late repair of lateral ligament of the ankle. Foot Ankle 1980;1:84-89. Hamilton WG, Thompson FM, Snow SW: The modified Brostrom procedure for lateral ankle instability. Foot Ankle 1993;14:1-7. Chrisman OD, Snook GA: Reconstruction of lateral ligament tears of the ankle: An experimental study and clinical evaluation of seven patients treated by a new modification of the Elmslie procedure. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1969;51:904-912. Evans DL: Recurrent instability of the ankle: My method of surgical treatment. Proc R Soc Med 1953;46:343. Watson-Jones R: Fractures and Joint Injuries, ed 3. Baltimore, MD, Williams and Wilkins, 1946, p 234.
Question 43
Examination of a 13-year-old boy with asymptomatic poor posture reveals increased thoracic kyphosis that is fairly rigid and accentuates during forward bending. The neurologic examination is normal. Spinal radiographs show 10 degrees of scoliosis at Risser stage 2, and there is no evidence of spondylolisthesis. A standing lateral view of the thoracic spine is shown in Figure 41. The kyphosis corrects to 50 degrees. Management should consist of
Pediatrics Board Review 2007: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 13
Explanation
The radiograph shows excessive thoracic kyphosis (normal 20 degrees to 50 degrees) with multiple contiguous vertebral wedging and end plate irregularity, all consistent with the diagnosis of Scheuermann's kyphosis. The patient is skeletally immature; therefore, there is the potential for progression of the kyphotic deformity. Extension bracing has shown efficacy in the treatment of Scheuermann's kyphosis that measures 50 degrees to 74 degrees, and has actually reduced the curvature permanently in some patients. A thoracolumbosacral orthosis may be used if the apex of kyphosis is at T7 or lower. Indications for surgical treatment are controversial, but spinal fusion most likely should not be considered for a painless kyphosis measuring less than 75 degrees. Murray PM, Weinstein SL, Spratt KF: The natural history and long-term follow-up of Scheuermann kyphosis. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1993;75:236-248. Wenger DR, Frick SL: Scheuermann kyphosis. Spine 1999;24:2630-2639.
Question 44
If a surgeon inadvertently burrs through the midlateral wall of C5 during a anterior corpectomy, what structure is at greatest risk for injury?
Anatomy 2008 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 21
Explanation
The vertebral artery is contained within the vertebral foramen and thus tethered alongside the vertebral body, making it vulnerable to injury if a drill penetrates the lateral wall. The C5 root passes over the C5 pedicle and is not in the vicinity. The C6 root passes under the C5 pedicle but is posterior to the vertebral artery and is only vulnerable at the very posterior-inferior corner. The carotid artery and the vagus nerve are both within the carotid sheath and well anterior. Pfeifer BA, Freidberg SR, Jewell ER: Repair of injured vertebral artery in anterior cervical procedures. Spine 1994;19:1471-1474.
Question 45
Which of the following types of ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene has been associated with the poorest clinical performance?
Explanation
Numerous studies have documented the poor performance of heat-pressed ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene used in the porous-coated anatomic tibial inserts of both total knee and unicompartmental arthroplasty. The other processing and sterilization methods have not been associated with significantly high failure rates. Wright TM, Rimnac CM, Stulberg SD, et al: Wear of polyethylene in total joint replacements: Observations from retrieved PCA knee implants. Clin Orthop 1992;276:126-134. Landy MM, Walker PS: Wear of ultra-high molecular-weight polyethylene components of 90 retrieved knee prostheses. J Arthroplasty 1988;3:S73-S85.
Question 46
A 29-year-old man who lifts weights states that he injured his left shoulder while performing a bench press 2 days ago. The following morning he noted ecchymosis and swelling in the left chest wall. Examination reveals ecchymosis and tenderness and deformity in the left anterior chest wall and axillary fold that is accentuated with resisted adduction of the arm. Passive range of motion beyond 90 degrees of forward flexion and 45 degrees of external rotation is extremely painful. Glenohumeral stability is difficult to assess because of severe guarding. Figure 29 shows an MRI scan. Management should consist of
Shoulder 2002 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 4
Explanation
Rupture of the pectoralis major tendon most commonly occurs during bench pressing. Wolfe and associates have shown that the most inferiorly located fibers of the sternal head lengthen disproportionately during the final 30 degrees of humeral extension during the bench press. This creates a mechanical disadvantage in the final portion of the eccentric phase of the lift; with forceful flexion of the shoulder these maximally stretched fibers may rupture. In most patients, particularly in young athletes, the treatment of choice is anatomic repair of the ruptured tendon to its insertion in the proximal humerus either with suture anchors or transosseous sutures. Following surgery, most patients experience a near normal return of strength and significant improvement in the cosmetic appearance of the deformity. While more technically challenging, repair of chronic rupture is possible and is indicated in some patients. Wolfe SW, Wickiewicz TL, Cavanaugh JT: Ruptures of the pectoralis major muscle: An anatomic and clinical analysis. Am J Sports Med 1992;20:587-593.
Question 47
Which of the following is considered a specific advantage of using COX-2 inhibitors over COX-1 inhibitors?
Explanation
Inflammation is mediated through two isoforms of cyclooxygenase that convert arachidonic acid to prostaglandins. Selectivity, but not specificity, is one of the unique characteristics of this process that has been able to provide more protection from the effects of gastric mucosal alterations using the COX-2 selective inhibitors. The use of COX-1 selective inhibitors is associated with side effects such as ulcerative conditions and platelet interference, both of which have been difficult to control in the past until the advent of the COX-2 inhibitors. PGE2 inhibition by COX-1 in the intestinal track can then be bypassed, thereby reducing ulceration complications associated with use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. Lane JM: Anti-inflammatory medications: Selective COX-2 inhibitors. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2002;10:75-78. Koval KJ (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 7. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002.
Question 48
A 42-year-old woman reports that she has low back pain and had a transient loss of consciousness after falling off a horse. She denies having neck pain but notes that she was involved in a motor vehicle accident 2 years ago and had neck pain at that time. Examination reveals full range of motion of the neck and no localized tenderness. The neurologic examination is normal. A lateral radiograph of the cervical spine is obtained. Figures 41a and 41b show CT and MRI scans. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Trauma Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 6 Trauma Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 7
Explanation
The examination findings do not correlate with an acute injury (full range of cervical motion and the absence of pain). Radiographically, the fracture appears old based on the smooth contour of the fracture fragments and the absence of soft-tissue swelling. Flexion-extension radiographs can be obtained to determine potential instability; if present, stabilization and fusion should be considered. Schatzker J, Rorabeck CH, Waddell JP: Non-union of the odontoid process: An experimental investigation. Clin Orthop 1975;108:127-137.
Question 49
A 16-year-old high school football player sustains an injury to the left hip. The avulsed fragment identified by the arrow in Figure 34 represents the origin of which of the following structures?
Sports Medicine Board Review 2001: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 1
Explanation
The avulsed fragment represents the origin of the rectus femoris from the anterior inferior iliac spine and the brim of the acetabulum. Avulsion of the anterior inferior iliac spine is much less common than avulsion of the anterior superior iliac spine with its origin of the sartorius. The origin of the gluteus minimus is from the outer cortex of the iliac wing and has not been reported as a source of bony avulsion. The hip capsule is composed of the ischiofemoral and pubofemoral ligaments, in addition to the iliofemoral ligament. The pelvic attachment of the ischiofemoral ligament is from the ischial part of the acetabulum posteriorly, while the pubofemoral ligament attaches to the pubic portion inferiorly. Technically, ligaments do not have origins and insertions as muscle tendon groups do, but have attachment sites. Metzmaker JN, Pappas AM: Avulsion fractures of the pelvis. Am J Sports Med 1985;13:349-358.
Question 50
A 67-year-old patient seen in the emergency department reports the acute onset of pain and is unable to ambulate. History reveals that the patient underwent surgical treatment for a periprosthetic femoral fracture 6 months ago. A radiograph is shown in Figure 41. What is the best treatment option at this time?
Hip & Knee Reconstruction 2007 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 15
Explanation
The radiograph reveals a periprosthetic fracture at the tip of the stem with a stable cemented implant. This is classified as a Vancouver type B1 periprosthetic fracture. An attempt at internal fixation has already failed; therefore, the most predictable results would be achieved with distal fixation. After removal of the well-fixed cemented implant, the proximal bone may not be suitable for proximal fixation. Adequate bone stock is available such that an allograft prosthetic composite or a tumor prosthesis is not necessary. The best option is a long stem implant with distal fixation, which serves as an intramedullary device to restore alignment and increase the likelihood of union. Cortical onlay strut grafts are used as an adjunct to definitive fixation. Younger AS, Dunwoody I, Duncan CP: Periprosthetic hip and knee fractures: The scope of the problem. Inst Course Lect 1998;47:251-256.
Question 51
What is the principal advantage of surgical repair for the lesion shown in Figure 19?
Sports Medicine Board Review 2004: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 16
Explanation
The MRI scan shows a rupture of the Achilles tendon. The substantiated advantages of repair are less risk of re-rupture and greater plantar flexion strength. Dorsiflexion strength is not influenced. Motion, pain, and period of recovery are not specifically improved as a consequence of surgery. Bhandari M, Guyatt GH, Siddiqui F, et al: Treatment of acute Achilles tendon ruptures: A systematic overview and meta-analysis. Clin Orthop 2002;400:190-200.
Question 52
What assay most directly assesses gene expression at the posttranslational level?
Explanation
Gene expression at the posttranslational level refers to proteins, as opposed to DNA or RNA. The only assay above that targets protein expression directly is the Western blot. Standard PCR is amplification of targeted DNA segments, regardless of whether or not they are actively expressed. Real-time PCR, Northern blot, and microarray expression profile analysis all quantify RNA as a means to determine posttranscriptional gene expression. Brinker MR: Cellular and molecular biology, immunology, and genetics in orthopaedics, in Miller MD (ed): Review of Orthopaedics, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2001, pp 81-94.
Question 53
Figure 47 shows a transverse MRI scan of a patient's left shoulder. The findings reveal which of the following abnormalities?
Anatomy Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 9
Explanation
The MRI scan shows a defect in the posterior aspect of the humeral head, commonly referred to as a Hill-Sachs lesion. This is an impaction fracture of the humeral head that occurs during anterior shoulder dislocation. The abnormality on this image is an irregularity of the posterior humeral head; the humeral head otherwise has a homogenous appearance. The coracoid, subscapularis, and posterior labrum are normal. Griffin LY (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Sports Medicine. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1994, pp 47-63.
Question 54
Osteoclasts are primarily responsible for bone resorption of malignancy. Which of the following stimulates osteoclast formation?
Explanation
Bone destruction is primarily mediated by osteoclastic bone resorption, and cancer cells stimulate the formation and activation of osteoclasts next to metastatic foci. Increasing evidence suggests that receptor activator of NF-kB ligand (RANKL) is the ultimate extracellular mediator that stimulates osteoclast differentiation into mature osteoclasts. In contrast, OPG inhibits osteoclast development. IL-8 but not IL-5 is known to play a role in osteoclastogenesis. MMP-2 and collagen type I do not have a direct role in osteoclastogenesis. Kitazawa S, Kitazawa R: RANK ligand is a prerequisite for cancer-associated osteolytic lesions. J Pathol 2002;198:228-236.
Question 55
An ulnar nerve palsy at the level of the wrist is typically associated with deficits in the palmaris brevis, the hypothenar muscles, and what other groups of muscles?
Anatomy Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 11
Explanation
The intrinsic muscles innervated by the ulnar nerve include the palmaris brevis, hypothenar muscles, all of the interossei, adductor pollicis, and the deep head of the flexor pollicis brevis. The superficial head of the flexor pollicis brevis is innervated by the median nerve. Goldfarb CA, Stern PJ: Low ulnar nerve palsy. JASSH 2003;3:14-26.
Question 56
Metal-on-metal articulation has been reintroduced because of concern about polyethylene wear. This type of articulation is considered favorable because
Explanation
The improvements in metal-on-metal bearing surfaces come from the nonlinear wear rate and smaller particle size of the high carbon wrought material. Extremely low rates of wear have been demonstrated with high carbon metal-on-metal implants. There is no significant electrochemical effect of mating two like materials in vivo.
Question 57
A 15-year-old girl reports a 6-month history of activity-related knee pain and swelling. A radiograph, MRI scan, and biopsy specimen are shown in Figures 21a through 21c. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Basic Science 2008 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 76 Basic Science 2008 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 77 Basic Science 2008 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 78
Explanation
The epiphyseal location on the radiograph and MRI scan and the histologic findings of polyhedral cells separated by a chondroid matrix with pericellular, lattice-like "chicken wire" calcification all suggest chondroblastoma. Although giant cell tumors of bone typically occupy an epiphyseal location, they are rare in children and when present are often metaphyseal in skeletally immature patients. Enchondromas and osteoblastomas are generally metaphyseal and, along with giant cell tumors, have very different histology than seen here. Chondromyxoid fibromas are typically metaphyseal in location. Huvos AG: Bone Tumors: Diagnosis, Treatment, and Prognosis. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1991, pp 295-313.
Question 58
The use of posting (a wedge added to the medial or lateral side of an insole) is useful to balance forefoot or hindfoot malalignment. Assuming normal subtalar joint pronation, what is the maximum amount of recommended hindfoot posting?
Foot & Ankle 2000 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 27
Explanation
Generally, patients cannot tolerate more than 5 degrees of hindfoot posting. Donatelli RA, Hurlbert C, Conaway D, et al: Biomechanics foot orthotics: A retrospective study. J Orthop Sports Phys Ther 1988;10:205-212. Michaud TM: Foot Orthoses and Other Forms of Conservative Foot Care. Baltimore, MD, Williams & Wilkins, 1993, pp 61-65, 186.
Question 59
What significant structure is most at risk during a posterior approach of the Achilles tendon near its musculotendinous junction?
Foot & Ankle Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 26
Explanation
The sural nerve crosses near the midline at the level of the musculotendinous junction before descending to its more lateral location distally. The saphenous nerve and vein are further medial and at less risk. The posterior tibial nerve is at risk only during deep dissection, such as harvesting flexor hallucis longus tendon graft. The plantaris muscle lies in this area but is of little clinical significance. Webb J, Moorjani N, Radford M: Anatomy of the sural nerve and its relation to the Achilles tendon. Foot Ankle Int 2000;21:475-477.
Question 60
A 55-year-old man underwent cementless total hip arthroplasty for advanced painful osteoarthritis of the hip 2 years ago. The follow-up radiograph shown in Figure 30 shows
Hip Board Review 2001: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 2
Explanation
The radiograph shows a well-osseointegrated tapered stem with a metaphyseal porous coating, spot welds in the porous region, and calcar rounding. Trochanteric stress shielding and distal cortical hypertrophy are also signs of ingrown stems but are seen more frequently in association with extensively porous-coated stems exhibiting diaphyseal ingrowth. There is no evidence of lucent lines or a pedestal, signs that suggest instability. Femoral stem subsidence can be determined only by a review of sequential radiographs. Engh CA, Massin P, Suthers KE: Roentgenographic assessment of the biologic fixation of porous-surfaced femoral components. Clin Orthop 1990;257:107-128.
Question 61
A 9-year-old boy has pain over the midfoot medially with activity. Based on the findings shown in Figures 26a and 26b, which of the following is considered the most effective short-term management?
Pediatrics 2004 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 4 Pediatrics 2004 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 5
Explanation
While Kohler's disease has a benign course, temporary cast immobilization has been shown to result in a shortened duration of symptoms. Core decompression or other surgery is not warranted because of the benign nature. Shoe inserts may be beneficial, but there are no studies to support their use. Borges JL, Guile JT, Bowen JR: Kohler's bone disease of the tarsal navicular. J Pediatr Orthop 1995;15:596-598.
Question 62
Based on the MR arthrogram of the elbow shown in Figure 8, which of the following structures is torn?
Anatomy 2002 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 16
Explanation
Based on the MR arthrogram in which gadolinium (bright on T1-weighted images) was injected into the joint space prior to imaging, the study shows a tear of the anterior band of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL). The disruption in the distal end of the UCL is outlined by contrast. A small collection of contrast extravasation into the flexor musculature further confirms the presence of a tear. The UCL has a broad-based attachment on the medial epicondyle and has a pointed or tapered attachment distally on the ulna. Most UCL tears occur distally at the ulnar (coronoid) attachment. MR arthrography provides improved sensitivity compared to conventional MRI, without contrast, for the detection of UCL pathology, particularly in the subacute or chronic setting. After the soft-tissue edema and joint fluid associated with the injury have resolved, the torn end of the ligament may lie in contact with its adjacent attachment and create a false-negative appearance. In this patient, a noncontrasted MR arthrogram showed no tear, yet the tear is apparent with intra-articular contrast and distention. MR arthrography of the elbow also may be useful in detecting intra-articular bodies or in evaluation for loose osteochondral fragments or flaps. Morrey BF: Acute and chronic instability of the elbow. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1996;4:117-128.
Question 63
When planning revision of a total hip arthroplasty where an acetabular reconstruction will be required, what prerequisite is important to ensure long-term success of a cementless component?
Explanation
In bone defects where host bone support is less than 50%, the failure rate is 70% at 5.1 years. The presence or absence of columns or hip position is of relatively little importance if the supportive bone is not present in at least 50% of the surface area around the future acetabular implant.
Question 64
A 20-year-old-man sustained a scapular fracture after attempting to grab a beam as he fell through a ceiling at a job site 3 months ago. A clinical photograph is shown in Figure 36. He now reports pain in the anterior shoulder and difficulty with overhead activities. What nerve roots make up the involved peripheral nerve?
Upper Extremity Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 5
Explanation
The patient sustained an injury to the long thoracic nerve, which supplies the serratus anterior. Branches of C5 and C6 enter the scalenus medius, unite in the muscle, and emerge as a single trunk and pass down the axilla. On the surface of the serratus anterior, the long thoracic nerve is joined by the branch from C7 and descends in front of the serratus anterior, providing segmental innervation to the serratus anterior.
Question 65
What is the most common bone tumor in the hand?
Basic Science Board Review 2008: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 43
Explanation
The most common bone tumor in the hand is an enchondroma. Forty-two percent of these lesions occur in the small tubular bones. They frequently present with a fracture in these locations. Fractures are usually treated nonsurgically. Indications for surgery include patients with symptomatic lesions or those who are considered high risk for recurrent fracture. The histologic appearance of an enchondroma in the hand is more cellular than enchondromas found in the long bones. Menendez LR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Musculoskeletal Tumors. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, p 103.
Question 66
Following fixation of a displaced intra-articular fracture of the distal humerus through a posterior approach, what is the expected outcome?
Trauma 2009 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 32
Explanation
Following repair of a displaced intra-articular distal humerus fracture, the ability to regain full elbow range of motion is rare. Recent reports of olecranon osteotomy have yielded healing rates of between 95% to 100%. According to McKee and associates, patients can be expected to have residual loss of elbow flexion strength of 25%. McKee MD, Wilson TL, Winston L, et al: Functional outcome following surgical treatment of intra-articular distal humeral fractures through a posterior approach. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2000;82:1701-1707.
Question 67 High Yield
Examination of a 6-year-old boy who sustained a displaced Salter-Harris type II fracture of the distal radius reveals 35 degrees of volar angulation. A satisfactory reduction is obtained with the aid of a hematoma block. At the 10-day follow-up examination, radiographs show loss of reduction and 35 degrees of volar angulation. Management should now consist of
Orthopedic Surgery Board Review 2026 | High-Yield MCQs - Set 9 - Figure 62
Explanation
In a 6-year-old child with a physeal fracture, the healing response 10 days after injury is so advanced that manipulation would have to be very forceful to be successful. A forceful manipulation in a patient this age increases the risk of early growth arrest and a significant disability because 80% of the growth of the radius comes from the distal physis. Because of the large contribution of growth from the distal radial physis and the angulation being in the plane of wrist motion, the potential for remodeling of this fracture is great. It is highly probable that this fracture will completely remodel in 1 to 2 years of growth. In this patient, even a "gentle" open reduction would probably require enough force that the physis would be damaged. Dimeglio A: Growth in pediatric orthopaedics, in Morrissy RT, Weinstein SL (eds): Lovell and Winter's Pediatric Orthopaedics, ed 5. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Williams and Wilkins, 2001, pp 33-62.
Question 68
A patient undergoes a proximal tibial resection that is reconstructed with a fresh frozen osteoarticular allograft. Eleven months later, the graft is retrieved. Histologically, the articular cartilage and subchondral bone retrieved would be expected to show evidence of
Explanation
Osteoarticular allografts are devoid of host chondrocytes but do contain "mummified" cellular debris left over from donor processing. The cartilage architecture is preserved in the first 2 to 3 years after transplantation. The articular surface is covered with a pannus of fibrocartilage maintaining the joint space radiographically; this pannus later contains islands of fibrocartilage containing host mesenchymal stem cells. Degenerative changes to the joint surface occur earlier and are more severe in joints that are unstable. Only with degenerative changes at the surface is there histologic evidence of subchondral revascularization. Often degenerative changes involving the articular cartilage reach the tidemark, but the tidemark itself remains structurally intact. Enneking WF, Campanacci DA: Retrieved human allografts: A clinicopathological study. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2001;83:971-986.
Question 69
What is the recommended insertion torque for halo pins in adults?
Spine Surgery 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 17
Explanation
Garfin and associates have shown that halo pins inserted with 8 in-lb of insertion torque results in significantly less loosening with cyclical loading than pins inserted with 6 in-lb of torque. Moreover, Botte and associates reported that 8 in-lb of torque is clinically safe and effective in lowering the incidence of pin loosening and infection. Botte MJ, Byrne TP, Garfin SR: Application of the halo device for immobilization of the cervical spine utilizing an increased torque pressure. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1987;69:750-752. Garfin SR, Lee TO, Roux RD, et al: Structural behavior of the halo orthosis pin-bone interface: Biomechanical evaluation of standard and newly designed stainless steel halo fixation pins. Spine 1986;11:977-981.
Question 70
A well-developed college football player reports swelling and a heaviness in the arm after lifting weights. Examination reveals that distal pulses are normal and equal in both arms. A venogram is shown in Figure 13. What is the most likely cause of this condition?
Upper Extremity Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 4
Explanation
The clinical findings indicate venous obstruction without arterial compression, and the venogram reveals occlusion of the subclavian vein, which is most likely the result of thoracic outlet compression. In the developed athlete, scalene muscle hypertrophy (Paget-Schroetter syndrome) causes compression of the subclavian vein. Treatment should consist of thrombolysis followed by decompressive surgery. Angle N, Gelabert HA, Farooq MM, et al: Safety and efficacy of early surgical decompression of the thoracic outlet for Paget-Schroetter syndrome. Ann Vasc Surg 2001;15:37-42.
Question 71
An adult patient has an 8- x 4- x 10-cm soft-tissue mass located within the adductor compartment of the thigh. Staging studies should consist of
Basic Science 2002 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 47
Explanation
The appropriate staging studies should consist of MRI and a radiograph of the primary lesion and CT of the chest. MRI is superior to CT for soft-tissue imaging. CT may be useful for evaluating the cortex of bone for invasion by tumor. Bone scans are not commonly used because soft-tissue sarcomas rarely metastasize to bone. CT of the abdomen and pelvis is not typically ordered except for possible liposarcoma. With liposarcoma, there may be a synchronous or metastatic retroperitoneal liposarcoma. Demetri GD, Pollock R, Baker L, et al: NCCN sarcoma practice guidelines: National Comprehensive Cancer Network. Oncology (Huntingt) 1998;12:183-218.
Question 72
What mechanism contributes to strength gains during conditioning of the preadolescent athlete?
Explanation
Prepubescent athletes gain strength through neurogenic adaptations, including recruitment of motor units, reduced inhibition, and learned motor skills. Myogenic adaptations (muscle hypertrophy) occur after puberty and include increased contractile proteins, thickening of the connective tissue, and increased short-term energy sources such as creatine phosphate. Grana WA: Strength training, in Stanitski CL, DeLee JC, Drez D Jr (eds): Pediatric and Adolescent Sports Medicine. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1994, pp 520-526.
Question 73
A 15-year-old girl has left knee pain and an enlarging mass in the distal thigh. AP and lateral radiographs are shown in Figures 52a and 52b, and a biopsy specimen is shown in Figure 52c. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Basic Science Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 22 Basic Science Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 23 Basic Science Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 24
Explanation
A bone-producing lesion in the metaphysis of an adolescent is most likely an osteosarcoma. The radiographs show a distal femoral bone-producing lesion extending into the surrounding soft tissues. The histologic appearance consists of pleomorphic cells producing osteoid. Ewing's sarcoma and metastatic neuroblastoma do not produce a matrix. Chondrosarcoma is a radiographically destructive lesion with calcification and cartilage cells on histologic section. An osteochondroma is a benign cartilage lesion that is continuous with the medullary cavity of the underlying bone and extends into a bony lesion and covered by a cartilage cap. Unni KK: Dahlin's Bone Tumors: General Aspects and Data on 11,087 Cases, ed 5. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1996, pp 143-160.
Question 74
Figures 19a and 19b show the AP and lateral radiographs of an 18-year-old man who has had knee pain for 3 months. Figure 19c shows a histopathologic photomicrograph of the biopsy specimen. Which of the following factors is most likely to affect his survival?
Basic Science Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 26 Basic Science Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 27 Basic Science Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 28
Explanation
The presence of metastatic disease at diagnosis is the most significant prognostic factor in a patient with osteosarcoma. Limb-sparing surgery, when compared with amputation, is not noted to be associated with any difference in the rate of survival. The presence of a mutated p53 gene has been noted in a minority of patients with osteosarcoma; however, the prognostic importance on an individual basis is unclear. Tumor location and a relative poor response to chemotherapy would be secondary to the presence of metastatic disease in estimating a patient's prognosis. Weis L: Common malignant bone tumors: Osteosarcoma, in Simon MA, Springfield DS (eds): Surgery for Bone and Soft Tissue Tumors. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1998, pp 265-274.
Question 75
Which of the following factors are considered prognostic of survival in patients with soft-tissue sarcomas?
Explanation
The factors that are independently prognostic of patient survival are tumor size, tumor grade, and tumor depth (ie, subfascial versus superficial). These factors are the basis for the American Joint Committee on Cancer staging criteria. Patient age and neurovascular invasion are not prognostic. Surgical margin is prognostic for local recurrence but not conclusively for patient survival or metastasis. Metastatic disease is also predictive of survival. Cheng EY, Thompson RC Jr: New developments in the staging and imaging of soft-tissue sarcomas. Instr Course Lect 2000;49:443-451.
Question 76
A patient has had a locked posterior dislocation of the shoulder for the past 6 months. After undergoing total shoulder arthroplasty that includes adequate anterior releases and posterior capsulorrhaphy, the patient still exhibits posterior instability intraoperatively. The postoperative rehabilitation regimen should include
Shoulder Board Review 2002: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 27
Explanation
Achieving stability in chronic locked posterior dislocations of the shoulder remains a difficult challenge. Intraoperative measures include decreased humeral retroversion, anterior releases, and posterior capsular tightening. Postoperative rehabilitation is of equal importance. Immobilization in an external rotation brace (10 degrees to 15 degrees) with the arm at the side for 4 to 6 weeks is recommended to decrease tension in the posterior capsule. When passive range-of-motion exercises are instituted, they should be performed in the plane of the scapula to avoid stress posteriorly. Internal rotation and supine elevation should be avoided for similar reasons. Hawkins RJ, Neer CS II, Pianta RM, Mendoza FX: Locked posterior dislocation of the shoulder. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1987;69:9-18.
Question 77
Initial postoperative management after repair of an acute rotator cuff tear includes
Explanation
In the immediate postoperative period following repair of an acute rotator cuff tear, passive forward elevation and external rotation should be performed within the safe zone determined at surgery. Early active range of motion (prior to tendon healing), internal rotation behind the back, and resistive exercises increase the risk of rupture of the repair. Iannotti JP: Full-thickness rotator cuff tear: Factors affecting surgical outcome. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1994;2:87-95.
Question 78
A 10-year-old girl was thrown over the handlebars of her bicycle and landed directly on her left shoulder. She was treated with a figure-of-8 strap and analgesics. Follow-up examination 2 weeks later reveals that the lateral end of the clavicle is superiorly dislocated relative to the acromion. A radiograph of the shoulder shows calcification lateral to the coracoid process at the level of the acromion, and the clavicle is superiorly displaced. Management should consist of
Explanation
In adults, a direct blow on the acromion usually results in an acromioclavicular dislocation. In children, however, the usual injury from this mechanism is a physeal fracture of the lateral clavicle. The clavicular shaft fragment, analogous to the metaphyseal portion of a physeal fracture, herniates through the periosteum, leaving the distal periosteal sleeve in contact with the lateral (distal) physeal fragment. The treatment of choice is immobilization until the patient is pain-free. Falstie-Jensen S, Mikkelsen P: Pseudodislocation of the acromioclavicular joint. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1982;64:368-369.
Question 79
Posterior lumbar spine arthrodesis may be associated with adjacent segment degeneration cephalad or caudad to the fusion segment. Which of the following is the predicted rate of symptomatic degeneration at an adjacent segment warranting either decompression and/or arthrodesis at mid-range follow-up (5-10 years) after lumbar fusion?
Explanation
The rate of symptomatic degeneration at an adjacent segment warranting either decompression or arthrodesis was predicted to be 16.5% at 5 years and 36.1% at 10 years based on a Kaplan-Meier analysis.
Question 80
A patient underwent an anterior cervical diskectomy and interbody fusion for a C5-6 herniated nucleus pulposus and left C6 radiculopathy 8 months ago. He now reports new onset of severe neck pain and left C6 radicular pain, with wrist extension weakness. The radiograph and CT scan shown in Figures 26a and 26b reveal pseudarthrosis at C5-6. The next step in management should consist of
Spine Surgery 2000 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 15 Spine Surgery 2000 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 16
Explanation
Brodsky and associates reviewed 34 cases of cervical pseudarthrosis after anterior fusion. Seventeen were treated with revision anterior fusion and 17 with posterior foraminotomy and fusion. Good results were seen in 75% of patients who underwent revision anterior surgery, but better results (94%) were seen with posterior surgery, including foraminotomy and stabilization. Tribus and associates reported treatment of 16 patients with pseudarthrosis using revision anterior debridement of the fibrous tissue and fusion with autograft and plates. There was improvement of the neck in 75% of the patients, nonunion in 19%, continued weakness in 28%, and dysphagia in 5%. Farey and associates reported on 19 patients treated with posterior foraminotomy, stabilization, and fusion with a fusion rate of 100%, resolution of arm pain in 94%, resolution of weakness in 100%, and resolution of neck pain in 75%. It would appear that posterior foraminotomy is more effective for relieving arm pain and neurologic deficits associated with pseudarthrosis. Posterior fusion has the most reliable rate of arthrodesis in this setting. Dysphagia is reported in some patients undergoing more extensive anterior dissections required for applying plates. A neck brace is unlikely to aid in healing of pseudarthrosis in a patient who underwent surgery 8 months ago. A neck brace would be most effective within the first 3 months if a delayed union is identified. Brodsky AE, Khalil MA, Sassard WR, Neuman BP: Repair of symptomatic pseudarthrosis of anterior cervical fusion: Posterior versus anterior repair. Spine 1992;17:1137-1143. Tribus CB, Corteen DP, Zdeblick TA: The efficacy of anterior cervical plating in the management of symptomatic pseudarthrosis of the cervical spine. Spine 1999;24:860-864.
Question 81
A 35-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus has been treated for the past 2 years at a wound care center for persistent bilateral fifth metatarsal head ulcers. Management has consisted of shoe wear modifications, treatment with multiple enzymatic ointments, and a fifth metatarsal head resection on the left side. Physical examination reveals intact pulses, minimal ankle dorsiflexion, neutral hindfoot, and a persistent ulcer under the fifth metatarsal heads. What treatment will best help heal the ulcers?
Explanation
The patient likely has a significant Achilles contracture that causes her to always bear more weight on her forefoot. A gastrocnemius recession takes the ankle out of plantar flexion and she will be able to return to a normal gait and reduce the pressures on her forefoot. A forefoot amputation is a salvage option. The other choices are appropriate; however, the patient has had this problem for 2 years and she has already had multiple attempts at shoe wear modification. Laughlin RT, Calhoun JH, Mader JT: The diabetic foot. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1995;3:218-225.
Question 82
What nerve is at greatest risk of harm from the portal shown in Figure 36?
Sports Medicine Board Review 2001: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 3
Explanation
The figure shows the anterolateral portal for elbow arthroscopy, and injury to the radial nerve has been reported in conjunction with this portal site. Studies have shown that closer proximity to the radial nerve is associated with more distal portal sites. The lateral and posterior antebrachial cutaneous nerves are both at less risk of injury. The ulnar and median nerves are both fairly remote to this location. Field LD, Altchek DW, Warren RF, O'Brien SJ, Skyhar MJ, Wickiewicz TL: Arthroscopic anatomy of the lateral elbow: A comparison of three portals. Arthroscopy 1994;10:602-607. Papilion JD, Neff RS, Shall LM: Compression neuropathy of the radial nerve as a complication of elbow arthroscopy: A case report and review of the literature. Arthroscopy 1988;4:284-286.
Question 83
Figure 38 shows the radiograph of a 5-year-old child who sustained a type III supracondylar fracture. Examination reveals the absence of a radial pulse, but an otherwise well-perfused hand. Following closed reduction and percutaneous pinning, the radial pulse remains absent; however, the hand is pink and well perfused. Management should now include
Pediatrics 2001 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 16
Explanation
In a study of over 400 patients with displaced supracondylar fractures, 3.2% of the fractures were associated with the absence of the radial pulse with an otherwise well-perfused hand. Based on this study, a period of close observation with frequent neurovascular checks should be completed before attempting invasive correction of the problem. Because of the satisfactory results with expectant management, angiography, exploration, removal of fixation and exploration, and thrombectomy are contraindicated.
Question 84
A 36-year-old recreational tennis player sustains the injury shown in Figure 16. Management should consist of
Sports Medicine Board Review 2004: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 10
Explanation
The MRI scan shows a rupture of the patellar tendon. This injury is most appropriately addressed with primary repair. For athletic individuals, the results of nonsurgical management are suboptimal. Reconstructive procedures are not necessary. Matava MJ: Patellar tendon ruptures. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1996;4:287-296.
Question 85
Tension force in the anterior cruciate ligament during passive range of motion is highest at
Explanation
Tension forces in the healthy, as well as the reconstructed, anterior cruciate ligament were measured and found to be highest with the knee in full extension and decreased as the flexion increased. Markolf KL, Burchfield DM, Shapiro MM, et al: Biomechanical consequences of replacement of the anterior cruciate ligament with a patellar ligament allograft. Part II: Forces in the graft compared with forces in the intact ligament. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1996;78:1728-1734.
Question 86
Figure 33 shows the venogram of a patient who has a long history of alcohol abuse. Warfarin should be used cautiously because of the interaction with which of the following factors?
Hip & Knee Reconstruction 2007 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 6
Explanation
Warfarin acts by inhibiting clotting factors II, VII, IX, X. The actual mechanism of action is by inhibition of hepatic enzymes, vitamin K epoxide, and perhaps vitamin K reductase. This inhibition results in lack of carboxylation of vitamin K-dependent proteins (II, VII, IX, X). The anticoagulant effect of warfarin can be reversed with vitamin K or fresh-frozen plasma. The use of alcohol may lead to liver dysfunction and an even more limited margin of available factors. Lieberman JR, Wollaeger J, Dorey F, et al: The efficacy of prophylaxis with low-dose warfarin for prevention of pulmonary embolism following total hip arthroplasty. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1997;79:319-325.
Question 87
A 36-year-old woman sustained a tarsometatarsal joint fracture-dislocation in a motor vehicle accident. The patient is treated with open reduction and internal fixation. What is the most common complication?
Trauma 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 1
Explanation
The most common complication associated with tarsometatarsal joint injury is posttraumatic arthritis. In one series, symptomatic arthritis developed in 25% of the patients and half of those went on to fusion. In another series, 26% had painful arthritis. Initial treatment should consist of shoe modification, inserts, and anti-inflammatory drugs. Fusion is reserved for failure of nonsurgical management. Hardware failure may occur, but it is clinically unimportant. Kuo RS, Tejwani NC, DiGiovanni CW, et al: Outcome after open reduction and internal fixation of Lisfranc joint injuries. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2000;82:1609-1618. Arntz CT, Veith RG, Hansen ST Jr: Fractures and fracture-dislocations of the tarsometatarsal joint. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1988;70:173-181.
Question 88
Which of the following is considered the most appropriate shoe modification following transmetatarsal amputation?
Explanation
Most patients who undergo transmetatarsal amputation do not require custom shoe wear or an orthosis above the ankle. A molded toe filler is used to prevent excessive shear that can lead to ulceration. Use of a soft toe filler without stiffening of the sole results in excessive flexibility from the shortened lever arm, which reduces the efficiency of gait. A firm footplate or carbon fiber base adds rigidity to aid in push-off. A rocker bottom also may be added to the shoe. Philbin TM, Leyes M, Sferra JJ, Donley BG: Orthotic and prosthetic devices in partial foot amputations. Foot Ankle Clin 2001;6:215-228.
Question 89
A 54-year-old man undergoes uneventful anterior cervical diskectomy and interbody fusion at C4-5 for focal disk herniation and C5 radiculopathy. At the 3-week follow-up examination, the patient reports a persistent cough. Pulmonary evaluation reveals a mild but persistent aspiration. Laryngoscopy reveals partial paralysis of the left vocal cord, most likely caused by
Explanation
The exact anatomic event responsible for vocal cord paralysis associated with anterior cervical surgery remains a question. Apfelbaum and associates, in an excellent review of 900 anterior cervical surgeries, identified 30 patients with vocal cord paralysis, 3 of which were permanent. They showed that retractors placed under the longus coli for anterior cervical exposures can compress the laryngeal-tracheal branches within the larynx against the tented endotracheal tube rather than the recurrent laryngeal nerve, which is extrinsic to the larynx. By releasing the endotracheal cuff and allowing the tube to recenter itself after placement of the retractors, they were able to decrease vocal cord injury from 6.4% to 1.7%. Jewett and associates suggested that a left-sided approach may result in a lower incidence of injury. Endotracheal intubation is the second most common cause of vocal cord injury, with an incidence of approximately 2%. Apfelbaum RI, Kriskovich MD, Haller JR: On the incidence, cause, and prevention of recurrent laryngeal nerve paralysis during anterior cervical spine surgery. Spine 2000;25:2906-2912.
Question 90
Second impact syndrome (SIS) after head injury is characterized by which of the following?
Explanation
SIS is a devastating but preventable complication of head injury. It occurs when return to activities is allowed prior to complete resolution of the symptoms of the first head injury. A second, sometimes trivial, head injury can lead to a devastating series of events that can result in sudden death. The symptoms tend to progress rapidly and often involve the brain stem. The prognosis is poor. Cantu RC: Second-impact syndrome. Clin Sports Med 1998;17:37-44. Saunders RL, Harbaugh RE: Second impact in catastrophic contact-sports head trauma. JAMA 1984;252:538-539.
Question 91
The primary purpose of obtaining the radiograph shown in Figure 9 is to assess
Hip 2001 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 21
Explanation
The radiograph shows a faux profil view of the hip. The primary purpose of this view is to evaluate anterior coverage of the femoral head. Beaty JH (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 6. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1999, pp 455-492. Ganz R, Klaue K, Vinh TS, Mast JW: A new periacetabular osteotomy for the treatment of hip dysplasias: Technique and preliminary results. Clin Orthop 1988;232:26-36.
Question 92
An 18-month-old child with obstetrical palsy has a maximum external rotation as shown in Figure 34. The parents should be advised that without surgical treatment the likelihood that glenoid dysplasia will develop is approximately what percent?
Pediatrics 2004 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 18
Explanation
Based on the available literature, the probability of development of glenoid dysplasia in the setting of a significant limitation of external rotation is close to 70%. Humeral dysplasia is also likely and can be managed surgically. Efforts are being made to identify procedures that will prevent glenoid dysplasia and help maintain function. Pearl ML, Edgerton BW: Glenoid deformity secondary to brachial plexus birth palsy. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1998;80:659-667. Waters PM, Smith GR, Jaramillo D: Glenohumeral deformity secondary to brachial plexus birth palsy. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1998;80:668-677.
Question 93
An active 49-year-old woman who sustained a diaphyseal fracture of the clavicle 8 months ago now reports persistent shoulder pain with daily activities. An AP radiograph is shown in Figure 8. Management should consist of
Trauma 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 17
Explanation
The radiograph reveals an atrophic nonunion of the diaphysis of the clavicle. Electrical or ultrasound stimulation may be an option in diaphyseal nonunions that have shown some healing response with callus formation, but these techniques are not successful in an atrophic nonunion. The preferred technique for achieving union is open reduction and internal fixation with bone graft. Percutaneous fixation has no role in treatment of nonunions of the clavicle. Boyer MI, Axelrod TS: Atrophic nonunion of the clavicle: Treatment by compression plating, lag-screw fixation and bone graft. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1997;79:301-303.
Question 94
A 30-year-old man who underwent an anterior lumbar diskectomy and fusion at L4-5 and L5-S1 through an anterior retroperitoneal approach 1 month ago now reports he is unable to obtain and maintain an erection. The most likely cause of this condition is
Explanation
Sexual dysfunction is a common condition after extensive anterior lumbar surgical dissection. Erectile dysfunction usually is nonorganic but may be related to parasympathetic injury. The parasympathetic nerves are deep in the pelvis at the level of S2-3 and S3-4 and usually are not involved in the surgical field for anterior L4-5 and L5-S1 procedures. Retrograde ejaculation is the result of injury to the sympathetic chain on the anterior surface of the major vessels crossing the L4-5 level and at the L5-S1 interspace. Erectile function and orgasm are not affected by sympathetic injury. The pudendal nerve is primarily a somatic nerve and is not located in the surgical field. Flynn JC, Price CT: Sexual complications of anterior fusion of the lumbar spine. Spine 1984;9:489-492.
Question 95
Up to what time frame are the risks minimized in anterior revision disk replacement surgery?
Spine Surgery Board Review 2009: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 8
Explanation
Revision anterior exposure within 2 weeks of total disk replacement incurs relatively little additional morbidity because adhesion formation is minimal. Surgeons should have a low threshold for revising implants that are clearly dangerously malpositioned or show early migration within this 2-week window. Beyond this time period, a revision strategy must be individualized to the particular clinical situation. A posterior fusion with instrumentation with or without a laminectomy is currently the most effective salvage procedure.
Question 96
The additional risk of complications in organ transplant patients receiving a total joint arthroplasty is attributed to
Explanation
Tannenbaum and associates found that patients who had a joint replacement after an organ transplantation had a rate of infection of 19% (five of 27 joint replacements in 16 patients). They retrospectively reviewed the results of 35 joint (hip or knee) replacements in 19 patients who had an organ transplant. The patients received a standard immunosuppressive induction regimen at the time of the transplantation and were maintained on a combination of prednisone, azathioprine, and cyclosporin A. All patients received antibiotics perioperatively, but antibiotic-impregnated bone cement was not used for any procedure. Six joint replacements in three patients (median patient age of 48.2 years at the time of the arthroplasty) were performed before a renal transplantation. Twenty-four joint replacements in 14 patients (average patient age of 40.9 years at the time of the arthroplasty) were performed after an organ transplantation. Two patients, with an average age of 53.8 years at the time of the arthroplasty, each had a joint replacement both before and after a liver transplantation (a total of five joint replacements). The average duration of follow-up after the first joint replacement was 8.8 years (range, 1 to 23 years). An infection developed around the implant in five patients who had undergone the joint replacement after a transplantation. The average interval from implantation of the prosthesis until detection of the infection was 3.4 years (range, 1 to 6 years). Of two patients who underwent a liver transplant, one had Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection and the other Escherichia coli infection. Of three patients who underwent a renal transplantation, one was infected with Staphylococcus epidermidis, one with Enterococcus, and one with Serratia marcescens.
Question 97
Which of the following is considered the most common long-term effect on the spine of a professional race horse jockey?
Explanation
Horseback riding is a sport that directly affects the jockey's spine. Tsirikos and associates reported the results of a study of 32 jockeys. They found that equestrian sports, especially professional horseback riding, apart from the increased risk of direct spinal injury caused by a fall from the horse, can lead to progressive spinal degeneration as a result of repetitive trauma and increased physical stress on the spine. It is associated with spondylosis of the cervical spine and lumbar spine. Tsirikos A, Papagelopoulos PJ, Giannakopoulos PN, et al: Degenerative spondyloarthropathy of the cervical and lumbar spine in jockeys. Orthop 2001;24:561-564.
Question 98
A 14-year-old boy sustains a twisting injury to his right shoulder and recalls feeling a snap during a wrestling match. Examination shows hesitancy to raise the arm away from the side, diffuse tenderness and swelling of the upper arm, and no evidence of neurovascular compromise. Figures 6a and 6b show an AP radiograph and MRI scan. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Shoulder 2002 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 15 Shoulder 2002 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 16
Explanation
While difficult to appreciate on the AP radiograph of the shoulder, the increased physeal signal demonstrated on the axial MRI scan is consistent with a nondisplaced growth plate fracture. A comparison radiograph of the left shoulder also could be considered and the injured shoulder evaluated for physeal widening. Proximal humeral fractures in children are somewhat unusual, representing less than 1% of all fractures seen in children and only 3% to 6% of all epiphyseal fractures. Physeal injuries are classified according to the Salter-Harris classification scheme. Salter-Harris type I fractures represent approximately 25% of physeal injuries to the proximal humerus in adolescents. The proximal humeral physis is responsible for 80% of the longitudinal growth of the humerus; therefore, there is tremendous potential for remodeling of fractures in this region. Management for nondisplaced Salter-Harris type I fractures is limited to a short period of immobilization followed by a gradual return to activities as clinical symptoms resolve. Curtis RJ, Rockwood CA Jr: Fractures and dislocations of the shoulder in children, in Rockwood CA Jr, Matsen FA III (eds): The Shoulder. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1990, pp 991-1007.
Question 99
During a transperitoneal approach to the L5-S1 interspace, care must be taken to protect the superior hypogastric plexus from injury. Which of the following techniques reduces the risk of neurologic injury?
Spine Surgery 2000 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 3
Explanation
Retrograde ejaculation is the sequela of superior hypogastric plexus injury. This structure needs protection, especially during anterior exposure of the L5-S1 disk space. Only blunt dissection should be used, and use of monopolar electrocautery should be avoided. If possible, preserve and retract the middle sacral artery. Once the iliac veins are isolated, blunt dissection is begun along the course of the medial edge of the left iliac vein, reflecting the prevertebral tissues toward the patient's right side. The dissection goes from left to right because the parasympathetic plexus is more adherent on the right side.
Question 100
During a left-sided transforaminal lumbar interbody fusion at the L4-5 level, the surgeon notes a significant amount of bleeding that cannot be controlled while using a pituitary rongeur. What anatomic structure has been injured?
Explanation
The surgeon perforated the anterior longitudinal ligament and injured the common iliac artery. Bingol and associates described injuries to the vascular structures during lumbar disk surgery. The common iliac artery was most commonly affected and constituted 76.9% of injuries.
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Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Written & Medically Reviewed by
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon