Comprehensive 100-Question Exam
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Question 1
Varus deformity after talar fractures is often seen due to collapse of the medial cortex. What artery supplies this portion of the talus?
Explanation
The artery of the tarsal canal is a branch of the posterior tibial artery. Among the branches of the artery of the tarsal canal is the deltoid artery. This arterial complex supplies the medial one third of the talar body. Disruption of this artery may lead to osteonecrosis of the medial body and subsequent collapse into varus. This is most commonly seen with talar body fractures but may be seen in Hawkins type 3 talar neck fractures. The artery of the tarsal sinus arises from the dorsalis pedis, lateral malleolar, and perforating peroneal arteries. The peroneal artery anastomoses with the calcaneal branches of the posterior tibial artery to form a plexus of vessels that supplies the posterior tubercle of the talus. Disruption of this artery would not result in collapse of the medial body, and thus would not lead to a varus deformity. Halibruton RA, Sullivan CR, Kelly PJ, et al: The extra-osseous and intra-osseous blood supply of the talus. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1958;40:1115.
Question 2
A 35-year-old woman who is a recreational runner reports posterior knee pain and tightness in the knee with flexion during running. She denies any history of trauma. Examination reveals normal patellar glide and tilt and no patellar apprehension. Range of motion is 5 degrees to 120 degrees, and quadriceps function and knee ligamentous examination are normal. Radiographs are normal. An MRI scan is shown in Figure 18. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
Ganglia involving the cruciate ligaments have been recently reported as a cause of knee pain that interferes with knee flexion and extension. The symptoms are poorly localized in this patient and not along the medial joint line, making the diagnosis of a torn medial meniscus less likely. In addition, the MRI findings do not show a significant medial meniscal lesion. A Baker's cyst is usually posteromedial and extends posterior to the interval between the medial head of the gastrocnemius and semimembranosus. MRI scans show a fluid-filled lesion with an increased signal on T1- and T2-weighted images. A lipoma would be bright on the T1-weighted image only. Deutsch A, Veltri DM, Altchek DW, et al: Symptomatic intraarticular ganglia of the cruciate ligaments of the knee. Arthroscopy 1994;10:219-223.
Question 3
A 26-year-old ballet dancer reports posterolateral ankle pain, especially with maximal plantar flexion. Examination reveals maximal tenderness just posterior to the lateral malleolus, and symptoms are heightened with forced passive plantar flexion. Radiographs are shown in Figures 42a and 42b. What is the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms?
Explanation
The patient has a symptomatic os trigonum caused by impingement that occurs with maximal plantar flexion of the ankle in the demi-pointe or full-pointe position. Patients frequently report posterolateral pain localized behind the lateral malleolus that may be misinterpreted as a disorder of the peroneal tendon. Pain with passive plantar flexion (the plantar flexion sign) indicates posterior impingement, not a problem with the peroneal tendon. The symptoms are not characteristic of a stress fracture, nor do the radiographs show a stress fracture or an osteochondritis dissecans lesion. The os trigonum is modest in its dimensions. The incidence or magnitude of symptoms does not correlate with the size of the fragment. Large fragments may be asymptomatic, while small lesions may create significant symptoms. Marotta JJ, Micheli LJ: Os trigonum impingement in dancers. Am J Sports Med 1992;20:533-536.
Question 4
A 13-year-old boy hyperextends his knee while playing basketball and reports a pop that is followed by a rapid effusion. A lateral radiograph is shown in Figure 4. Initial management consists of attempted reduction with extension, with no change in position of the fragment. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Explanation
Avulsion fractures of the tibial spine are rare injuries that result from rapid deceleration or hyperextension of the knee in skeletally immature individuals. This injury is the equivalent of ruptures of the anterior cruciate ligament in adults. These fractures are classified as types 1 through 3. Type 1 is a minimally displaced fracture, type 2 fractures have an intact posterior hinge, and type 3 fractures have complete separation. The radiograph demonstrates a completely displaced, or type III, tibial spine avulsion. Surgical reduction is indicated in type 2 fractures that fail to reduce with knee extension and in all type 3 fractures. Reduction may be arthroscopic or open, with fixation of the bony fragment using a method that maintains physeal integrity and prevents later growth arrest. Preferred techniques would be with suture or an intra-epiphyseal screw Wiley JJ, Baxter MP: Tibial spine fractures in children. Clin Orthop 1990;255:54-60. Mulhall KJ, Dowdall J, Grannell M, et al: Tibial spine fractures: An analysis of outcome in surgically treated type III injuries. Injury 1999;30:289-292. Owens BD, Crane GK, Plante T, et al: Treatment of type III tibial intercondylar eminence fractures in skeletally immature athletes. Am J Orthop 2003;32:103-105.
Question 5
A 7-year-old boy has had low back pain for the past 3 weeks. Radiographs reveal apparent disk space narrowing at L4-5. The patient is afebrile. Laboratory studies show a WBC count of 9,000/mm3 and a C-reactive protein level of 10 mg/L. A lumbar MRI scan confirms the loss of disk height at L4-5 and reveals a small perivertebral abscess at that level. To achieve the most rapid improvement and to lessen the chances of recurrence, management should consist of
Explanation
The patient has diskitis. Administration of IV antibiotics speeds resolution and minimizes recurrence. Bed rest and cast immobilization have been successfully used to treat this disorder but can be associated with prolonged recovery and frequent recurrence, even when oral antibiotics are administered. A perivertebral abscess seen in association with this condition usually resolves without surgery. Ring D, Johnston CE II, Wenger DR: Pyogenic infectious spondylitis in children: The convergence of discitis and vertebral osteomyelitis. J Pediatr Orthop 1995;15:652-660.
Question 6
An MRI arthrogram of the elbow is shown in Figure 6. Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
MRI arthrography is the imaging study of choice for evaluation of medial collateral ligament injuries. Carrino JA, Morrison WB, Zou KH, et al: Noncontrast MR imaging and MR arthrography of the ulnar collateral ligament of the elbow: Prospective evaluation of two-dimensional pulse sequences for detection of complete tears. Skeletal Radiol 2001;30:625-632.
Question 7
Which of the following statements correctly describes the results of gamma irradiation of musculoskeletal allograft?
Explanation
Low dose gamma irradiation (less than 3.0 megarads) with antibiotic soaks is one of the most common techniques for secondary sterilization. Elimination of HIV with gamma irradiation requires doses estimated to be greater than 3.5 megarads. Gamma irradiation levels of 4 megarads have been shown to alter the mechanical properties of human infrapatellar tendons. Ethylene oxide, also used for allograft sterilization, has been associated with a chronic inflammatory process that resolved after graft removal. Jackson DW, Windler GE, Simon TM: Intraarticular reaction associated with the use of freeze-dried, ethylene oxide-sterilized bone-patella tendon-bone allografts in the reconstruction of the anterior cruciate ligament. Am J Sports Med 1990;18:1-10. Conway B, Tomford W, Mankin HJ, et al: Radiosensitivity of HIV-1: Potential application to sterilization of bone allografts. AIDS 1991;5:608-609.
Question 8
The presence of S100B tumor marker typically corresponds with which of the following as being the most likely source of the metastasis?
Explanation
Advances in development of new tumor markers and techniques of antigen retrieval have enhanced the sensitivity and reliability of identifying the primary source of metastasis. New markers such as CK7, CK20, CA125, and thyroid transcription factor-1 (TTF-1) can help to determine the origin of an adenocarcinoma or aid in the recognition of other tumors. In patients who do not have an obvious primary site of disease or screening radiographs, these new markers can help focus the search for and guide the treatment of the underlying lesion. CA125 is positive in patients with ovarian cancer, CK7 is positive in patients with breast and lung carcinoma, and CK20 is indicative of colon carcinoma if the CK7 marker is negative. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST) is positive for CD117 (c-kit) and CD34, whereas 75% of bronchogenic carcinomas are positive for TTF-1. Histochemical staining of the S100 protein family has been used for many years in the diagnosis of malignant melanoma. Recent markers HMB-45, MART-1, and Melan-A have proved to be useful in diagnosis of melanoma. S100B protein has been implicated in downregulation of p53 (oncosuppressor gene). Harpio R, Einarsson R: S100 proteins as cancer biomarkers with focus on S100B in malignant melanoma. Clin Biochem 2004;37:512-518.
Question 9
A 23-year-old college basketball player reports persistent lateral ankle pain after sustaining an inversion injury 6 months ago. Examination reveals pain over the anterolateral ankle, absence of swelling, and no clinical instability. Management consisting of vigorous physical therapy fails to provide relief, and a intra-articular corticosteroid injection provides only temporary relief. Radiographs obtained at the time of injury and subsequent AP and varus stress views are normal. A recent MRI scan fails to show any abnormalities. Management should now include
Explanation
Because the patient has failed to respond to appropriate nonsurgical management and imaging studies are normal, the use of arthroscopy not only aids in the diagnosis of chronic ankle pain, but is also helpful in its treatment. In patients with this condition, typical findings include synovitis in the lateral gutter and fibrosis along the talofibular articulation; syndesmosis chondromalacia of the talus and ankle also may be found. In patients with anterior soft-tissue impingement, approximately 84% who have a poor response to nonsurgical management will have a good to excellent response after arthroscopic synovectomy and debridement. Ferkel RD, Fasulo GJ: Arthroscopic treatment of ankle injuries. Orthop Clin North Am 1994;25:17-32.
Question 10
In a retroperitoneal approach to the lumbar spine, what nerve is commonly found on the psoas muscle?
Explanation
The genitofemoral nerve and the sympathetic plexus consistently lie on the ventral surface of the psoas muscle. The ilioinguinal and iliohypogastric nerves are the most superior branches of the lumbar plexus and emerge along the upper lateral border of the psoas muscle traveling toward the quadratus lumborum. Both the obturator and femoral nerves are deep and lateral to the psoas muscle. Watkins RG (ed): Surgical Approaches to the Spine, ed 1. New York, NY, Springer-Verlag, 1983, p 107. Johnson R, Murphy M, Southwick W: Surgical approaches to the spine, in Herkowitz HH (ed): The Spine, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1992, p 1559.
Question 11
A 29-year-old man reports severe knee instability and popliteal pain. History reveals that he had polio of the left lower extremity as a child and has been brace-free his entire life. Examination reveals that he walks with 40 degrees of knee hyperextension and has a fixed ankle equinus deformity of 30 degrees. He has no active motors about the knee or ankle. Which of the following methods will provide knee stability and pain relief?
Explanation
The ankle equinus allows the patient to keep his weight-bearing line anterior to the axis of the hyperextended knee joint. With time, pain has developed because of continued stretching and now incompetence of the posterior capsule of the knee joint. Several soft-tissue and bony procedures have been designed to provide knee stability in this situation; however, the results have been either short-lived or inconsistent. Tenodeses, capsular plications, and bony blocks have had limited success and generally fail over time. Current orthotic technology makes soft-tissue release and orthotic control the most predictable option. To decrease the hyperextension moment on the knee joint, the ankle deformity also must be corrected. The most predictable method of achieving stability and diminished pain during walking is with soft-tissue release of the ankle and a knee-ankle-foot orthosis with a locked ankle and drop-lock knee joint.
Question 12
You are interested in learning a new technique for minimally invasive total knee arthroplasty. The Keyhole Genuflex system seems appealing to you because the instrumentation comes with wireless controls. Which of the following represents an acceptable arrangement?
Explanation
Both the AAOS and AdvaMed, the medical device manufacturer's trade organization, have written guidelines that address potential conflicts of interest regarding interactions between physicians and manufacturer's representatives when it comes to patients' best interest. The AAOS feels that the orthopaedic profession exists for the primary purpose of caring for the patient and that the physician-patient relationship is the central focus of all ethical concerns. When an orthopaedic surgeon receives anything of significant value from industry, a potential conflict of interest exists. The AAOS believes that it is acceptable for industry to provide financial and other support to orthopaedic surgeons if such support has significant educational value and has the purpose of improving patient care. All dealings between orthopaedic surgeons and industry should benefit the patient and be able to withstand public scrutiny. A gift of any kind from industry should in no way influence the orthopaedic surgeon in determining the most appropriate treatment for his or her patient. Orthopaedic surgeons should not accept gifts or other financial support with conditions attached. Subsidies by industry to underwrite the costs of educational events where CME credits are provided can contribute to the improvement of patient care and are acceptable. A corporate subsidy received by the conference's sponsor is acceptable; however, direct industry reimbursement for an orthopaedic surgeon to attend a CME educational event is not appropriate. Special circumstances may arise in which orthopaedic surgeons may be required to learn new surgical techniques demonstrated by an expert or to review new implants or other devices on-site. In these circumstances, reimbursement for expenses may be appropriate. AAOS Standard of Professionalism -Orthopaedist -Industry Conflict of Interest (Adopted 4/18/07), Mandatory Standard numbers 6, 9, 12-15. http://www3.aaos.org/member/profcomp/SOPConflictsIndustry.pdf The Orthopaedic Surgeon's Relationship with Industry, in Guide to the Ethical Practice of Orthopaedic Surgery, ed 7. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2007. http://www.aaos.org/about/papers/ethics/1204eth.asp
Question 13
Figures 61a and 61b show the CT and MRI scans of a 40-year-old man who has hip pain. He undergoes total hip arthroplasty and curettage and cementation of the lesion as shown in Figure 61c. Histopathologic photomicrographs of the curettage specimen are shown in Figures 61d and 61e. What is the best course of treatment?
Explanation
The definitive surgery would be removal of the entire resection bed, and in this case of dedifferentiated chondrosarcoma, a hemipelvectomy was performed. The MRI and CT scans show an aggressive cartilage lesion. The histology, representative of a dedifferentiated chondrosarcoma, shows a bimorphic low-grade cartilage lesion with high-grade spindle cell sarcoma. The cartilage lesion is usually an enchondroma or low-grade chondrosarcoma. The dedifferentiated portion is typically a malignant fibrous histocytoma, osteosarcoma, or fibrosarcoma. Weber KL, Pring ME, Sim FH: Treatment and outcome of recurrent pelvic chondrosarcoma. Clin Orthop Relat Res 2002;397:19-28.
Question 14
Cell signaling through the activation of a transmembrane receptor complex formed by serine/threonine kinase receptors occurs with which of the following growth factors?
Explanation
Cell activation and transcription varies with the target cell, the growth factor-receptor combination, and the biologic state of the cell. The growth factors in the transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-ß) superfamily signal through serine/threonine kinase receptors. Fibroblast growth factors, insulin-like growth factors, and platelet-derived growth factors signal through tyrosine kinase receptors. Growth hormone is released by the pituitary and circulates to the liver where target cells are stimulated to release insulin-like growth factor. Lieberman J, Daluiski A, Einhorn TA: The role of growth factors in the repair of bone: Biology and clinical applications. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2002;84:1032-1044.
Question 15
A 27-year-old woman has a bilateral C5-C6 facet dislocation and quadriparesis after being involved in a motor vehicle accident. Initial management consisted of reduction with traction, but she remains a Frankel A quadriplegic. To facilitate rehabilitation, surgical stabilization and fusion is planned. From a biomechanical point of view, which of the following techniques is the LEAST stable method of fixation?
Explanation
In two different biomechanical studies performed in both bovine and human cadaveric spines, all posterior techniques of stabilization were found to be superior to anterior plating in flexion-distraction injuries of the cervical spine. These injuries usually have an intact anterior longitudinal ligament that allows posterior fixation to function as a tension band. Anterior plating with grafting destroys this last remaining stabilizing structure and does not allow for a tension band effect because all of the posterior stabilizing structures have been destroyed with the injury. In clinical practice, however, anterior plating can be effective in the treatment of this injury with appropriate postoperative orthotic management. Sutterlin CE III, McAfee PC, Warden KE, et al: A biomechanical evaluation of cervical spine stabilization methods in a bovine model: Static and cyclical loading. Spine 1988;13:795-802.
Question 16
A 25-year-old man has had an insidious onset of left hip pain over the past 11 months. A radiograph, coronal MRI scan, and histopathologic specimens are seen in Figures 2a through 2d. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
Ewing's sarcoma is the second most common primary sarcoma of bone in children and young adults. It is a malignant round cell tumor with uncertain histogenesis. Sheets of uniform small round blue cells with a high nuclear-to-cytoplasm ratio and the absence of osteoid formation differentiate this histologic diagnosis from the other conditions. Immunohistochemical staining and molecular diagnostic studies are useful to verify the diagnosis.
Question 17
A patient who underwent primary total hip arthroplasty 7 years ago that resulted in excellent pain relief and a normal gait now reports pain and a limp. Postoperative and current AP radiographs are shown in Figures 2a and 2b. What is the most likely cause of the pathology seen?
Explanation
Osteolysis in the trochanteric bed can result in weakening of the bone and fracture. Nonsurgical management will provide reasonable clinical and radiographic results in patients with limited fracture displacement. Claus MC, Hopper RH, Engh CA: Fractures of the greater trochanter induced by osteolysis with the anatomic medullary locking prosthesis. J Arthroplasty 2002;17:706-712.
Question 18
Figure 35 shows the radiograph of a 12-year-old boy who fell off a snowmobile and landed on his left shoulder. He has a closed injury. Management should consist of
Explanation
Proximal humeral fractures in children are classified as metaphyseal or Salter-Harris type I or II fractures, and most of these fractures are treated with closed methods. Eighty percent of the growth of the humerus comes from the proximal physis; therefore, tremendous remodeling potential is present. Indications for open reduction include open fractures or severely displaced fractures in adolescents with minimal growth remaining. Acceptable limits of reduction in adolescent proximal humeral fractures include bayonet apposition and angulation of less than 35 degrees. Common blocks to reduction in adolescents include the biceps tendon and periosteum. For this fracture, use of a shoulder sling without reduction will lead to healing and an excellent result as the proximal humerus remodels. Kohler R, Trillaud JM: Fracture and fracture separation of the proximal humerus in children: Report of 136 cases. J Pediatr Orthop 1983;3:326-332. Beaty JH: Fractures of the proximal humerus and shaft in children. Instr Course Lect 1992;41:369-372. Dobbs MB, Luhmann SL, Gordon JE, et al: Severely displaced proximal humeral epiphyseal fractures. J Pediatr Orthop 2003;23:208-215. Beringer DC, Weiner DS, Noble JS, et al: Severely displaced proximal humeral epiphyseal fractures: A follow-up study. J Pediatr Orthop 1998;18:31-37.
Question 19
What is the most common complication following total disk arthroplasty in the lumbar spine?
Explanation
In a midterm (7 to 11 years) follow-up study of lumbar total disk arthroplasty, 5 of 55 patients had transient radicular leg pain without evidence of nerve root compression. Implant migration is rare. Deep venous thrombosis, incisional hernia, and retrograde ejaculation are less common complications of disk arthroplasty.
Question 20
What is the typical axial plane transverse angulation of the thoracic pedicles?
Explanation
Thoracic pedicles typically are angled 25 degrees medially at T1 so the starting point is more lateral. T2 angles about 15 degrees, and then the pedicles average about 5 to 7 degrees down to T10. At T11 and 12, the angulation is minimal. Weinstein L: Pediatric Spine Principles and Practice. New York, NY, Raven Press, 1994, pp 1659-1681.
Question 21
A 55-year-old woman who underwent a left total hip arthroplasty 8 months ago using a modified Hardinger approach reports a persistent painless limp. Examination reveals that when she is not using a cane, she lurches to the left during weight bearing on the left lower extremity. An AP radiograph is shown in Figure 29. Which of the following hip muscle groups should be strengthened to improve the gait abnormality?
Explanation
The modified Hardinger approach includes a partial anterior trochanteric osteotomy creating a trochanteric wafer (as seen on the radiograph) that is displaced anterior and medial in continuity with the gluteus medius and vastus lateralis. Failure of abductor reattachment, migration of the trochanter, nonunion of the osteotomy site, and excessive splitting of the gluteus medius muscle causing injury to the inferior branch of the superior gluteal nerve can result in weakness of the abductor mechanism. Abductor strength should be evaluated with the patient lying on the opposite side and elevating the affected limb. Although slight weakness may manifest itself as a limp only after prolonged muscular activity, significant weakness results in a constant limp without associated discomfort. Morrey BF (ed): Joint Replacement Arthroplasty. New York, NY, Churchill Livingstone, 1991, pp 512-526.
Question 22
A 42-year-old man reports the recent onset of right hip pain. A radiograph and MRI scan are shown in Figures 38a and 38b. A WBC count, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and hip aspiration are within normal limits. Management should now consist of
Explanation
Transient osteoporosis of the hip is an uncommon problem, usually affecting women in the last trimester of pregnancy and middle-aged men. Symptoms include pain in the involved hip with temporary osteopenia; however, there is no joint space involvement. In this patient, the imaging findings are consistent with transient osteoporosis. Short TR/TE (repetition time/echo time) images reveal diffusely decreased signal intensity in the femoral head and intracapsular region of the femoral neck. Increased signal intensity is seen with increased T2-weighting. Within a few months, the pain, as well as the imaging findings, will completely resolve without intervention. Distinguishing the diffuse features of transient osteoporosis of the hip from the segmental findings of osteonecrosis is essential. Unlike transient osteoporosis of the hip, osteonecrosis will have a double-density signal on MRI and may progress radiographically. Surgical intervention and oral corticosteriods are not indicated for treatment. Protected weight bearing until the pain resolves may decrease symptoms while the transient osteoporosis resolves. Potter H, Moran M, Scheider R, et al: Magnetic resonance imaging in diagnosis of transient osteoporosis of the hip. Clin Orthop 1992;280:223-229. Bijl M, van Leeuwen MA, van Rijswijk MH: Transient osteoporosis of the hip: Presentation of typical cases for review of the literature. Clin Exp Rheumatol 1999;17:601-604.
Question 23
A 10-year-old girl reports activity-related bilateral arm pain. Examination reveals no soft-tissue masses in either arm, and she has full painless range of motion in both shoulders and elbows. The radiograph and bone scan are shown in Figures 20a and 20b, and biopsy specimens are shown in Figures 20c and 20d. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
Based on these findings, the most likely diagnosis is fibrous dysplasia. Twenty percent of patients with fibrous dysplasia have multifocal disease. The lesions show a typical ground glass appearance. Fibrous dysplasia frequently involves the diaphysis of the long bones. There is no associated soft-tissue mass and no periosteal reactions to these lesions, suggesting a benign lesion. The histology shows proliferating fibroblasts in a dense collagen matrix. Trabeculae are arranged in an irregular or "Chinese letter" appearance. Osteogenic sarcoma and Ewing's sarcoma have a much different radiographic appearance of malignant osteoid and small round blue cells. Periosteal chondroma does occur in the proximal humerus but is not typically multifocal. It appears as a surface lesion with saucerization of the underlying bone and a bony buttress adjacent to the lesion. Some patients with multifocal lesions have associated endocrine abnormalities (McCune-Albright syndrome). Wold LA, et al: Atlas of Orthopaedic Pathology. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1990, pp 118-119.
Question 24
A 7-year-old girl has had a painful forearm for the past 2 months. Examination reveals fullness on the volar aspect of the forearm. Radiographs and an MRI scan are shown in Figures 42a through 42c. Biopsy specimens are shown in Figures 42d and 42e. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
The radiographs reveal phleboliths on the volar side of the forearm consistent with hemangioma. The MRI scan reveals a rather well-circumscribed in size, irregular in shape, intramuscular soft-tissue mass in the volar aspect of the distal right forearm within the flexor group musculature. The mass demonstrates heterogeneous mixed signal intensity in both T1- and T2-weighted sequences with increased signal intensity on the T1, suggesting fat within the tumor, typical of hemangioma. The postgadolinium-enhanced sequences demonstrate heterogeneous enhancement. The MRI findings are consistent with a soft-tissue hemangioma. Garzon M: Hemangiomas: Update on classification, clinical presentation and associate anomalies. Cutis 2000;66:325-328.
Question 25
Human tendons are made up primarily of what collagen type (~95%)?
Explanation
Tendons are dense, primarily collagenous tissues that attach muscle to bone. Collagen content of the dry weight is slightly greater than that found in ligaments and is predominantly type I. Type III collagen makes up the remaining ~5% of total collagen content. Kasser JR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 5. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1996, pp 10-12. Garrett WE, Speer KP, Kirkendall DT (eds): Principles & Practice of Orthopaedic Sports Medicine. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2000, pp 21-37.
Question 26
A 68-year-old man embarks on a 24-week strength training program. He trains at 80% of his single repetition maximum for both the upper and lower extremities. Which of the following changes can be anticipated?
Explanation
Consistent, long-term exercise training in older athletes has proven very beneficial in reversing both endurance and strength losses that traditionally have been seen with aging. This patient's program will lead to a significant increase in the strength, cross-sectional area, and capillary density of the trained muscles. No major changes in aerobic capacity are anticipated. Strength improvements of up to 5% per day, similar to those for younger athletes, have been identified in this population in one study. Kirkendall DT, Garrett WE Jr: The effects of aging and training on skeletal muscle. Am J Sports Med 1998;26:598-602.
Question 27
A 28-year-old man was shot in the foot with a .22 caliber handgun approximately 2 hours ago. Examination reveals an entrance wound dorsally and a plantar exit wound. The foot is neurovascularly intact. Radiographs reveal a nondisplaced fracture of the third metatarsal. Soft-tissue management for this injury should consist of
Explanation
The patient has sustained a low-velocity, low-caliber gunshot wound to the foot. Because the injury occurred within a period of 8 hours, this is classified as a type I wound. Several studies support the use of surface debridement, cleansing, and sterile dressings as the treatment of choice. More aggressive measures are reserved for high-velocity injuries and shotgun injuries. Brettler D, Sedlin ED, Mendes DG: Conservative treatment of low velocity gunshot wounds. Clin Orthop 1979;140:26-31. Hampton OD: The indications for debridement of gunshot bullet wounds of the extremities in civilian practice. J Trauma 1961;1:368-372.
Question 28
A 23-year-old man sustains a unilateral jumped facet with an isolated cervical root injury in a motor vehicle accident. Acute reduction results in some initial improvement of his motor weakness. Over the next 48 hours, examination reveals ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation in his face, limbs, and trunk, as well as nystagmus, tinnitus, and diplopia. What is the most likely etiology for these changes?
Explanation
The patient is showing signs of vertebral artery stroke. The signs of Wallenberg syndrome include those listed above, as well as contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation throughout the body, an ipsilateral Horner's syndrome, dysphagia, and ataxia. Vertebral artery injuries are not unusual in significant cervical facet injuries. A lesion in the cervical spinal cord is not associated with these symptoms, and an intracranial hemorrhage from trauma is unlikely to present in this manner. Young PA, Young PH: Basic Clinical Neuroanatomy. Baltimore, MD, Williams and Wilkins, 1997, pp 242-243. Hauop JS, et al: The cause of neurologic deterioration after acute cervical spinal cord injury. Spine 2001;26:340-346.
Question 29
Following a radial nerve neurapraxia at or above the elbow, return of muscle function can be expected to start at the brachioradialis and return along which of the following progressions?
Explanation
Following a radial nerve neurapraxia above the elbow, muscle recovery can be expected in a predictable pattern. Although variations will occur, the return of function or reinnervation usually occurs in the following order: brachioradialis, extensor carpi radialis longus, supinator, extensor carpi radialis brevis, extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor digitorum comminus, extensor digiti minimi, extensor indicis proprious, extensor pollicis longus, abductor pollicis longus, and extensor pollicis brevis. Netter F: The Ciba Collection of Medical Illustrations: The Musculoskeletal System. Part 1, Anatomy, Physiology and Metabolic Disorders. West Caldwell, NJ, Ciba-Geigy, 1991, vol 8, p 53.
Question 30
A 22-year-old man who sustained a Gustilo-Anderson grade IIIC open fracture of the right tibia and fibula was treated with an immediate open transtibial amputation. After two serial debridements, he underwent wound closure with a posterior myocutaneous soft-tissue flap. What is the preferred method of early rehabilitation?
Explanation
There is no evidence that early weight bearing enhances ultimate rehabilitation. At the other extreme, weight bearing should not be delayed for a prolonged period of time. In a young, healthy individual, the rigid plaster dressing appears to be the safest method of protecting the wound during the early postoperative period. If the wound appears to be secure, early partial weight bearing can be safely initiated. Burgess EM, Romano RL, Zettl JH: The Management of Lower Extremity Amputations. Washington, DC, US Government Printing Office, 1969, also at: www.prs-research.org.
Question 31
A 2-year-old boy has complete absence of the sacrum and lower lumbar spine. What is the most likely long-term outcome if no spinal pelvic stabilization is performed?
Explanation
Without stabilization, progressive kyphosis will develop between the spine and pelvis. The kyphosis progresses to the point that the child must use his or her hands to support the trunk, and therefore is unable to use his or her hands for other activities. Neck extension contracture does not usually develop. Neurologic deficit, including sexual dysfunction, is generally present at birth and static. Tachdjian MO: The spine: Congenital absence of the sacrum and lumbosacral vertebrae (lumbosacral agenesis), in Wickland EH Jr (ed): Pediatric Orthopaedics, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1990, vol 3, p 2228.
Question 32
A 70-year-old man seen in the emergency department has had left shoulder pain and a fever of 101.5 degrees F (38.6 degrees C) for the past 3 days. He denies any history of trauma. Examination reveals tenderness anterosuperiorly and at the posterior glenohumeral joint line. He has very limited range of motion (passive and active). Laboratory studies show a WBC count of 12,000/mm3 and an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 48 mm/h. Initial management should consist of
Explanation
It appears that the patient has septic arthritis of the glenohumeral joint; therefore, initial management should consist of aspiration of the glenohumeral joint and subacromial space separately, followed by Gram stain and culture of the fluid. Based on the findings, broad-spectrum IV antibiotics should be started. If the diagnosis of septic arthritis is confirmed, then arthroscopic or open surgical drainage usually is indicated. Sawyer JR, Esterhai JL Jr: Shoulder infections, in Warner JJ, Iannotti JP, Gerber C (eds): Complex and Revision Problems in Shoulder Surgery. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1997.
Question 33
A 17-year-old football player is injured during a play and reports abdominal pain that is soon followed by nausea and vomiting. What organ has most likely been injured?
Explanation
The spleen is the most common organ injured in the abdomen as the result of blunt trauma. It is also the most common cause of death because of an abdominal injury. The liver is the second most commonly injured organ. Injury to the other organs is rare. The diagnosis can be made with CT. Treatment ranges from observation to splenectomy, depending on the severity of injury. Green GA: Gastrointestinal disorders in the athlete. Clin Sports Med 1992;11:453-470.
Question 34
The most common mechanism of injury to the triangular fibrocartilage complex (TFCC) involves
Explanation
TFCC tears are common in athletes. As the athlete braces for a fall, the wrist is most commonly in an extended position and the forearm is pronated. Cohen MS: Ligamentous injuries of the wrist in the athlete. Clin Sports Med 1998;17:533-552.
Question 35
A 50-year-old man with no history of trauma reports new-onset back pain after doing some yard work the previous day. He reports pain radiating down his leg posteriorly and into the first dorsal web space of his foot. MRI scans are shown in Figures 3a through 3c. What nerve root is affected?
Explanation
The MRI scans clearly show an extruded L4-5 disk that is affecting the L5 nerve root on the left side. In addition, the L5 nerve root has a cutaneous distribution in the first dorsal web space. S1 affects the lateral foot. L4 affects the medial calf.
Question 36
When counseling a patient with hypophosphatemic rickets, which of the following scenarios will always result in a child with the same disorder?
Explanation
Hypophosphatemic rickets is an inherited disorder that is transmitted by a unique sex-linked dominant gene. Therefore, if a male patient has a female offspring, his affected X chromosome will be transmitted and all of his female children will have hypophosphatemic rickets. All male offspring of a male patient will be unaffected. All offspring of a female patient have a 50% chance of having the disorder. Understanding the inheritance of hypophosphatemic rickets facilitates early diagnosis and early treatment. Medical treatment with phosphorus and some types of vitamin D (most authors recommend calcitriol) improves, but does not fully correct, the mineralization defect in hypophosphatemic rickets. However, if medical treatment is begun before the child begins walking, the growth plate is then adequately protected and a bowleg deformity will most likely be prevented. Evans GA, Arulanantham K, Gage JR: Primary hypophosphatemic rickets: Effect of oral phosphate and vitamin D on growth and surgical treatment. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1980;62:1130-1138.
Question 37
Figure 4 shows the AP radiograph of a 28-year-old woman who has had moderate pain in the left hip for the past year. Nonsurgical management has failed to provide relief. She denies any history of hip pain, pathology, or trauma. Management should consist of
Explanation
The radiograph shows developmental dysplasia of the hip with the hip reduced and congruent. The treatment of choice is a periacetabular osteotomy because it can improve hip biomechanics and prolong the function of the hip joint. This procedure should be performed prior to the development of severe degenerative changes. Observation will not alter the patient's natural history or the biomechanics of the hip. A total hip arthroplasty should be delayed until severe degenerative changes are present. A Chiari osteotomy is a salvage osteotomy used for a noncongruent subluxated hip. A Pemberton osteotomy requires an open triradiate cartilage; therefore, it is not an option in an adult. Trousdale RT, Ekkernkamp A, Ganz R, Wallrichs SL: Periacetabular and intertrochanteric osteotomy for the treatment of osteoarthrosis in dysplastic hips. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1995;77:73-85.
Question 38
A 32-year-old woman has had pain and a visibly growing mass in the shoulder for 3 years but denies any history of trauma. Examination reveals a swollen, boggy shoulder mass. The AP radiograph and MRI scan are shown in Figures 20a and 20b. Figures 20c through 20e show a portion of the excised mass and the photomicrographs of the biopsy specimen. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
The radiographic findings are classic for synovial chondromatosis because of the small calcified opacities within the joint surrounding the synovium. The histologic findings show cartilaginous foci of metaplasia, which may be markedly cellular. However, unlike low-grade chondrosarcoma, it lacks cellular and nuclear pleomorphism. Murphy FP, Dahlin DC, Sullivan CR: Articular synovial chondromatosis. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1982;44:77-86.
Question 39
When comparing the failure load of an evenly tensioned four-stranded hamstring tendon anterior cruciate ligament autograft to a 10-mm bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft, the hamstring graft will fail at a tension
Explanation
The failure load of an evenly tensioned four-stranded hamstring tendon autograft has been reported to be 4,500 Newtons. The failure load of a 10-mm patellar tendon autograft has been estimated at 2,600 Newtons. The intact anterior cruciate ligament failure load has been calculated at 1,725 Newtons. Corry IS, Webb JM, Clingeleffer AJ, Pinczewski LA: Arthroscopic reconstruction of the anterior cruciate ligament: A comparison of patellar tendon autograft and four-strand hamstring tendon autograft. Am J Sports Med 1999;27:448-454. Hamner DL, Brown CH Jr, Steiner ME, et al: Hamstring tendon grafts for reconstruction of the anterior cruciate ligament: Biomechanical evaluation of the use of multiple strands and tensioning techniques. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1999;81:549-557.
Question 40
On MRI, a nonsanguinous effusion has what appearance?
Explanation
Nonbloody effusions that are greater than 1 mL are readily detected by MRI. They appear black on T1-weighted images and white on T2-weighted images. A sanguinous effusion is seen as white on T1-weighted images and black on T2-weighted images. Resnick D, Kang HS: Synovial joints, in Resnick D, Kang HS (eds): Internal Derangements of Joints: Emphasis on MR Imaging. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1997, pp 49-53.
Question 41
Figure 40 shows the radiographs of a 2-year-old boy who has a deformed leg. The patient is ambulatory and has no pain. What is the most appropriate management?
Explanation
The patient has a prefractured stage of congenital pseudarthrosis of the tibia and is at risk for fracture. The PTB orthosis may prevent or delay the fracture. Osteotomy is frequently complicated by nonunion. When established nonunion does not respond to intramedullary nailing and bone grafting, vascularized grafting may succeed. Amputation is a salvage procedure. Murray HH, Lovell WW: Congenital pseudarthrosis of the tibia: A long-term follow-up study. Clin Orthop 1982;166:14-20.
Question 42
The lesion seen in Figure 4 is most likely the result of metastases from what solid organ?
Explanation
The primary carcinoma most likely to metastasize distal to the elbow and knees is lung carcinoma. Renal cell carcinoma can also metastasize to distal sites. Most metastatic bone disease occurs in the vertebral bodies, pelvis, and proximal long bones. Simon MA, Bartucci EJ: The search for the primary tumor in patients with skeletal metastases of unknown origin. Cancer 1986;58:1088-1095.
Question 43
What is the preferred treatment of a patient with breast cancer and a pathologic fracture of the clavicle in her dominant arm?
Explanation
Closed management should be attempted for upper extremity pathologic fractures, particularly the clavicle. If nonunion or pain persists, surgery may be indicated. Radiofrequency ablation is not indicated for subcutaneous bones. Early motion is likely to cause increased pain and disability. Weber KC, Lewis VO, Randall RL, Lee AK, Springfield D: An approach to the management of the patient with metastatic bone disease. Instr Course Lect 2004;53:663-676.
Question 44
The anatomy of the sciatic nerve as it exits the pelvis is best described as exiting through the
Explanation
The sciatic nerve is formed by the roots of the lumbosacral plexus. It exits the pelvis through the greater sciatic notch and appears in the buttock anterior to the piriformus. From that point, the sciatic nerve passes posteriorly over the superior gemellus, obturator internus, inferior gemellus, and quadratus femoris before it passes deep to the biceps femoris. The tendon of the obturator internus passes through the lesser sciatic notch. Hoppenfeld S, deBoer P: Surgical Exposures in Orthopaedics: The Anatomic Approach. Philadelphia, PA, JB Lippincott, 1984, p 347. Anderson JE: Grant's Atlas of Anatomy, ed 7. Baltimore, MD, Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 1978, pp 4-34, 4-36.
Question 45
A 21-year-old collegiate female cross-country athlete reports right hip pain that begins about 12 miles into a run, followed by pain resolution when she discontinues running. However, each time she tries to resume a running program, she experiences recurrence of pain deep in the anterior groin. A plain radiograph and MRI scan are shown in Figures 8a and 8b. Management should consist of
Explanation
The history is consistent with a stress fracture. Findings on the plain radiograph are marginal, but the MRI scan shows evidence of stress reaction in the medial neck of the femur (compression side). A lesion on the compression side is not normally at risk for displacement and usually can be managed nonsurgically. A bone scan would further identify the lesion but is not necessary. A skeletal survey and chest radiograph are used in staging a tumor. Radioisotope injection and guided biopsy are sometimes used for osteoid osteomas. Boden BP, Osbahr DC: High-risk stress fractures: Evaluation and treatment. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2000;8:344-353.
Question 46
Which of the following best describes the course of the median nerve at the elbow?
Explanation
The median nerve courses superficial to the ulnar artery, deep to the fibrous arch of the superficialis muscle, and deep to the superficial head of the pronator teres muscle. The median nerve lies within the interval between the flexor digitorum superficialis muscle and the flexor digitorium muscle as it progresses toward the wrist. Hoppenfeld S, deBoer P: Surgical Exposures in Orthopaedics, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1994, pp 118-131.
Question 47
The inheritance of the deformity shown in Figure 1 is most commonly
Explanation
Cleft hand and cleft foot malformations are commonly inherited as autosomal-dominant traits and are associated with a number of syndromes. An autosomal-recessive and an x-linked inheritance pattern have also been described, but these are much less common and are usually atypical. In the common autosomal-dominant condition, nearly one third of the known carriers of the gene show no hand or foot abnormalities. This is known as reduced penetrance. The disorder may be variably expressed; affected family members often exhibit a range from mild abnormalities in one limb only to severe anomalies in four limbs. Variable expressivity and reduced penetrance can cause difficulty in counseling families regarding future offspring in an affected family. Many patients have a cleft hand that may be caused by the split-hand, split-foot gene (SHFM1) localized on chromosome 7q21.
Question 48
Figure 21 shows the radiograph of a 32-year-old patient with right hip pain that has failed to respond to nonsurgical management. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment at this time?
Explanation
The radiograph reveals developmental dysplasia of both hips. The patient has classic anterolateral undercoverage of the femoral head on the right side as demonstrated by a high acetabular index (measured at 27 degrees). Anterior undercoverage can be determined by drawing the marking for the anterior wall that fails to overlap the femoral head in this patient. Currently in North America, the most accepted surgical management for symptomatic dysplasia of the hip with good joint space is a Bernese (Ganz) periacetabular osteotomy. Surgical dislocation of the hip and femoroacetabular osteoplasty may be considered for patients with symptomatic femoroacetabular impingement of the hip. Ganz R, Klaue K, Vinh TS, et al: A new periacetabular osteotomy for the treatment of hip dysplasias: Technique and preliminary results. Clin Orthop 1988;232:26-36.
Question 49
An adult with a distal humeral fracture underwent open reduction and internal fixation. What is the most common postoperative complication?
Explanation
Most patients lose elbow range of motion after open reduction and internal fixation of a distal humeral fracture. Ulnar nerve dysfunction, nonunion, and infection all occur less commonly. Webb LX: Distal humerus fractures in adults. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1996;4:336-344.
Question 50
A 78-year-old patient undergoing revision total knee arthroplasty has bone loss throughout the knee at the time of revision. A distal femoral augment is used to restore the joint line. One month after surgery, the patient reports pain and is unable to ambulate. A lateral radiograph is shown in Figure 34. What is the most likely etiology of this problem?
Explanation
Instability is a leading cause of failure following total knee arthroplasty. Instability can present as global instability, extension gap (varus/valgus) instability, or flexion gap (anterior/posterior) instability. Treatment options are numerous based on the exact pathology. The radiograph reveals anterior/posterior instability with dislocation consistent with flexion gap instability. A loose flexion gap can allow the femoral component to ride above the tibial cam post mechanism, resulting in dislocation. Distal femoral augments treat extension gap instability, whereas tibial augments can treat both flexion and extension gap instability. Posterior condyle augments at the distal femur can also be used to treat flexion gap instability. Flexion gap instability is further aggravated by extension mechanism incompetence. Note the excessively thin patella on the lateral radiograph. Pagnano MW, Hanssen AD, Lewallen DG, et al: Flexion instability after primary cruciate retaining total knee arthroplasty. Clin Orthop 1998;356:39-46. McAuley J, Engh GA, Ammeen DJ: Treatment of the unstable total knee arthroplasty. Inst Course Lect 2004;53:237-241.
Question 51
The illustration shown in Figure 19 shows a Chamberlain line. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
Basilar invagination is best defined as vertical or compressive instability at the occiput-C1 joint. Such invaginations most commonly occur in patients with rheumatoid arthritis but also can occur secondary to trauma or tumor. A Chamberlain line is used as a method to determine basilar invagination. The odontoid tip should not be more than 5 mm above a Chamberlain line. Wiesel SW, Rothman RH: Occipito-atlantal hypermobility. Spine 1979;4:187-191.
Question 52
A 35-year-old female runner reports progressive vague aching pain involving her midfoot. Her pain is most notable when running. She denies specific injury. Examination reveals minimal swelling and localized tenderness over the dorsal medial midfoot and navicular. Radiographs and an MRI scan are shown in Figures 37a through 37c. What is the most appropriate management?
Explanation
A high index of suspicion is required to identify a possible navicular stress fracture, especially in runners. High pain tolerance in the competitive athlete and often minimal swelling contribute to frequent delays in diagnosis. Localized tenderness over the dorsal navicular (so-called "N spot") in a running athlete should alert the treating physician. In this patient, the radiographs are negative and the MRI scan shows marrow edema within the navicular. This could represent a stress reaction, stress fracture, or osteonecrosis. Appropriate management should include non-weight-bearing immobilization and obtaining a CT scan to determine if a fracture is present. Early surgical treatment may be considered but only if a fracture is identified. Lee A, Anderson R: Stress fractures of the tarsal navicular. Foot Ankle Clin 2004;9:85-104.
Question 53
Figure 15 shows the radiograph of an active 60-year-old woman. Which of the following variables is considered the strongest contraindication to a unicompartmental knee arthroplasty in this patient?
Explanation
Unicompartmental arthroplasty of the knee for single compartment arthrosis has recently become more popular. Contraindications to unicompartmental knee arthroplasty include fixed varus or valgus deformity of more than 5 degrees, restricted range of motion, fixed flexion contracture, joint subluxation of 5 mm or greater, and arthrosis of the opposite and/or patellofemoral compartment. Cossey AJ, Spriggins AJ: The use of computer-assisted surgical navigation to prevent malalignment in unicompartmental knee arthroplasty. J Arthroplasty 2005;20:29-34. Iorio R, Healy WL: Unicompartmental arthritis of the knee. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2003;85:1351-1364.
Question 54
A skeletally mature 15-year-old girl who was thrown from the car in a rollover accident sustained the injuries shown in Figures 23a through 23d. Examination reveals no neurologic deficit, but the patient has moderate posterior spinal tenderness at the level of the injury. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Explanation
The majority of patients with thoracolumbar burst fractures without neurologic deficit can be effectively treated with a TLSO or a hyperextension body cast. Indications for surgery are neurologic deficit and/or significant deformity (greater than 50% loss of anterior vertebral body height or marked kyphosis). Garfin SR, Vaccaro AR (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Spine. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1997, pp 197-217.
Question 55
Figure 23 shows the radiograph of a 7 year-old girl with a low thoracic-level myelomeningocele. She has a history of skin ulcers over the apex of the deformity, but her current skin condition is good. Management of the spinal deformity should consist of
Explanation
This form of severe kyphosis results in intractable difficulties with sitting position, compression of internal organs, and chronic skin breakdown. Kyphectomy and posterior fusion with instrumentation, while associated with a high rate of complications, provides one of the best solutions to this clinical dilemma. The other choices are either completely ineffective or inadequate in managing this degree of deformity. Lindseth RE: Spine deformity in myelomeningocele. Instr Course Lect 1991;40:273-279.
Question 56
What is the typical MRI signal intensity of bone marrow affected by acute osteomyelitis?
Explanation
The classic MRI findings of osteomyelitis are a decrease in the normally high signal intensity of marrow on T1-weighted images and normal or increased signal intensity on T2-weighted images. This is the result of replacement of marrow fat by inflammatory cells and edema, which causes lower signal intensity than fat on T1-weighted images and higher signal intensity than fat on T2-weighted images. The addition of gadolinium to a T1-weighted sequence reveals increased signal intensity in the hyperemic marrow. Unger E, Moldofsky P, Gatenby R, et al: Diagnosis of osteomyelitis by MR imaging. Am J Roentgenol 1988;150:605-610. Dormans JP, Drummond DS: Pediatric hematogenous osteomyelitis: New trends in presentation, diagnosis and treatment. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1994;2:333-341.
Question 57
An 11-year-old boy stepped on a nail and sustained a puncture to the right forefoot 6 days ago. He was wearing tennis shoes at the time of injury. Treatment in the emergency department consisted of local debridement and tetanus prophylaxis; a radiograph was negative for foreign body, chondral defect, or fracture. He was discharged with a 3-day prescription of amoxicillin and clavulanate. The patient now has increasing pain and tenderness at the puncture site. What is the best course of action?
Explanation
The initial treatment consisting of oral antibiotics was appropriate but with progressive symptoms, surgical debridement is necessary. Ciprofloxacin is contraindicated in children, and at this stage, oral antibiotics are inadequate. Intravenous antibiotics may be necessary, but surgical debridement is paramount. Failure to respond to the initial management precludes further observation. Riegler HP, Routson T: Complications of deep puncture wounds of the foot. J Trauma 1979;19:18-22.
Question 58
A 37-year-old patient with type I diabetes mellitus has a flexor tenosynovitis of the thumb flexor tendon sheath following a kitchen knife puncture wound to the volar aspect of the thumb. Left unattended, this infection will likely first spread proximally creating an abscess in which of the following spaces of the palm?
Explanation
Flexor tenosynovitis of the thumb flexor tendon sheath can spread proximally and form an abscess within the thenar space of the palm. The flexor pollicis longus tendon does not pass through the central space of the palm or the hypothenar space of the palm. The flexor pollicis longus tendon does pass through the carpal tunnel, but this is not a palmar space. The three palmar spaces include the hypothenar space, the thenar space, and the central space. The posterior adductor space would likely only be involved secondarily after spread from a thenar space infection. Hollinshead W: Anatomy for Surgeons: The Back and Limbs, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, Harper and Row, 1982, vol 3, pp 478-479.
Question 59
Figure 17 shows the radiograph of a 2-year-old girl who sustained a fracture of the femur in a fall while walking with her parents. History reveals that this is her third long bone fracture, having sustained a humerus fracture 1 year ago and a fracture of the opposite femur 9 months ago. There is no family history of any similar problem. Examination reveals distinctly blue sclerae, normal appearing teeth, and no skin lesions. What is the most likely cause of this patient's disorder?
Explanation
Osteogenesis imperfecta (OI) is a genetically determined disorder of type I collagen synthesis that is characterized by bone fragility. This patient has had three fractures of the long bones by age 2 years, with the last one occurring after relatively minor trauma. The patient's history and clinical features are consistent with a diagnosis of Sillence type IA OI. Type I OI is the mildest and most common form. Inheritance is autosomal-dominant; however, as in this patient, new mutations are frequent. Type I is subclassified into the A type (absence of dentinogenesis imperfecta) and B type (presence of dentinogenesis imperfecta). The sclerae are blue, and the first fractures usually occur in the preschool years after walking has begun. Cells from individuals with type I OI largely demonstrate a quantitative defect of type I collagen; they synthesize and secrete about half the normal amount of type I procollagen. Qualitative mutations that lead to an abnormal type I procollagen molecule result in more severe types of the disorder. There are no indications that this child has been abused. Radiographs of the femur show no evidence of rickets, pyknodysostosis, or osteopetrosis. Morquio syndrome, characterized by excess excretion of keratin sulfate in the urine, is not associated with bone fragility. Kocher MS, Shapiro F: Osteogenesis imperfecta. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1998;6:225-236. Sillence DO, Senn A, Danks DM: Osteogenesis imperfecta: An expanding panorama of variants. Clin Orthop 1981;159:11-25.
Question 60
What is the current 5-year survival rate for patients with classic nonmetastatic, high-grade osteosarcoma of the extremity?
Explanation
Multidisciplinary treatment combining systemic chemotherapy and adequate surgical resection has resulted in a 5-year survival rate of 70% in patients with nonmetastatic osteosarcoma of the extremity . The advent of effective chemotherapy has increased the overall survival rate from 20% to 70% in current studies. Arndt CA, Crist WM: Common musculoskeletal tumors of childhood and adolescence. N Engl J Med 1999;341:342-352.
Question 61
A 63-year-old woman with a history of poliomyelitis has a fixed 30-degree equinus contracture of the ankle, rigid hindfoot valgus, and normal knee strength and stability. She reports persistent pain and has had several medial forefoot ulcerations despite a program of stretching, bracing, and custom footwear. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Explanation
The patient has a fixed deformity of the hindfoot and an Achilles tendon contracture; therefore, the treatment of choice is triple arthrodesis with Achilles tendon lengthening. Further bracing will not be helpful. Amputation is not indicated, and ankle arthrodesis will not address the hindfoot deformity. Palliative management would be more appropriate if the knee was unstable or the quadriceps were weak, because the equinus balances the ground reaction force across the knee. Perry J, Fontaine JD, Mulroy S: Findings in post-poliomyelitis syndrome: Weakness of muscles of the calf as a source of late pain and fatigue of muscles of the thigh after poliomyelitis. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1995;77:1148-1153.
Question 62
A 21-year-old woman who was wearing a seat belt sustained an injury of the thoracolumbar junction in a motor vehicle accident. The AP radiograph shows widening between the L1 and L2 spinous processes, and the CT scan shows the empty facet sign at this level. The initial evaluation should include
Explanation
The patient has a flexion-distraction injury of the thoracolumbar spine that is often associated with wearing a seat belt. The fracture has a high risk of associated intra-abdominal injury; therefore, the initial evaluation should include a CT of the abdomen. The most common visceral injury is to the bowel. Smith WS, Kaufer H: Patterns and mechanisms of lumbar injuries associated with lap seat belts. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1969;51:239-254.
Question 63
A 52-year-old man has a stage IIB malignant fibrous histiocytoma of the distal femur. Local treatment should consist of
Explanation
Local control of malignant fibrous histiocytoma of bone typically consists of wide excision. Curettage and bone grafting is a procedure with an intralesional surgical margin, with an unacceptable rate of local recurrence. Prophylactic fixation is considered for patients with metastatic disease. Radiation therapy alone is not adequate for local control of this tumor. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy is often used primarily for systemic tumor control.
Question 64
Staphylococcus aureus develops methicillin resistance through production of which of the following agents?
Explanation
Organisms may develop resistance to antibiotics by production of specific enzymes. S aureus develops methicillin resistance by production of penicillin-binding protein 2a (PBP2a). The strains of S aureus that have acquired the mecA gene for PBP2a are designated as methicillin-resistant S aureus (MRSA). The enzyme manifests resistance to covalent modification by beta-lactam antibiotics at the active-site serine residue in two ways. First, the microscopic rate constant for acylation (k2) is attenuated by three to four orders of magnitude over the corresponding determinations for penicillin-sensitive PBPs. Second, the enzyme shows elevated dissociation constants (Kd) for the noncovalent preacylation complexes with the antibiotics, the formation of which ultimately would lead to enzyme acylation. The two factors working in concert effectively prevent enzyme acylation by the antibiotics in vivo, giving rise to drug resistance. Catalase and oxidase are enzymes produced by some bacteria that confer virulence to the organism but do not make the organisms methicillin resistant. Glycocalix is the pericellular layer produced by bacteria that serves many functions including attachment to surfaces. Beta-lactam describes a class of antibiotics. Fuda C, Suvorov M, Vakulenko SB, et al: The basis for resistance to beta-lactam antibiotics by penicillin-binding protein 2a (PBP2a) of methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus. J Biol Chem 2004;279:40802-40806. Lim D, Strynadka NC: Structural basis for the beta lactam resistance of PBP2a from methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus. Nat Struct Biol 2002;9:870-876.
Question 65
A 29-year-old ultramarathoner, who is halfway into a 50-mile race, is sweating profusely. He suddenly collapses, is unresponsive, and has violent muscle contractions. Prior to these symptoms, he had been drinking water at every water stop (every 1 mile). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
Hyponatremia ("water intoxication") can occur in endurance athletes such as ultramarathoners who are sweating profusely and drinking only water as fluid replacement. Sports drinks which contain electrolytes are a better replacement in this group of athletes. Sodium is the mineral most commonly affected by physical exercise. Sodium concentration in sweat depends on diet, hydration, and heat acclimation. In most cases, sodium lost in sweat can be replaced by regular diet. Potassium plays an important role in nerve conduction and muscle contraction but is not lost in excessive amounts in sweat during exercise. The most frequent loss of potassium is through gastrointestinal disorders or excessive loss from the kidneys. Rehrer reported that overhydrating during very long-lasting exercise in the heat with low or negligible sodium intake can result in reduced performance and hyponatremia. With hyponatremia, the serum sodium is abnormally low, resulting in brain swelling, seizures, coma, and potentially death. Interestingly, hyponatremia is rarely seen in adolescent athletes and young children. Griffin LY: Emergency preparedness: Things to consider before the game starts. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2005;87:894-902.
Question 66
Figures 31a and 31b show the radiograph and MRI scan of an otherwise normal 3-month-old infant who has a spinal deformity. MRI reveals no intraspinal anomalies. What is the next step in management?
Explanation
Congenital scoliosis in an infant warrants evaluation of the renal, cardiac, and neurologic systems because frequently there is concurrent pathology. Progression in this instance is possible but not certain; therefore, progression must be documented prior to any surgical intervention. Close observation with serial radiographs every 4 to 6 months is appropriate. All of the surgical options listed may be reasonable choices in the future, but cardiac evaluation is the most important issue at this time. Basu PS, Elsebaie H, Noordeen MH: Congenital spinal deformity: A comprehensive assessment at presentation. Spine 2002;27:2255-2259.
Question 67
A 6-year-old boy has leg pain. A radiograph, MRI, CT, and bone scans, and a biopsy specimen are shown in Figures 14a through 14e. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
From an imaging point of view, all of the diagnoses are possible. Biopsy results and cultures are necessary to make the diagnosis. The biopsy specimen shows inflammatory cells and necrotic bone, consistent with osteomyelitis. Fletcher BD, Hanna SL: Pediatric musculoskeletal lesions simulating neoplasms. Magn Reson Imaging Clin N Am 1996;4:721-747.
Question 68
A 70-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department with a two-part greater tuberosity fracture with an anterior subcoracoid dislocation. One day after successful closed reduction, examination reveals marked swelling of the involved arm, forearm, and hand, as well as large amounts of "weeping" serous fluid but no obvious lacerations. The fingers are warm and pink, and the pulses are normal distally with good refill. Edema is present. There is no pain with passive and active motion of the elbow, wrist, and fingers. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Explanation
Although not as common as arterial injury, venous thrombosis secondary to trauma of the subclavian or axillary vein can be problematic; therefore, venous duplex ultrasound scanning is the diagnostic study of choice. Arteriography may not show venous thrombosis in the venous run-off phase. The clinical history does not fit the usual presentation of a compartment syndrome or complex regional pain syndrome.
Question 69
Figure 24 shows the radiograph of a 47-year-old woman who has severe right hip pain and a limp. Management should consist of
Explanation
Femoral shortening osteotomy for a Crowe type IV hip dislocation has been shown to provide superior results with minimal complications. Cementless fixation of the stem allows for modular implants that greatly simplify the reconstruction.
Question 70
Figure 43 shows the lateral radiograph of a 12-year-old boy with mild osteogenesis imperfecta who injured his left elbow after pushing his brother. Treatment should consist of
Explanation
The patient has a displaced fracture of the apophysis of the olecranon for which most authorities recommend surgical treatment. In older children, stability of the reduction may be achieved by the use of two parallel medullary Kirschner wires and a figure-of-8 tension band loop of either stainless steel wire or absorbable suture. The use of an absorbable suture does not require removal of the implant. Absorbable suture alone is best used in very young patients who have this type of injury. An intramedullary screw would pose an unnecessary risk of future growth disturbance. A displaced, isolated fracture of the apophysis of the olecranon is an unusual injury in a child. It has been suggested by several authors that children who have osteogenesis imperfecta may be especially prone to this injury. One study reported seven of these fractures occurring in five children who had the mild form of osteogenesis imperfecta (Sillence type IA). The authors of this study suggest that the diagnosis of osteogenesis imperfecta be considered in any child who has a displaced fracture of the apophysis of the olecranon, especially when the injury is associated with relatively minor trauma. Stott NS, Zionts LE: Displaced fractures of the apophysis of the olecranon in children who have osteogenesis imperfecta. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1993;75:1026-1033. Gaddy BC, Strecker WB, Schoenecker PL: Surgical treatment of displaced olecranon fractures in children. J Pediatr Orthop 1997;17:321-324.
Question 71
Figures 13a and 13b show the preoperative radiographs of a 60-year-old woman who is scheduled to undergo total knee arthroplasty under epidural anesthesia. Postoperatively she reports a burning sensation on the dorsum of her foot despite the administration of IV analgesics through a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Management should now include
Explanation
The patient has a significant flexion contracture and valgus deformity; therefore, the risk of peroneal nerve injury is increased. Idusuyi and Morrey noted that epidural anesthesia also increases the risk of peroneal nerve injury. The initial symptom can be a burning sensation on the foot, followed by pain and then motor weakness. Initial management should consist of release of the dressings and knee flexion. Idusuyi OB, Morrey BF: Peroneal nerve palsy after total knee arthroplasty: Assessment of predisposing and prognostic factors. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1996;78:177-184.
Question 72
A 74-year-old man reports progressive left hip pain with weight-bearing activities. A radiograph is shown in Figure 30. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Explanation
The radiograph shows enlargement of the bone, coarse trabeculation, a blastic appearance, and thickening of the cortex, revealing the classic appearance of Paget's disease in the sclerotic phase, the most common presentation. While lymphoma may present as a blastic lesion, it will not have the same enlargement, coarse trabeculation of bone, and the significant sclerosis seen here. Menendez LR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Musculoskeletal Tumors. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 211-215.
Question 73
A 65-year-old man with ankylosing spondylitis has neck pain after falling back over his lawnmower, striking his thoracic spine, and forcing his neck into extension. Examination reveals subtle weakness of the intrinsics and finger flexors at approximately 4+/5. Initial management consists of immobilization in a rigid collar, and placing his head in the anatomic position. Radiographs reveal a subtle extension fracture of the lower cervical spine. Approximately 6 hours after the injury, he reports increasing paresthesias in his upper and lower extremities, and examination now shows his intrinsics are 2/5, finger flexors are 3/5, and his triceps are now weak at 4/5 on manual motor testing. In addition, his lower extremities now show weakness in both dorsal and plantar flexion of the ankle in the range of 4/5. Repeat radiographs appear unchanged. An MRI scan is shown in Figure 2. Management should now consist of
Explanation
It is not uncommon for patients with ankylosing spondylitis to sustain extension-type fractures, most typically of the cervicothoracic junction. These fractures can appear nondisplaced or minimally displaced initially, making them difficult to diagnose. Because there is no mobility between vertebrae, fractures tend to occur more like those of a transverse fracture of a long bone. In addition, the vertebral bodies are vascular and their canals are relatively enclosed, making them vulnerable to epidural bleeding. The MRI scan reveals an epidural hematoma located posteriorly on the cord; therefore, the treatment of choice is surgical evacuation and a posterior laminectomy. Because of the intrinsic instability of such fractures at the time of the laminectomy, internal fixation and stabilization with a posterior fusion is warranted. A simple laminectomy will only increase instability, and control is unlikely with halo vest immobilization. An anterior procedure will not effectively treat the problem given the location of the hematoma. Consideration can be given to methylprednisolone and observation; however, this will not eradicate the problem. Bohlman HH: Acute fractures and dislocations of the cervical spine. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1979;61:1119-1142.
Question 74
Which of the following findings is a contraindication to isolated percutaneous pinning of a distal radius fracture?
Explanation
Intrafocal pinning allows the Kirschner wires to be placed through a site of comminution and then drilled through intact cortex. Generally Kapandji intrafocal pinning is done for dorsal comminuted extra-articular dorsal bending fractures, but it also may be used to elevate and buttress radial comminution. Simple intra-articular fractures can also be treated with pinning alone. Intrafocal pinning works best as a dorsal or radial buttress to prevent shortening. When there is volar comminution, the fracture is prone to shortening and supplemental external fixation or plating is recommended. Trumble TE, Wagner W, Hanel DP, et al: Intrafocal (Kapandji) pinning of distal radius fractures with and without external fixation. J Hand Surg Am 1998;23:381-394. Choi KY, Chan WS, Lam TP, et al: Percutaneous Kirschner-wire pinning for severely displaced distal radial fractures in children: A report of 157 cases. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1995;77:797-801.
Question 75
What procedure can eliminate a sulcus sign?
Explanation
A sulcus sign represents inferior subluxation of the shoulder. The elimination of this sign and correction of the inferior subluxation is best achieved through either an open or arthroscopic rotator interval closure. A SLAP repair stabilizes the biceps anchor but does not affect the sulcus sign. A Bankart repair, which corrects anterior-inferior laxity, is not sufficient to eliminate a sulcus sign. Subacromial decompression and supraspinatus repairs have no effect on inferior subluxation. Field LD, Warren RF, O'Brien SJ, et al: Isolated closure of rotator interval defects for shoulder instability. Am J Sports Med 1995;23:557-563.
Question 76
A 15-year-old baseball pitcher who reports increasing pain in his right shoulder over the past 3 weeks states that the pain increases the more he pitches. Radiographs of both shoulders are shown in Figures 35a and 35b. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Explanation
The patient has a rotational stress fracture of the proximal humeral physis (Little Leaguer's shoulder). The symptoms of increasing pain with activity and relief with rest are typical of a stress injury. Treatment should consist of cessation of throwing activity but rehabilitation of the shoulder girdle muscles. The pitching technique should be evaluated as well. Barnett LS: Little League shoulder syndrome: Proximal humeral epiphyseolysis in the adolescent baseball pitchers: A case report. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1985;67:495-496.
Question 77
An elite skier training for the Olympics sustains an isolated traumatic dislocation of the peroneal tendons that have spontaneously reduced. The games are 9 months away and the athlete does not want to miss them. Treatment should consist of
Explanation
Most of these injuries occur in young, active patients. Success rates for nonsurgical management are only marginally better than 50%. The treatment of choice is early surgery for patients who desire a quick return to a sport or active lifestyle. Subluxation of the peroneal tendons leads to longitudinal tears over time. McLennan JG: Treatment of acute and chronic luxations of the peroneal tendons. Am J Sports Med 1980;8:432-436.
Question 78
Manipulation under anesthesia for resistant frozen shoulder should be avoided in patients with
Explanation
Severe osteoporosis is a contraindication to manipulation under anesthesia in patients with a resistant frozen shoulder because of the higher risk of humeral fracture. Manipulation is considered for frozen shoulder in patients who are symptomatic despite undergoing a reasonable course of appropriate physical therapy. Harryman DT II: Shoulder: Frozen and stiff. Instr Course Lect 1997;42:247-257.
Question 79
A patient with a 5-cm synovial sarcoma located in the distal portion of the rectus femoris muscle undergoes excision of the mass. The procedure is performed through a 10-cm longitudinal incision. Only a portion of the rectus femoris is removed; the vast majority of the muscle is preserved. The plane of dissection is beyond the reactive zone, and the pathology reveals that the margins are negative. This procedure is classified as
Explanation
The patient underwent a wide resection, which involves excision of the tumor along with a cuff of normal tissue that completely surrounds the tumor. The plane of resection is beyond the reactive zone. A radical resection involves removal of the entire affected muscle from origin to insertion. In a marginal excision, the plane of dissection is through the reactive zone of the tumor. A marginal excision is generally considered inadequate surgery for high-grade sarcomas. In an intralesional resection, the plane of dissection is through the tumor. Excision within the reactive zone but beyond the tumor is the same as a marginal excision. Enneking WF: Staging of musculoskeletal neoplasms, in Current Concepts of Diagnosis and Treatment of Bone and Soft Tissue Tumors. Heidelberg, Germany, Springer-Verlag, 1984.
Question 80
A healthy, active, independent 74-year-old woman fell and sustained the elbow injury shown in Figures 41a and 41b. Management should consist of
Explanation
Open reduction and internal fixation of distal humeral fractures in elderly patients often fails. These fractures characteristically have a very small distal segment and poor bone quality, resulting in failure of fixation and nonunion. Nonunion is often painful and functionally debilitating. Total elbow arthroplasty provides good results when used for distal humeral fractures in elderly patients with osteopenic bone and fracture patterns thought to be irreconstructable. Long arm casting may result in union, but the resulting stiffness is unacceptable for an active patient. Elbow arthrodesis has few indications. A sling and range-of-motion exercises will often result in a painful and debilitating nonunion at the fracture site. Frankle MA, Herscovici D Jr, DiPasquale TG, et al: A comparison of open reduction and internal fixation and primary total elbow arthroplasty in the treatment of intra-articular distal humerus fractures in women older than 65. J Orthop Trauma 2003;17:473-480. Cobb TK, Morrey BF: Total elbow arthroplasty as primary treatment for distal humerus fractures in elderly patients. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1997;79:826-832.
Question 81
A right-handed 14-year-old pitcher has had a 3-month history of shoulder pain while pitching. Examination reveals full range of motion, a mildly positive impingement sign, pain with rotational movement, and no instability. Plain AP radiographs of both shoulders are shown in Figures 25a and 25b. Management should consist of
Explanation
The patient has the classic signs of Little Leaguer's shoulder, with findings that include pain localized to the proximal humerus during the act of throwing and radiographic evidence of widening of the proximal humeral physis. Examination usually reveals tenderness to palpation over the proximal humerus, but the presence of any swelling, weakness, atrophy, or loss of motion is unlikely. The treatment of choice is rest from throwing for at least 3 months, followed by a gradual return to pitching once the shoulder is asymptomatic. Carson WG Jr, Gasser SI: Little Leaguer's shoulder: A report of 23 cases. Am J Sports Med 1998;26:575-580.
Question 82
Which of the following best describes the resultant forces on an increased offset stem when compared with a standard offset stem?
Explanation
The increased emphasis on restoring offset in total hip arthroplasty has implications for the forces applied to the components and the fixation interfaces. Static analysis has shown that with an increased affect, joint reaction force on the articulation is decreased. When the resultant load on the hip is "out of plane" (ie, directed anterior to posterior), there is increased torsion where the stem is turned into more retroversion. Buckwalter JA, Einhorn TA, Simon SR (eds): Orthopaedic Basic Science, ed 2. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2000, pp 134-180. Hurwitz DE, Andriaacchi TP: Biomechanics of the hip, in Callaghan J, Rosenberg AG, Rubash HE (eds): The Adult Hip. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven , 1998.
Question 83
An obese 56-year-old woman with hypertension has had posterior heel pain for the past 6 months. She also notes some enlargement over the posterior aspect of the heel. Examination reproduces pain with palpation at the insertion of the Achilles tendon. A lateral radiograph is shown in Figure 45. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
The lateral radiograph shows a traction spur consistent with tendinopathy of the Achilles tendon. There is no displacement of the spur to suggest a rupture of the Achilles tendon, and os trigonum is not seen on the radiograph. The examination findings are not consistent with nerve entrapment. Schepsis AA, Wagner C, Leach RE: Surgical management of Achilles tendon overuse injuries: A long-term follow-up study. Am J Sports Med 1994;22:611-619.
Question 84
A 57-year-old woman with diabetes mellitus has purulent drainage from a lateral incision after undergoing open reduction and internal fixation of a displaced ankle fracture 10 days ago. Examination reveals moderate erythema and a foul odor coming from the wound. Cultures are obtained. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Explanation
Early postoperative wound infections after open reduction and internal fixation should be treated with aggressive debridement and maintenance of stability of the fracture. If infection persists following healing of the fracture, the hardware should be removed. Carragee EJ, Csongradi JJ, Bleck EE: Early complications in the operative treatment of ankle fractures: Influence of delay before operation. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1991;73:79-82.
Question 85
Baseball pitchers who have internal impingement will most likely demonstrate what changes in range of motion?
Explanation
Pitchers tend to have a decrease in internal rotation and an increase in external rotation. The increase in external rotation is felt to be multifactorial. An increase in humeral retroversion occurs from repeated throwing. This results in increased soft-tissue stretching and results in a posterior capsular contracture. Meister K, Buckley B, Batts J: The posterior impingement sign: Diagnosis of rotator cuff and posterior labral tears secondary to internal impingement in overhand athletes. Am J Orthop 2004;33:412-415.
Question 86
Figure 25 shows the clinical photograph of a 48-year-old man who has had a forefoot ulcer for the past 4 months. History reveals that he has had type II diabetes mellitus for the past 10 years. Examination reveals sensory and motor neuropathy, with weak ankle dorsiflexion. The ankle cannot be passively dorsiflexed past a neutral position. Initial management should consist of
Explanation
Foot deformity and decreased joint motion have been associated with increased plantar pressures and an increased risk of ulceration. In a partial-thickness ulcer without exposed bone or tendon, total contact casting is highly effective. Concomitant Achilles tendon lengthening increases the likelihood that healing of the ulcer can be obtained and perhaps more importantly, maintained. Lin SS, Lee TH, Wapner KL: Plantar forefoot ulceration with equinus deformity of the ankle in diabetic patients: The effect of tendo-Achilles lengthening and total contact casting. Orthopedics 1996;19:465-475.
Question 87
The use of radiation therapy is most effective in metastatic bone disease from which of the following tumors?
Explanation
Both myeloma and lymphoma are more responsive to radiation therapy. The other types of tumors are relatively more resistant to radiation. Doses of 25 to 50 Gy (2,500 to 5,000 cGy) are usually sufficient for myeloma and lymphoma, while carcinomas frequently require a higher dosage. Large cell lymphoma of bone is usually of B-cell origin and is treated with chemotherapy and radiation therapy. Simon MA, Springfield DS, et al: Surgery for Bone and Soft Tissue Tumors. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Raven, 1998, p 683.
Question 88
Histologically, synovial chondromatosis is characterized by
Explanation
Histologically, there is metaplastic cartilage arising from the synovium. These lobules of zonates hyaline cartilage are of variable size, are embedded within edematous synovium, and protrude into the joint. The lobules calcify and ossify, leading to the characteristic radiographic appearance. Inflammatory synovitis is not characteristic of synovial chondromatosis. The fluid is clear and serosanguin, not blood tinged. Milgram JM: Synovial osteochondromatosis: A histopathological study of thirty cases. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1977;l59:792-801.
Question 89
A 65-year-old woman landed on her nondominant left shoulder in a fall. An AP radiograph is shown in Figure 39. Management should consist of
Explanation
The radiograph reveals a four-part fracture-dislocation of the proximal humerus. Humeral hemiarthroplasty and tuberosity repair is the treatment of choice because the risk of osteonecrosis is high after attempted repair of this injury. Glenoid resurfacing is reserved for acute fractures in which there is significant preexisting glenoid arthrosis, such as in patients with rheumatoid arthritis. Neer CS II: Displaced proximal humeral fractures: II. Treatment of three- and four-part displacement. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1970;52:1090-1103.
Question 90
A 6-year-old African-American boy with sickle cell disease has had pain and limited use of his right arm for the past 3 days. History reveals that he sustained a humeral fracture approximately 3 years ago. A lateral radiograph is shown in Figure 25. Based on these findings, a presumptive diagnosis of chronic osteomyelitis is made. What are the two most likely organisms?
Explanation
The risk of Salmonella osteomyelitis is much greater in patients with sickle cell disease than the general population. The exact reason for this increased risk is still unclear, but it appears to be associated with an increased incidence of gastrointestinal microinfarcts and abscesses. Both Staphylococcus aureus and Salmonella have been mentioned as the most prevalent causative organisms. Piehl FC, David RJ, Prugh SI: Osteomyelitis in sickle cell disease. J Pediatr Orthop 1993;13:225-227. Givner LB, Luddy RE, Schwartz AD: Etiology of osteomyelitis in patients with major sickle hemoglobinopathies. J Pediatr 1981;99:411-413. Epps CH Jr, Bryant DD III, Coles MJ, Castro O: Osteomyelitis in patients who have sickle-cell disease: Diagnosis and management. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1991;73:1281-1294.
Question 91
An otherwise healthy 32-year-old man who underwent an uneventful L5-S1 lumbar microdiskectomy 6 weeks ago now reports increasing and severe back pain that awakens him from sleep. Examination reveals a benign-appearing wound, and the neurologic examination is normal. Laboratory studies show an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of 90 mm/h and a WBC of 9,000/mm3. Plain radiographs are normal. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Explanation
The patient's history and laboratory studies are very suspicious for a postoperative diskitis. The predominant symptom often is back pain. An ESR of 90 mm/h is considered significantly elevated and normally would be expected to return to near baseline by 2 weeks postoperatively. A normal WBC result is not unusual with postoperative diskitis. Management should consist of an MRI with gadolinium to confirm the diagnosis, followed by a biopsy percutaneously to obtain tissues for pathology and microbiology. Surgical debridement is reserved for patients whose percutaneous biopsy results are negative and a high index of suspicion for diskitis remains, or when management consisting of IV antibiotics, bed rest, and spinal immobilization fails to provide relief. Garfin SR, Vaccaro AR (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Spine. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1997, pp 257-271.
Question 92
A 25-year-old man has chronic back pain that has been slowly worsening. He has no constitutional symptoms, and he denies any previous medical problems. Examination shows a tall lean build with no objective neurologic findings or skin lesions. Figure 32 shows a T2-weighted sagittal MRI scan. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
The MRI scan shows significant dural ectasia, which is seen in more than 60% of patients with Marfan syndrome. It is also relatively common in patients with neurofibromatosis, but this patient has no skin lesions. It has also been described in Ehlers-Danlos syndrome but is less common. Ahn NU, Sponseller PD, Ahn UM, Nallamshetty L, Kuszyk BS, Zinreich SJ: Dural ectasia is associated with back pain in Marfan' syndrome. Spine 2000;25:1562-1568.
Question 93
Which of the following best describes the relative content of the components of articular cartilage in decreasing order?
Explanation
Water is the most abundant component of articular cartilage with a wet weight of 65% to 80%. Of the water, 80% is at the surface and 65% at the deep zone. Collagen accounts for 10% to 20% of the wet weight, with type II collagen accounting for 90% to 95% of the total collagen content. Small amounts of types V, VI, IX, X, and XI collagen are also present. Proteoglycans comprise 10% to 15% of the wet weight of collagen. The remainder of the wet weight is made up of other collagens, noncollagenous proteins, and chondrocytes.
Question 94
A 5-year-old boy has had right hip pain and a limp for the past 3 months. Examination of the right hip reveals irritability and restricted abduction and internal rotation. AP and lateral radiographs of the hips are shown in Figures 31a and 31b. Initial management should consist of
Explanation
A favorable prognosis can be expected in up to 70% of children with Legg-Calve-Perthes disease who are younger than age 6 years. Containment treatment has not been shown to alter the outcome in this age group. The goals of treatment in this patient are to reduce pain (synovitis), restore motion, and improve function. Symptomatic treatment modalities include bed rest, traction, crutches, activity modification, and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. Herring JA: The treatment of Legg-Calve-Perthes disease: A critical review of the literature. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1994;76:448-458.
Question 95
A patient is scheduled to undergo total knee arthroplasty (TKA) following failure of nonsurgical management. History reveals that she underwent a patellectomy as a teenager as the result of a motor vehicle accident. Examination reveals normal ligamentous stability. For the most predictable outcome, which of the following implants should be used?
Explanation
Paletta and Laskins performed a retrospective study of the results of TKA with cement in 22 patients who had a previous patellectomy. Nine of the patients had insertion of a posterior cruciate ligament-substituting implant. Thirteen patients had insertion of a posterior cruciate ligament-sparing implant. The 5-year postoperative knee scores were 89 for the posterior cruciate ligament-substituting knee versus 67 for the posterior cruciate ligament-sparing knee (P < 0.01). The patella functions to increase the lever arm of the extensor mechanism and to position the quadriceps tendon and the patellar ligament roughly parallel to the anterior cruciate ligament and posterior cruciate ligament, respectively. The patellar ligament thereby provides a strong reinforcing structure that functions to prevent excessive anterior translation of the femur during flexion of the knee. The absence of the patella results in the patellar ligament and the quadriceps tendon being relatively in line with one another. After a patellectomy, the resultant quadriceps force is no longer parallel to the posterior cruciate ligament. This results in loss of the reinforcing function of the patellar ligament. The authors believe this loss of reinforcing function may place increased stresses on the posterior cruciate ligament and posterior aspect of the capsule, which may result in stretching of these structures over time. They found a high rate of anteroposterior instability, a high prevalence of recurvatum, and a high rate of loss of full active extension compared with passive extension in the posterior cruciate ligament-sparing group, which supports their theory. Beaty JH (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 6. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1999, pp 559-582.
Question 96
A 23-year-old baseball pitcher reports pain in the posterior aspect of his dominant shoulder during the late cocking phase of throwing. With the dominant shoulder positioned in 90 degrees of abduction from the body and with the scapula stabilized, examination reveals 135 degrees of external rotation and 20 degrees of internal rotation. Examination of the opposite shoulder reveals 100 degrees of external rotation and 75 degrees of internal rotation. Both shoulders are stable on examination. Radiographs and MRI scans are unremarkable. What is the primary cause of his pain?
Explanation
Internal impingement of the shoulder is a leading cause of shoulder pain in the throwing athlete. The primary lesion in pathologic internal impingement is excessive tightening of the posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament complex. To obtain an accurate assessment of true glenohumeral rotation, the scapula is stabilized during examination. A loss of 20 degrees or more of internal rotation, as measured with the shoulder positioned in 90 degrees of abduction, indicates excessive tightness of the posterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament complex. Burkhart SS, Morgan CD, Kibler WB: The disabled throwing shoulder: Spectrum of pathology. Part I: Pathoanatomy and biomechanics. Arthroscopy 2003;19:404-420.
Question 97
Compared to metal-on-polyethylene total hip bearing surfaces, the debris particles generated by metal-on-metal articulations are
Explanation
Retrieval studies have shown that the debris particles produced by metal-on-metal articulations in total hip arthroplasty are several orders of magnitude smaller and may be up to 100 times more numerous than those found with metal-on-polyethylene articulations. Davies AP, Willert HG, Campbell PA, et al: An unusual lymphocytic perivascular infiltration in tissues around contemporary metal-on-metal joint replacements. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2005;87:18-27.
Question 98
Spontaneous recovery of upper extremtiy motor function after a cerebrovascular accident occurs in which of the following predictable patterns?
Explanation
Recovery of upper extremity motor function after a cerebrovascular accident follows a predictable pattern. The greatest amount of recovery is seen within the first 6 weeks. Return of function proceeds from proximal to distal. Shoulder flexion occurs first, followed by return of flexion to the elbow, wrist, and fingers. Return of forearm supination follows the return of finger flexion.
Question 99
Five weeks after undergoing a successful L4-L5 diskectomy, with complete relief of his preoperative sciatica, a 36-year-old man has severe, relentless back and buttock pain. Examination and laboratory studies are unremarkable with the exception of an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of 90 mm/h. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Explanation
The patient's history, including the timing and type of symptoms, is typical for postoperative diskitis. The elevated ESR, 5 weeks after surgery, is also consistent with infection; a normal WBC count is not unusual. Management should consist of MRI with gadolinium; if positive, this should be followed by percutaneous biopsy to confirm the organism. Open biopsy may be considered if the percutaneous biopsy is unsuccessful. Anterior debridement and interbody fusion is reserved for the occasional patient that fails to respond to intravenous antibiotics, bed rest, and immobilization. Garfin SR, Vaccaro AR (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Spine. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1997, pp 257-271.
Question 100
Figure 41 shows the MRI scan of a 38-year-old weightlifter. What does the arrow on the MRI scan indicate?
Explanation
Pectoralis major ruptures typically occur in avid weightlifters (often on supplements) and typically while bench-pressing. Clinically there is significant discoloration/bruising over the pectoralis and into the axilla. MRI helps confirm the diagnosis and may help determine if the tear is in the muscle belly or at the bone-tendon junction. Bal GK, Basamania CJ: Pectoralis major tendon ruptures: Diagnosis and treatment. Tech Shoulder Elbow Surg 2005;6:128-134.