Comprehensive 100-Question Exam
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Question 1
The mother of a healthy 8-month-old boy reports that her son refuses to use his left arm. Examination reveals that the arm hangs limp at his side in an adducted and internally rotated position, and the affected shoulder subluxates posteriorly. Passive external rotation measures 15 degrees. Management should consist of
Explanation
Injury to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus during birth (Erb's palsy) occurs in approximately 1 in 3,000 births. In a complete lesion, paralysis of the deltoid, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, biceps, and brachioradialis results in the findings described above. Spontaneous recovery may occur for up to 2 years. Passive exercises administered daily by the parents are the initial recommended treatment at this age. If significant contracture results in posterior dislocation, surgical correction may be considered. Neer CS: Shoulder Reconstruction. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1990, pp 452-454. Pearl ML: Arthroscopy release of shoulder contracture secondary to birth palsy: An early report on findings and surgical technique. Arthroscopy 2003;19:577-582.
Question 2
Which of the following findings is a prerequisite for a high tibial valgus osteotomy for medial compartment gonarthrosis?
Explanation
The indications for high tibial valgus osteotomy include a physiologically young age, arthritis confined to the medial compartment, 10 to 15 degrees of varus alignment on weight-bearing radiographs, a preoperative arc of motion of at least 90 degrees, flexion contracture of less than 15 degrees, and a motivated, compliant patient. Contraindications include lateral compartment narrowing of the articular cartilage, lateral tibial subluxation of greater than 1 cm, medial compartment bone loss, ligamentous instability, and inflammatory arthritis. Naudie D, Bourne RB, Rorabeck CH, Bourne TT: The Insall Award: Survivorship of the high tibial valgus osteotomy. A 10- to 22-year followup study. Clin Orthop 1999;367:18-27.
Question 3
Which of the following is considered a reasonable goal for arthroplasty surgery in rotator cuff arthropathy?
Explanation
Absence of the rotator cuff results in superior migration of the humeral head because of unopposed deltoid function. This proximal migration results in eccentric loading of glenoid components with early loosening. Hemiarthroplasty yields good pain relief with limited goals of active elevation of 90 degrees. The coracoacromial arch should be preserved. Achieving satisfactory subscapularis tension is preferred to the use of an oversized humeral component. Zeman CA, Arcand MA, Cantrell JS, Skedros JG, Burkhead WZ Jr: The rotator cuff-deficient arthritic shoulder: Diagnosis and surgical management. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1998;6:337-348. Arntz CT, Jackins S, Matsen FA III: Prosthetic replacement of the shoulder for the treatment of defects in the rotator cuff and the surface of the glenohumeral joint. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1993;75:485-491. Williams GR Jr, Rockwood CA Jr: Hemiarthroplasty in rotator cuff-deficient shoulders. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 1996;5:362-367.
Question 4
What is the most important factor in determining recovery after surgical repair of a complete laceration of a nerve at the wrist?
Explanation
All other factors being equal, a patient's age is the most important factor in determining outcome after peripheral nerve injury. Repair of a nerve laceration within the first 2 weeks is generally considered appropriate. Fascicular repair may be of benefit in larger proximal nerves to reapproximate appropriate nerve bundles; distally perineural or epineural repair is sufficient. Use of a fibrin tissue sealant for nerve repair does not result in improved outcomes over suture repair. Nerve conduits have shown promise in digital nerves but do not have proven benefit in larger caliber nerves. Sunderland S: Nerve Injuries and Their Repair: A Critical Appraisal. New York, NY, Churchill Livingstone, 1991. Wilgis ES, Brushart TM: Nerve repair and grafting, in Green DP, Hotchkiss RN (eds): Operative Hand Surgery, ed 3. New York, NY, Churchill Livingstone, 1993, p 1325. Narakas A: The use of fibrin glue in repair of peripheral nerves. Orthop Clin North Am 1988;19:187-199.
Question 5
The radiographic feature seen in Figure 37 that best indicates a slow-growing process is the
Explanation
For the fibula (or any bone) to bow, a long-standing process needs to be present. Pressure from a rapid process would cause erosion, not allowing the bone to remodel. The other features are helpful confirmatory findings but also may be associated with aggressive processes. In this patient, the fibular deformity is caused by a sessile osteochondroma of the tibia. Lodwick GS, Wilson AJ, Farrell C, Virtama P, Dittrich F: Determining growth rates of focal lesions of bone from radiographs. Radiology 1980;134:577-583.
Question 6
The load versus deformation curve of the functional spinal unit (FSU) is made up of the neutral zone, the elastic zone, and the plastic zone. What is the plastic zone of the curve believed to represent?
Explanation
Plastic deformation of viscoelastic tissues represents deformation of the soft tissues to the point of failure. The lining up of collagen fibers would be in the "toe region" of the curve, which, in the case of the FSU, would be mainly in the neutral zone. Elastin is a minor contributor to the composition of the ligaments and would be protected by the stiffer collagen fibers. The transition between flexion and extension occurs in the neutral zone, and reversible elongation occurs in the elastic zone. Fardon DF, Garfin SR, Abitbol J, et al (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Spine 2. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 15-23.
Question 7
Fully dense alumina and zirconia materials have been used as bearing materials in hip arthroplasty to provide greater wear resistance than polished metallic surfaces. Although both have shown reduced wear clinically, what concerns continue to exist about the use of zirconia?
Explanation
Zirconia as a bearing surface is "metastable," meaning that, in the microstructure of the material the zirconia molecules are ordered in a tetragonal fashion, but they can easily transform to a monoclinic microstructure that is less wear resistant. Transformation can occur with input of enough energy (eg, thermal energy imparted by steam sterilization or mechanical energy at the bearing surface). Zirconia was introduced as an alternative to alumina because it has a higher toughness, making it less susceptible to gross fracture (ceramics do not undergo fatigue fracture, but rather fail from a process of slow crack growth). Zirconia is highly biocompatible (as are many ceramics) and is essentially immune to corrosive processes that can plague metallic alloys such as stainless steel. Clarke IC, Manaka M, Green DD, et al: Current status of zirconia used in total hip implants. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2003;85:73-84. Haraguchi K, Sugano N, Nishii T, et al: Phase transformation of a zirconia ceramic head after total hip arthroplasty. J Bone Joint Surg Br 2001;83:996-1000.
Question 8
The mother of a 26-month-old boy reports that he has been unwilling to bear weight on his left lower extremity since he awoke this morning. She denies any history of trauma. He has a temperature of 99.4 degrees F (37.4 degrees C), and examination reveals that abduction of the left hip is limited to 30 degrees. Laboratory studies show a WBC of 11,000/mm3 and an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 22 mm/h. A radiograph of the pelvis is shown in Figure 13. Management should consist of
Explanation
The most likely diagnosis is transient synovitis. Initial management should consist of bed rest and serial observation to rule out atypical septic arthritis of the hip. In an unreliable family situation, hospitalization for bed rest and observation may be indicated. Other disorders such as proximal femoral osteomyelitis, leukemia, juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, pelvic osteomyelitis, diskitis, and arthralgia secondary to other inflammatory disorders should be considered. However, these disorders are unlikely because of the paucity of abnormal clinical signs exhibited by the patient. On the other hand, transient synovitis of the hip in children is a diagnosis of exclusion; other possibilities should be explored if the patient's symptoms do not follow a typical course and resolve in 4 to 21 days.
Question 9
A 46-year-old woman reports pain and a shortened appearance of her toe after undergoing a Keller resection arthroplasty 2 years ago for hallux rigidus. Examination reveals mild swelling and motion limited to 25 degrees at the metatarsophalangeal joint. Radiographs show large dorsal osteophytes on the first metatarsal head, 50% resection of the proximal phalanx, and complete loss of the metatarsophalangeal joint space. Which of the following is considered the most reliable procedure to improve her pain and the appearance of her toe?
Explanation
Because the patient has significant arthritis, arthrodesis is the treatment of choice. Adding a bone graft will prevent further shortening and add length to her toe, resulting in improved cosmesis. A cheilectomy will not alleviate her arthritis pain. The toe is too short for an effective Moberg phalangeal dorsiflexion osteotomy. A Waterman first metatarsal dorsal osteotomy will not address the degenerative joint disease or shortening. Silastic arthroplasty may help, but there is the risk of additional problems with foreign body reaction and a significant risk of failure known to occur with Silastic materials. Myerson MS, Schon LC, McGuigan FX, Oznur A:Result of arthrodesis of the hallux metatarsophalangeal joint using bone graft for restoration of length. Foot Ankle Int 2000;21:297-306. Mann RA, Coughlin MJ: Adult hallux valgus, in Coughlin MJ, Mann RA (eds): Surgery of the Foot and Ankle, ed 7. St Louis, MO, Mosby, 1999, pp 252-253.
Question 10
Figure 49 shows an acute axial MRI scan of a left knee. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
The MRI scan shows bone bruises in the medial aspect of the patella and the lateral aspect of the lateral femoral condyle. Both of these signs are typical for a lateral dislocation of the patella with spontaneous reduction. In addition, there may be associated tearing of the medial retinaculum or distal aspect of the vastus medialis. Elias DA, White LM, Fithian DC: Acute lateral patellar dislocation at MR imaging: Injury patterns of medial patellar soft-tissue restraints and osteochondral injuries of the inferomedial patella. Radiology 2002;225:736-743. Sanders TG, Miller MD: A systematic approach to magnetic resonance imaging interpretation of sports medicine injuries of the knee. Am J Sports Med 2005;33:131-148.
Question 11
Figures 42a through 42c show the clinical photographs and radiograph of a patient with diabetes mellitus who lives independently. The patient was admitted to the hospital late yesterday afternoon with clinical signs of sepsis. Parenteral antibiotic therapy resolved the sepsis, and blood glucose levels are now well controlled. The patient has no palpable pulses. The ankle-brachial index is 0.70. Laboratory studies show a WBC count of 8,500/mm3, a serum albumin of 1.9 g/dL, and a total lymphocyte count of 1,500/mm3. What treatment has the best potential to optimize his survival and independence?
Explanation
The patient was admitted to the hospital with sepsis. The sepsis has resolved, leaving the patient with a negative nitrogen balance. Now that the patient is stable, metabolic support should be used to optimize his nutrition. If the serum albumin can be increased to 2.5 g/dL, he has an excellent potential to heal an amputation at the Syme ankle disarticulation level; a level that will optimize his functional independence. Pinzur MS, Stuck RR, Sage R, et al: Syme ankle disarticulation in patients with diabetes. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2003;85:1667-1672.
Question 12
A 32-year-old man has a closed oblique displaced fracture at the junction of the lower and middle third of the humeral shaft and a complete radial nerve palsy. Closed reduction is performed and is felt to be acceptable. Management of the radial nerve palsy should consist of
Explanation
In patients who have radial nerve dysfunction associated with a closed humeral fracture, nerve function usually will return to normal without surgical exploration. If clinical findings or electromyographic studies show no improvement at 3 months, surgical exploration and repair can be performed. Tendon transfers are performed if nerve repair is deemed unsuccessful. Pollock FH, Drake D, Bovill EG, et al: Treatment of radial neuropathy associated with fractures of the humerus. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1981;63:239-243.
Question 13
Figures 44a through 44c show the radiographs of an 18-year-old female soccer player who fell on her outstretched hand 1 day ago. She denies any history of wrist pain. Examination reveals tenderness at the anatomic snuffbox. Management should consist of
Explanation
The treatment of choice for proximal pole scaphoid fractures is open reduction and internal fixation with a differential pitch screw via a dorsal approach. Healing rates of 100% have been reported for these acute fractures. Casting results in slow healing, with recommendations including 16 weeks or more in a cast. Vascularized bone grafts are not indicated for acute fractures. Rettig ME, Raskin KB: Retrograde compression screw fixation of acute proximal pole scaphoid fractures. J Hand Surg 1999;24:1206-1210.
Question 14
Ulnohumeral distraction interposition arthroplasty is considered the most appropriate treatment for which of the following patients?
Explanation
Distraction interposition arthroplasty is indicated for the treatment of both rheumatoid and posttraumatic arthritis and is reserved for younger patients who are not suitable candidates for total elbow arthroplasty. Although less reliable than prosthetic replacement, distraction interposition arthroplasty is a useful option in the treatment of young, high-demand patients with elbow arthritis. It is rarely indicated in the presence of polyarticular inflammatory arthritis but may be of value in those patients in whom the disease is limited primarily to the elbow. Isolated radiocapitellar arthritis can be successfully treated with radial head resection, although caution should be exercised if there is evidence of instability. Osteoarthritis is best treated with ulnohumeral arthroplasty. Cheng SL, Morrey BF: Treatment of the mobile, painful arthritic elbow by distraction interposition arthroplasty. J Bone Joint Surg Br 2000;82:233-238.
Question 15
Which of the following lesions most closely resembles Ewing's sarcoma histologically?
Explanation
Ewing's sarcoma is characterized by small round blue cells. Lesions with a similar appearance include lymphoma, primitive neuroectodermal tumor, rhabdomyosarcoma, small cell lung tumor, and metastatic neuroblastoma. Karyotyping, immunohistochemistry, and electron microscopy can help differentiate these lesions.
Question 16
A 19-year-old college football player reports persistent weakness, tingling, and numbness of both upper extremities at half time. He states that these symptoms initially occurred after tackling an opposing player with his head early in the game. History reveals that he has had "burners" in the past that typically resolved within 15 to 30 minutes. Examination reveals pain-free cervical motion, weakness to shoulder abduction testing bilaterally, normal upper extremity reflexes, and decreased sensation over both shoulders and the upper arms. Appropriate initial management should consist of
Explanation
The player's symptoms represent more than the mere "burner syndrome," which leads to unilateral symptoms that typically last less than 1 minute. Return to play following a burner is allowed following nonsurgical management and once the symptoms have subsided and the player exhibits normal strength and motion of the neck and upper extremities. This player has the history, symptoms, and examination findings that are consistent with cervical neurapraxia. Return to play in contact sports is contraindicated with bilateral symptoms prior to MRI evaluation of the cervical spine. CT of the brain is indicated with a history of loss of consciousness or other symptoms suggestive of a concussion. Torg JS, Sennett B, Pavlov H, et al: Spear tackler's spine: An entity precluding participation in tackle football and collision activities that expose the cervical spine to axial energy inputs. Am J Sports Med 1993;21:640-649. Torg JS: Cervical spinal stenosis with cord neurapraxia and transient quadriplegia. Sports Med 1995;20:429-434.
Question 17
Which of the following substances does not have androgenic effects?
Explanation
Growth hormone is the most abundant substance produced by the pituitary gland. Growth hormone has a direct anabolic effect by accelerating the incorporation of amino acids into proteins. It is becoming an increasingly popular anabolic steroid substitute; however, it is expensive and difficult to obtain. Androstenedione is an androgen produced by the adrenal glands and gonads. It acts as a potent anabolic steroid and is converted in the liver directly to testosterone with a resultant increase in levels after administration. DHEA is a naturally occurring hormone made by the adrenal cortex. It is converted to androstenedione, which in turn is converted to testosterone. The beneficial and adverse effects of DHEA can be correlated directly with those of testosterone. Nandrolone is also a potent anabolic steroid. It is commonly taken as 19-norandrostenedione and may be more favored because of its potent anabolic effects with less androgenic effects (no conversion to estrogen compounds). Creatine sales have skyrocketed, and it is a popular nutritional supplement. There is an expectation that creatine can increase strength and power performance; however, direct anabolic effects have not been demonstrated. Creatine serves as a substrate for hydrogen ions and contributes to the resynthesis of ATP (adenosine triphosphate) during maximal exercise. By enhancing ATP production and buffering local pH in muscle, there may be improved tolerance of anaerobic activities. Increases in muscle mass may be related to increased perception of improved training ability or an increase in muscle water content. Silver M: Use of ergogenic aids by athletes. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2001;9:61-70.
Question 18
A patient reports persistent anterior shoulder pain following a forceful external rotation injury to the shoulder. An MRI scan is shown in Figure 4. The patient remains symptomatic despite 3 months of nonsurgical management. Treatment should now consist of
Explanation
The MRI scan reveals a subscapularis tear with a biceps that is out of the groove. Treatment in this patient is most predictable if the subscapularis is repaired. The biceps should either be tenodesed or tenotomized since it is unstable. Recentering of the biceps has been found to be unpredictable. Treatment of these lesions has been shown to have better results if the biceps is either released or tenodesed. This prevents recurrent biceps symptoms that can be source of surgical failure. Edwards TB, Walch G, Sirvenaux F, et al: Repair of tears of the subscapularis: Surgical technique. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2006;88:1-10. Deutsch A, Altcheck DW, Veltri DM, et al: Traumatic tears of the subscapularis tendon: Clinical diagnosis, magnetic resonance imaging findings, and operative treatment. Am J Sports Med 1997;25:13-22.
Question 19
A 26-year-old man has had a 2-year history of pain and stiffness after sustaining a comminuted olecranon fracture. Treatment at the time of injury consisted of open reduction and internal fixation with tension band wiring. Examination reveals motion of 45 degrees to 110 degrees and pain throughout the arc of motion. Resisted flexion and extension are painful. Forearm rotation is normal. Radiographs are shown in Figure 51. Treatment should consist of
Explanation
The patient has posttraumatic arthritis of the elbow; therefore, the treatment of choice is hardware removal and soft-tissue releases with splinting to avoid recurrence of contractures. The combination of pain and stiffness in an elbow that has sustained significant joint surface damage renders it unresponsive to simple soft-tissue releases and heterotopic bone excision. Joint distraction and interposition arthroplasty offer the possibility of maintaining motion and relieving pain as a later salvage procedure. Joint replacement should not be performed in young, active, strong individuals because the prosthesis will fail quickly and complications will develop. Synovectomy and radial head excision are not indicated. Morrey BF: Distraction arthroplasty: Clinical applications. Clin Orthop 1993;293:46-54.
Question 20
Which of the following agents have been shown to reduce the incidence of skeletal events in patients with multiple myeloma?
Explanation
Bisphosphonates are a class of drugs that act to inhibit osteoclast resorption of bone. It has been shown that patients with multiple myeloma who are treated with bisphosphonates have fewer pathologic fractures than patients who are not treated with bisphosphonates. Vitamin D and calcium are considered appropriate for patients who are at risk for the development of osteoporosis, as is estrogen in selected women. Chelating agents and progesterones have no use in the treatment of patients with multiple myeloma or osteoporosis. Berenson JR: Bisphosphonates in multiple myeloma. Cancer 1997;15:1661-1667.
Question 21
A 29-year-old woman who underwent an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction 6 months ago now reports difficulty achieving full knee extension, and physical therapy fails to provide relief. The knee is stable on ligament testing. Figure 3 shows the findings at a repeat arthroscopy. Treatment should now include
Explanation
The patient has a cyclops lesion. This is a nodule of fibroproliferative tissue that originates from either drilling debris from the tibial tunnel or remnants of the ACL stump; more rarely it is the result of broken graft fibers. The treatment of choice is excision of the nodule and, if needed, additional notchplasty. Marked improvements in function and symptoms have been noted after removal of the extension block and resumption of a rehabilitation program. Delince P, Krallis P, Descamps PY, et al: Different aspects of the cyclops lesion following anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction: A multifactorial etiopathogenesis. Arthroscopy 1998;14:869-876.
Question 22
A 29-year-old man undergoes surgery for a grade I isthmic spondylolisthesis at L5. Following surgery, what type of brace will best immobilize the L5-S1 motion segment?
Explanation
The thoracolumbosacral orthosis with thigh extension best immobilizes the lumbosacral junction. Fidler and Plasmans have demonstrated increased motion at the lumbosacral junction with the standard chairback-type brace. Connolly PJ, Grob D: Bracing of patients after fusion for degenerative problems of the lumbar spine: Yes or no? Spine 1998;23:1426-1428.
Question 23
An 83-year-old woman with diabetes mellitus has a history of recurrent infection over the medial aspect of her great toe and has had a painless bunion for the past 45 years. Shoe wear modifications have failed to provide relief. Pedal pulses are palpable. Figures 30a and 30b show the clinical photograph and radiograph. Management should now consist of
Explanation
The presence of recurrent breakdown over the medial eminence despite shoe wear modifications is an indication for surgery. A number of factors must be considered when deciding on an appropriate course of treatment. These include age, activity level, joint congruency, joint degeneration, and the patient's symptoms and expectations. The indications for a simple bunionectomy are rather limited. In this patient, the goal of surgery is to alleviate the recurrent infection by removal of a large medial eminence. Because the bunion is painless and long-standing, it does not warrant treatment. Mizel MS, Miller RA, Scioli MW (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Foot and Ankle 2. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1998, pp 123-134.
Question 24
High Yield
A 36-year-old woman is placed in a short arm cast for a nondisplaced extra-articular distal radius fracture. Seven weeks later she notes the sudden inability to extend her thumb. What is the most likely cause of her condition?
Detailed Explanation
A recent review of 200 consecutive distal radius fractures noted that the overall incidence of extensor pollicis longus rupture was 3%. The causes are believed to be mechanical irritation, attrition, and vascular impairment. The fracture is usually nondisplaced and the patient notes weeks to months after injury the sudden, painless inability to extend the thumb. Treatment involves extensor indicis proprius tendon transfer or free palmaris longus tendon grafting. Skoff HD: Postfracture extensor pollicis longus tenosynovitis and tendon rupture: A scientific study and personal series. Am J Orthop 2003;32:245-247. Bonatz E, Kramer TD, Masear VR: Rupture of the extensor pollicis longus tendon. Am J Orthop 1996;25:118-122.
Question 25
When considering a flexor digitorum longus tendon transfer as part of the surgical treatment in patients with symptomatic flatfoot deformity caused by posterior tibial tendon insufficiency, which of the following patients is the most appropriate candidate?
Explanation
Transfer of the flexor digitorum longus tendon is a common technique combined with other procedures to treat patients with posterior tibial tendon insufficiency. However, it is contraindicated in patients with a fixed hindfoot deformity, hypermobility, or neuromuscular compromise. It is relatively contraindicated in patients who are obese, and those older than age 60 to 70 years. Pedowitz WJ, Kovatis P: Flatfoot in the adult. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1995;3:293-302.
Question 26
Which of the following statements about injury of the anterior vascular structures during lumbar disk surgery is true?
Explanation
Vascular injury most commonly occurs at L4-L5, followed by L5-S1 and are associated with use of the pituitary rongeur. Hohf reported that 17 of 58 patients died as a result. Early recognition and treatment of this complication is vital; unfortunately, intraoperative bleeding from the disk space may occur in up to 50% of these patients. Some may be first recognized in the recovery room. Common clinical findings include hypotension, tachycardia, and a rigid abdomen. Formation of an arteriovenous fistula is the most common vascular injury resulting from lumbar disk surgery but is usually not recognized until months after surgery. Cardiomegaly and high output cardiac failure are common presenting symptoms. Hohf RP: Arterial injuries occurring during orthopaedic operations. Clin Orthop 1963;28:21-37. Montorsi W, Ghiringhelli C: Genesis, diagnosis and treatment of vascular complications after intervertebral disk surgery. Int Surg 1973;58:233-235.
Question 27
To preserve blood supply to the fractured bone seen in Figures 12a and 12b, care should be taken when exposing which of the following areas?
Explanation
The blood supply to the adult capitellum and lateral trochlea comes from posterior vessels arising from the radial recurrent, radial collateral, and interosseous recurrent arteries. These arteries penetrate the distal humerus posterior and superior to the capitellum.
Question 28
Which of the following is considered an important factor in improved cemented femoral stem survivorship?
Explanation
Cement technique, relative stem to canal size and position, stem design, surgical technique, and femoral anatomy are important factors in cemented stem survivorship. Varus stem position, a wide diaphyseal to metaphyseal ratio (stovepipe femur), thin cement mantles (1 mm or less), and nonrounded femoral stem designs are negative prognostic factors for stem survivorship. Precoating with methylmethacrylate has not been shown to provide any increased survivorship over nonprecoated stems. Noble PC, Collier MB, Maltry JA, Kamaric E, Tullos HS: Pressurization and centalization enhance the quality and reproducibility of cement mantles. Clin Orthop 1998;355:77-89. Crowninshield RD, Brand RA, Johnston RC, Milroy JC: The effect of femoral stem cross-sectional geometry on cement stresses in total hip reconstruction. Clin Orthop 1980;146:71-77.
Question 29
A 65-year-old man with ankylosing spondylitis sustains an extension injury to his cervical spine. Two days later, a progressive neurologic deficit develops at the C6 level. An MRI scan is shown in Figure 1. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
It is common for patients with ankylosing spondylitis to sustain extension-type fractures, typically near the cervicothoracic junction. These fractures can be minimally displaced, making them difficult to diagnose. In addition, the vertebral bodies are vascular and their canals are relatively enclosed, making them vulnerable to epidural bleeding. The MRI scan shows an epidural hematoma posteriorly compressing the cord. Bohlman HH: Acute fractures and dislocations of the cervical spine. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1979;61:1119-1142. Weinstein PR, Karpman RR, Gall EP, et al: Spinal cord injury, spine fracture and spinal stenosis in ankylosing spondylitis. J Neurosurg 1982;57:609-616.
Question 30
The first branch of the lateral plantar nerve innervates the
Explanation
The first branch of the lateral plantar nerve innervates the abductor digiti quinti, and more distal branches of the lateral plantar nerve supply the quadratus plantae and the interossei. The medial plantar nerve supplies the abductor hallucis brevis and the flexor digitorum brevis. Pansky B, House EH: Review of Gross Anatomy, ed 3. New York, NY, Macmillan, 1975, pp 464-476.
Question 31
Figures 20a and 20b show lateral and AP radiographs of a 49-year-old man who sustained a gunshot wound through the left shoulder. He reports neck pain and examination reveals weakness in all four extremities. What is the priority of evaluation?
Explanation
The projectile entered the left shoulder and traveled to the right neck; therefore, a high incidence of suspicion must be directed to the airway, great vessels of the neck, and contents of the mediastinum. Immediate assessment of airway, breathing, and circulation takes priority, followed by examination of the neurologic status and other systems, as determined by the examination findings. Subcommittee on ATLS of the American College of Surgeons Committee on Trauma 1993-1997, Spine and Spinal Cord Trauma; Advanced Trauma Life Support Student Manual, ed 6, 1997. International Standards for Neurological and Functional Classification of Spinal Cord Injury. American Spinal Injury Association and International Medical Society of Paraplegia (ASIA/IMSOP).
Question 32
A 13-year-old boy has a mild deformity of the left sternoclavicular joint after being involved in a rollover accident while riding an all-terrain vehicle. Examination in the emergency department reveals that he is hemodynamically stable, and his neurovascular examination is normal. The CT scan shown in Figure 22 was obtained because radiographs were inconclusive. Management should consist of
Explanation
The CT scan reveals a completely displaced physeal fracture of the medial clavicle with marked posterior displacement of the distal fragment. This fracture pattern is associated with potential injury to the vascular structures of the mediastinum. Reduction should be performed for this fracture and generally can be done closed with shoulder retraction and upward pull on the clavicle with a towel clip. Once reduced, the fracture is relatively stable and typically will heal in good position. Reduction should be performed in the operating room in the event that a vascular injury is detected once compression is removed from the clavicle. Open reduction may be necessary if closed reduction is not possible; however, pinning or ligament reconstruction usually is not necessary. Rockwood CA, Matsen FA (eds): The Shoulder, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1998, p 581.
Question 33
When the elbow is extended and an axial load is applied, what percent of stress distribution occurs across the ulnohumeral and radiohumeral articular surface, respectively?
Explanation
When load is applied to the wrist, most of the stress is absorbed by the radius. As the load is transferred through the forearm, the interosseous membrane transfers some of the load from the radius to the ulna. The load at the elbow is distributed with 40% at the ulnohumeral articulation and 60% at the radiohumeral articulation. Halls AA, Travill R: Transmission of pressure across the elbow joint. Anat Rec 1964;150:243.
Question 34
At the L4-5 level, what is the location of the S2-5 nerve roots in relationship to the L5 and S1 nerve roots?
Explanation
The nerve roots of S2-5 are positioned dorsally and in the midline relative to the L5 and S1 nerve roots. The L5 nerve root is located lateral to S1 as it prepares to exit under the L5 pedicle. The S1 nerve root is located lateral and ventral to the S2-5 nerve roots. Garfin SR, Vaccaro AR (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Spine. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1997, pp 3-17.
Question 35
A 10-year-old boy reports a gradual onset of weakness; however, he is fully ambulatory. History reveals that he has a 17-year-old brother who has just stopped walking because of a similar condition. Laboratory studies show a creatine kinase level of 5,480 IU/L (normal 25 to 232 IU/L), and examination shows a slightly positive Gower sign. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
The patient has Becker muscular dystrophy. Patients with this condition have a slower rate of progression of disease compared with patients who have Duchenne muscular dystrophy, and walking may continue into the late teens. The creatine kinase level is not as high as in Duchenne muscular dystrophy, which can range from 20,000 to 30,000 IU/L. Becker muscular dystrophy is allelic to Duchenne muscular dystrophy, resulting in a mutation in the dystrophin gene. Myotonic dystrophy is characterized by a progressive inability to relax the muscles after contracture. The Gower sign is not helpful in this disease. Patients with Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease, one type of which is also known as HMSN type II, do not have elevated creatine kinase levels and usually present with a foot deformity. Spinal muscular atrophy, type II, usually presents with severe weakness in the second year of life. Matsuo M: From molecular diagnosis to gene therapy. Brain Dev 1996;18:167-172. Darras BT: Molecular genetics of Duchenne and Becker muscular dystrophy. J Pediatr 1990;117:1-15.
Question 36
A 45-year-old woman awakens with the acute onset of burning left shoulder pain that radiates toward the axilla. She denies any history of trauma. On examination, she is unable to abduct her arm but has full passive shoulder motion. Her sensation is intact. Cervical spine examination reveals full range of motion and a negative Spurling's test. Radiographs and MRI studies are normal for the cervical spine and shoulder. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
The definition of brachial neuritis or Parsonage-Turner syndrome is a rare disorder of unknown etiology that causes pain or weakness of the shoulder and upper extremity. The loss of active motion excludes cervical C6-7 radiculopathy and impingement. A normal MRI scan and full passive motion exclude a rotator cuff tear and adhesive capsulitis, respectively. Misamore GW, Lehman DE: Parsonage-Turner syndrome (acute brachial neuritis). J Bone Joint Surg Am 1996;78:1405-1408.
Question 37
A 7-year-old girl has had a painful forearm for the past 2 months. Examination reveals fullness on the volar aspect of the forearm. Radiographs and an MRI scan are shown in Figures 42a through 42c. Biopsy specimens are shown in Figures 42d and 42e. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
The radiographs reveal phleboliths on the volar side of the forearm consistent with hemangioma. The MRI scan reveals a rather well-circumscribed in size, irregular in shape, intramuscular soft-tissue mass in the volar aspect of the distal right forearm within the flexor group musculature. The mass demonstrates heterogeneous mixed signal intensity in both T1- and T2-weighted sequences with increased signal intensity on the T1, suggesting fat within the tumor, typical of hemangioma. The postgadolinium-enhanced sequences demonstrate heterogeneous enhancement. The MRI findings are consistent with a soft-tissue hemangioma. Garzon M: Hemangiomas: Update on classification, clinical presentation and associate anomalies. Cutis 2000;66:325-328.
Question 38
A 55-year-old man has had progressive right shoulder pain for the past 2 years. Examination reveals active elevation to 120 degrees, external rotation to 20 degrees, and internal rotation to the sacrum. AP and axillary radiographs are shown in Figures 23a and 23b. Which of the following procedures would result in the most predictable long-term pain relief?
Explanation
Total shoulder arthroplasty yields excellent pain relief and function in patients with osteoarthritis. It is favored over humeral arthroplasty, especially when there is asymmetric posterior glenoid wear and posterior humeral subluxation as shown on the axillary radiograph. Arthroscopic debridement of the glenohumeral joint may be helpful in delaying the need for arthroplasty when the arthritic changes are mild to moderate but is not indicated for advanced osteoarthritis. Cofield RH, Frankle MA, Zuckerman JD: Humeral head replacement for glenohumeral arthritis. Semin Arthroplasty 1995;6:214-221. Levine WN, Djurasovic M, Glasson JM, Pollock RG, Flatow EL, Bigliani LU: Hemiarthroplasty for glenohumeral osteoarthritis: Results correlated to degree of glenoid wear. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 1997;6:449-454.
Question 39
What is the most common nonanesthetic-related reversible cause of changes in intraoperative neurophysiologic monitoring data?
Explanation
Patient positioning that results in local nerve compression, plexus traction, or improper neck alignment is the most common nonanesthetic-related cause of changes in intraoperative neurophysiologic monitoring data during spinal surgery. Jones SC, Fernau R, Woeltjen BL: Use of somatosensory evoked potentials to detect peripheral ischemia and potential injury resulting from positioning of the surgical patient: Case reports and discussion. Spine J 2004;4:360-362.
Question 40
A 68-year-old man embarks on a 24-week strength training program. He trains at 80% of his single repetition maximum for both the upper and lower extremities. Which of the following changes can be anticipated?
Explanation
Consistent, long-term exercise training in older athletes has proven very beneficial in reversing both endurance and strength losses that traditionally have been seen with aging. This patient's program will lead to a significant increase in the strength, cross-sectional area, and capillary density of the trained muscles. No major changes in aerobic capacity are anticipated. Strength improvements of up to 5% per day, similar to those for younger athletes, have been identified in this population in one study. Kirkendall DT, Garrett WE Jr: The effects of aging and training on skeletal muscle. Am J Sports Med 1998;26:598-602.
Question 41
Which of the following actions best enhances performance when an athlete is participating in a 10K race?
Explanation
Proper hydration prior to an athletic event is the most important determinant of performance. It is virtually impossible to keep pace with fluid loss during an athletic competition. When a net loss of fluid occurs and the athlete is properly prehydrated, this fluid loss will not adversely affect performance. It is not necessary to load up on carbohydrates prior to a 10K race, or to replace calories burned during the race. Hyponatremia can develop in ultra-endurance athletes, especially marathoners, if they hydrate without replacing electrolytes lost through sweating; however, this is highly unlikely for a 10K race. Newmark SR, Toppo FR, Adams G: Fluid and electrolyte replacement in the ultramarathon runner. Am J Sports Med 1991;19:389-391.
Question 42
A 13-year-old boy injured his knee playing basketball and is now unable to bear weight. Examination reveals tenderness and swelling at the proximal anterior tibia, with a normal neurologic examination. AP and lateral radiographs are shown in Figures 1a and 1b. Management should consist of
Explanation
The patient has a displaced intra-articular tibial tuberosity fracture; therefore, the treatment of choice is open reduction and internal fixation. Periosteum is often interposed between the fracture fragments and prevents satisfactory closed reduction. Fortunately, most patients with this injury are close to skeletal maturity and therefore, growth arrest and recurvatum are unusual. Nondisplaced fractures can be treated with a cast, but displaced fractures are best treated with open reduction and internal fixation. Intra-articular fractures can disrupt the joint surface and are sometimes associated with a meniscal tear; therefore, arthroscopy may be needed at the time of open reduction and internal fixation. McKoy BE, Stanitski CL: Acute tibial tubercle avulsion fractures. Orthop Clin North Am 2003;34:397-403.
Question 43
A 4-year-old child was born with bilateral congenital radial clubhands. Which of the following associated conditions is a contraindication to centralization of the hands on the ulna?
Explanation
Patients born with bilateral radial clubhands may have difficulty getting their hands to their mouth. The centralization procedure would take away that ability if there is a lack of elbow flexion. Green DP, Hotchkiss RN, Pederson WC: Green's Operative Hand Surgery, ed 4. New York, NY, Churchill Livingstone, 1999, pp 344-349.
Question 44
A 55-year-old woman with type I diabetes mellitus has a chronic ulcer over the dorsum of her right foot and reports forefoot pain. Examination reveals 1- x 2-cm nondraining ulcer over the dorsum of the foot. The patient has 1-2+ pain with compression of the foot and ankle. She has a weakly palpable posterior tibial pulse and an absent dorsalis pedis pulse. There is no erythema, cellulitis, or drainage. Radiographs are normal. Which of the following diagnostic studies should be obtained?
Explanation
The presence of a dorsal ulcer in the presence of weak or absent pulses strongly suggests the possibility of arterial insufficiency. The best initial noninvasive study to assess for ischemia is the Doppler arterial study. A determination of the vascular status is of a greater priority than an assessment for infection or neuropathy because of the location and presentation of the ulcer. If ankle pressures are less than 45 mm Hg, there is a high risk that these lesions will not heal without revascularization. Wagner FW Jr: The dysvascular foot: A system for diagnosis and treatment. Foot Ankle 1981;2:64-122.
Question 45
Figure 47 shows the radiograph of a 2-day-old girl who has been referred for swelling and limited use of the right upper extremity. The second of twins, the infant was breech and delivered with forceps at age 38 weeks, weighing 5.37 lb. Difficulty in moving the arm was noted shortly after birth. Examination shows no active motion of the shoulder, elbow, or wrist. Active finger flexion and extension are present. The elbow is mildly swollen, and passive motion shows lack of full extension of 20 degrees, lack of full flexion of 15 degrees, and no restriction of pronation or supination. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
Fractures involving the entire distal humeral physis may be a complication of a difficult delivery. Basing the diagnosis on radiographs can be difficult at this age because the secondary ossification center of the lateral condyle has not developed. The key to the diagnosis is the constant relationship of the radius and ulna, with medial and posterior displacement of the forearm relative to the humerus. An ultrasound can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis in newborns. Because the fracture is through cartilage, examination may reveal only mild swelling, and crepitation may be muffled or not apparent. The lack of apparent active motion of the shoulder, elbow, and wrist is secondary to pseudoparalysis. Child abuse is a common mechanism of this injury in a child who is age 1 month to age 3 years. Beaty JH, Wilkins KE: Fractures involving the entire distal humeral physis, in Rockwood CA, Wilkins KE, Beaty JH (eds): Fractures in Children, ed 4. Philadelphia, Pa, Lippincott-Raven, 1996, vol 3, pp 790-801. Dias JJ, Lamont AC, Jones JM: Ultrasonic diagnosis of neonatal separation of the distal humeral epiphysis. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1988;70:825-828.
Question 46
Which of the following primary prognostic factors best predicts the outcome of the knee lesion shown in Figure 22?
Explanation
The patient has osteochondritis dissecans. While location, size, and knee stability are all relevant to the overall prognosis, studies have shown that younger patients with open growth plates have a better prognosis of healing when compared with patients who have closed growth plates. The degree of pain is also relevant to treatment, but it is subjective rather than objective and is not as reliable of a prognostic indicator as age. Stanitski CL: Osteochondritis dissecans of the knee, in Stanitski CL, DeLee JC, Drez D Jr (eds): Pediatric and Adolescent Sports Medicine. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1994, vol 3, pp 387-405. Cahill B: Treatment of juvenile osteochondritis dissecans and osteochondritis dissecans of the knee. Clin Sports Med 1985;4:367-384.
Question 47
A 21-year-old patient has had pain and a marked decrease in active and passive shoulder motion after having had a seizure 2 months ago as the result of alcohol abuse. Current AP and axillary radiographs and a CT scan are shown in Figures 26a through 26c. Management should consist of
Explanation
Open reduction and subscapularis and lesser tuberosity transfer into the defect is the treatment of choice in young individuals who have defects that involve between 20% to 45% of the head. Disimpaction and bone grafting is an option in injuries that are less than 3 weeks old. Closed reduction 2 to 3 months after injury usually is unsuccessful and increases the risk of fracture or neurovascular injury. Total shoulder arthroplasty is reserved for defects of greater than 50% or with associated glenoid surface damage. Hemiarthroplasty should be avoided in young individuals unless 50% or more of the head is involved. Gerber C: Chronic locked anterior and posterior dislocations, in Warner JJ, Iannotti JP, Gerber C (eds): Complex and Revision Problems in Shoulder Surgery. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1997, pp 99-113.
Question 48
Kyphosis from a vertebral osteoporotic compression fracture often results in progressive kyphosis due to
Explanation
Kayanja and associates, in a number of biomechanical studies, showed that in a kyphotic spine the strain is located at the apex of the deformity, the force is transmitted to the superior adjacent vertebrae, and that realignment and cement augmentation effectively normalize the load transfer. Kayanja MM, Ferrara LA, Lieberman IH: Distribution of anterior cortical shear strain after a thoracic wedge compression fracture. Spine J 2004;4:76-87. Kayanja MM, Togawa D, Lieberman IH: Biomechanical changes after the augmentation of experimental osteoporotic vertebral compression fractures in the cadaveric thoracic spine. Spine J 2005;5:55-63. Kayanja MM, Schlenk R, Togawa D, et al: The biomechanics of 1, 2, and 3 levels of vertebral augmentation with polymethylmethacrylate in multilevel spinal segments. Spine 2006;31:769-774.
Question 49
Which of the following best describes the function of the notochord?
Explanation
The notochord is the anatomic structure that defines the phylum Chordata. The notochord plays a fundamental role in the development of the skeleton, and it exists only for a short period of time. During its temporary existence, the notochord serves as a transient axis of support, provides for the initial axis of orientation of the developing embryo, and most importantly, plays a vital role in the induction of the tissues that eventually form the vertebral column.
Question 50
Figures 45a and 45b show the radiographs of a 46-year-old man who reports the acute onset of right knee pain and is unable to bear weight on the extremity. His medical history is unremarkable. The next most appropriate step in management should consist of
Explanation
The patient has a pathologic fracture of the right distal femur; therefore, given the patient's age, the most likely diagnosis is metastatic carcinoma. Staging studies should be obtained prior to surgical treatment. Immediate intramedullary fixation is contraindicated before a diagnosis is made by biopsy. Surgical stabilization should be performed prior to radiation therapy.
Question 51
Linazolid exerts its antimicrobial action by inhibiting bacterial
Explanation
Linazolid is the first agent of the oxazolidinone group of antibiotics and is very active against methicillin-sensitive Staphylococus aureus, S epidermidis, and vancomycin-resistant enterococci. The drug has no gram-negative activity. Linazolid inhibits protein synthesis by blocking formation of the 70S ribosomal translation complex. This mechanism of action is unique to the oxazolidinones. Rybak MJ, Cappelletty DM, Moldovan T, et al: Comparative in vitro activities and postantibiotic effects of the oxazolidinone compounds eperezolid (PNU-100592) and linezolid (PNU-100766) versus vancomycin against Staphylococcus aureus, coagulase-negative staphylococci, Enterococcus faecalis, and Enterococcus faecium. Antimicrob Agents Chemother 1998;42:721-724.
Question 52
In providing culturally competent care to a Muslim woman with a cervical spine injury, which of the following most accurately describes the steps a male orthopaedist should take to respect her religious beliefs during his examination?
Explanation
In examining a traditional Muslim woman, a male physician should have another woman present, and the patient's husband, if possible. Only the affected limb or area needing examination should be exposed.
Question 53
Antibiotic-loaded bone cement prostheses, such as that shown in Figure 8, are best created by using which of the following methods?
Explanation
In a review of the practical applications of antibiotic-loaded bone cement for the treatment of the infected total joint arthroplasties, Hanssen and Spangehl described commercially available antibiotic-loaded bone cement as low-dose antibiotic cements. These cements generally contained 0.5 g of either tobramycin or gentamicin per 40 g of cement. They are indicated for use in prophylaxis and not for treatment of infected total joint arthroplasties. High-dose antibiotic-loaded bone cements are described as those containing greater than 1.0 g of antibiotic per 40 g of cement. Effective elution levels have been documented with 3.6 g tobramycin and 1.0 g vancomycin per 40 g of bone cement. This was documented by Penner and associates. Furthermore, it was shown that the combination of the two antibiotics in the bone cement improved the elution of both antibiotics. Hanssen AD, Spangehl MJ: Practical applications of antibiotic-loaded bone cement for treatment of infected joint replacements. Clin Orthop 2004;427:79-85.
Question 54
A football player sustains a traumatic anterior inferior dislocation of the shoulder in the last game of the season. It is reduced 20 minutes later in the locker room. The patient is neurologically intact and has regained motion. If the patient undergoes arthroscopic evaluation, what finding is seen most consistently?
Explanation
In an acute first-time dislocation, arthroscopy has been shown to reveal a Bankart lesion in most shoulders. The classic finding of labral detachment from the anterior inferior glenoid along with occasional hemorrhage within the inferior glenohumeral ligament is the most common sequelae of a traumatic anterior inferior dislocation. Acute treatment, if chosen, is repair of the labral tissue back to the glenoid plus or minus any capsular plication to address potential plastic deformation of the glenohumeral ligament. Acute treatment of a patient sustaining a first-time dislocation remains controversial. The potential indications may be patients whose dislocation occurs at the end of a season and when the desire to minimize risk of future instability outweighs the risks of surgical intervention. Taylor DC, Arciero RA: Pathologic changes associated with shoulder dislocations: Arthroscopic and physical examination findings in first-time, traumatic anterior dislocations. Am J Sports Med 1997;25:306-311. DeBerardino TM, Arciero RA, Taylor DC, et al: Prospective evaluation of arthroscopic stabilization of acute, initial anterior shoulder dislocations in young athletes: Two- to five-year follow-up. Am J Sports Med 2001;29:586-592.
Question 55
A 21-year-old man has mild but persistent aching pain in his left proximal thigh during impact loading activities. He denies pain at rest and has no other symptoms. Figures 34a through 34e show the radiographs and T1-weighted, T2-weighted, and gadolinium MRI scans of the left hip. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
The radiographs show a centrally located radiolucent lesion with cortical thinning and mild osseous expansion; these findings are the hallmarks of a simple bone cyst. Whereas this particular lesion does not demonstrate sclerosis, the distinct margin of this lesion with sharp transition to normal bone is common. The MRI scans reveal a purely cystic lesion with bright T2 signal, and the gadolinium image shows the classic rim enhancement of cystic lesions. Fibrous dysplasia with cystic degeneration might have a very similar appearance and should be considered in the differential diagnosis. Parsons TW: Benign bone tumors, in Fitzgerald RH, Kaufer H, Malkani AL (eds): Orthopaedics. St Louis, MO, Mosby, 2002, pp 1027-1035. May DA, Good RB, Smith DK, et al: MR imaging of musculoskeletal tumors and tumor mimickers with intravenous gadolinium: Experience with 242 patients. Skeletal Radiol 1997;26:2-15.
Question 56
A 15-year-old boy reports a 2-day history of progressive left buttock pain and severe limping. He denies any history of trauma or radiation of the pain. He has an oral temperature of 100.4 degrees F (38 degrees C). Examination reveals that the lumbar spine and left hip have unguarded motion. The abdomen is nontender. There is moderate tenderness of the left sacroiliac region with no palpable swelling. Pain is elicited when the left lower extremity is placed in the figure-4 position (FABER test). Laboratory studies show a peripheral WBC count of 11,500/mm3 (normal to 10,500/mm3) and an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 38 mm/h (normal up to 20 mm/h). Radiographs of the pelvis, hips, and lumbar spine are normal. A nucleotide bone scan (posterior view) is shown in Figure 44. Initial management should consist of
Explanation
The symptoms, physical findings, and laboratory studies are most consistent with a diagnosis of infectious sacroiliitis, usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus. Initial radiographs will be normal, and the diagnosis of sacroiliitis is often delayed. A technetium Tc 99m bone scan will localize the problem in 90% of patients but may occasionally give a false-negative result in early cases. If suspicion is high, a gallium scan or MRI scan may help confirm the diagnosis of sacroiliitis. Needle aspiration of the sacroiliac joint is difficult; therefore, antibiotic selection is usually empiric or based on blood cultures. Sacroiliitis that is the result of connective tissue inflammatory disease is usually bilateral and without fever or leukocytosis. The lack of hip irritability, spinal rigidity, and abdominal tenderness helps to rule out other causes of limping with fever, such as psoas abscess, diskitis, and septic hip. Aprin H, Turen C: Pyogenic sacroiliitis in children. Clin Orthop 1993;287:98-106.
Question 57
What is the best surgical approach for the scapular fracture shown in Figure 46?
Explanation
Indications for open reduction of glenoid intra-articular fractures include those fractures with a 5-mm articular surface displacement or when the humeral head is subluxated with the fracture fragment. Kavanaugh and associates and Leung and Lam have shown that the posterior approach with plate fixation is best for most glenoid fractures, including the Ideberg type II fracture shown here. The anterior approach is best used for anterior rim and transverse fractures. Kavanagh BF, Bradway JK, Cofield RH: Open reduction and internal fixation of displaced intra-articular fractures of the glenoid fossa. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1993;75:479-484. Leung KS, Lam TP: Open reduction and internal fixation of ipsilateral fractures of the scapular neck and clavicle. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1993;75:1015-1018.
Question 58
A 14-year-old boy has an asymptomatic mass on the right arm. MRI scans and biopsy specimens are shown in Figures 51a through 51d. Immunostaining is positive for desmin. Additional staging studies should include
Explanation
The patient has rhabdomyosarcoma. Axilliary node and bone marrow biopsy are part of the staging because about 12% of patients with rhabdomyosarcoma of the extremity have evidence of lymph nodes metastases at presentation. Bone marrow metastases have been shown to portend a worse prognosis. Lawrence W, Jr., Hays DM, Heyn R, Tefft M, Crist W, Beltangady M, et al: Lymphatic metastases with childhood rhabdomyosarcoma: A report from the Intergroup Rhabdomyosarcoma Study. Cancer 1987;60:910-915.
Question 59
The cervical disk herniation shown in the MRI scans in Figures 30a and 30b will most likely create which of the following constellations of symptoms?
Explanation
The MRI scans reveal a right-sided C5-6 herniated nucleus pulposus. A disk herniation in this region encroaches on the C6 root and is accompanied by a sensory change along the thumb and index finger, alterations in the brachioradialis reflex, and possible wrist extension weakness. Although the nerve root associated with the vertebral body passes above the pedicles such that the C6 root passes above the C6 pedicle, it is still the C6 root that is encroached on because the herniation affects the exiting root rather than the traversing root as seen in the lumbar spine. Klein JD, Garfin SR: Clinical evaluation of patients with suspected spine problems, in Frymoyer JW (ed): Adult Spine: Principles and Practice, ed 2. Philadephia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1997, pp 319-330.
Question 60
Which of the following tendons is the primary antagonist of the posterior tibialis tendon?
Explanation
The primary action of the posterior tibialis tendon is inversion of the foot; secondarily, it plantar flexes the ankle. The anterior tibialis tendon also inverts the foot and only partially antagonizes the posterior tibialis tendon. The primary action of the peroneus longus is plantar flexion of the first ray. It secondarily everts the posterior tibialis tendon. The action of the flexor digitorum longus tendon is synergistic with the posterior tibialis tendon. The primary action of the peroneus brevis tendon is eversion; therefore, it is the primary antagonist of the posterior tibialis tendon. Sarrafian SK: Anatomy of the Foot and Ankle: Descriptive, Topographic, Functional, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, JB Lippincott, 1993, pp 550-551.
Question 61
An 8-year-old girl sustained a displaced fracture at the base of the femoral neck in a motor vehicle accident. Management should consist of
Explanation
Pediatric intracapsular hip fractures are challenging because of the high rates of complications, including osteonecrosis and varus malunion. These patients should be treated as emergencies. Principles of treatment include anatomic reduction with internal fixation. Screw fixation short of the physis is preferred and may need to be supplemented with spica cast immobilization. Fixation may be achieved with smooth pins across the physis when little metaphyseal bone is available. Fixation across the physis with threaded screws is acceptable only when the patient is close to skeletal maturity. Pediatric hip screws are appropriate if immediately available. Emergent open reduction, capsulotomy, or joint aspiration may decrease the rate of osteonecrosis. Cheng JC, Tang N: Decompression and stable internal fixation of femoral neck fractures in children can affect the outcome. J Pediatr Orthop 1999;19:338-343. Azouz EM, Karamitsos C, Reed MH, et al: Types and complications of femoral neck fractures in children. Pediatr Radiol 1993;23:415-420. Song KS, Kim YS, Sohn SW, et al: Arthrotomy and open reduction of the displaced fracture of the femoral neck in children. J Pediatr Orthop B 2001;10:205-210.
Question 62
A 7-year-old boy sustained an acute puncture wound of the foot after stepping barefoot on a piece of glass 1 day ago. His mother states that she is not sure if she got the piece of glass out; however, she reports that his immunizations are up-to-date. Examination reveals that the wound is slightly erythematous, less than 1 mm in length on the heel, and is not currently draining. What is the next most appropriate step im management?
Explanation
The child has an up-to-date tetanus; therefore, a booster is not recommended. Pseudomonas coverage is most likely not needed because the child was barefoot. It is too early to evaluate for abscess or osteomyelitis with MRI, and a formal debridement is rarely indicated without signs of an abscess or a retained foreign body. Radiographs with soft-tissue penetration should be obtained to check for a retained foreign body. Richardson EG (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Foot and Ankle 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2004, pp 199-205.
Question 63
A 40-year-old man has a painless mass around his left ankle. He notes minimal growth over the past year. An MRI scan is shown in Figure 73a, and biopsy specimens are shown in Figures 73b and 73c. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
The biopsy specimen is a low-power view of a soft-tissue sarcoma with a biphasic pattern of epithelial cells and fibrous spindle cells that are typical of a synovial sarcoma. A deep, painless soft-tissue mass greater than 5 cm in size is suspicious for a sarcoma. The imaging in this patient is indeterminate and the patient requires a biopsy for an accurate diagnosis. The biopsy reveals a tumor with a biphasic appearance consistent with a synovial sarcoma. These tumors are slow growing, occur primarily in the lower extremities, and are found in a younger demographic population compared to malignant fibrous histiocytoma and liposarcoma. They can occur in a biphasic pattern with clumps of epithelial cells and fibrous spindle cells or in a monophasic pattern. Synovial sarcomas stain positively for keratin. Keratin is positive in nearly all biphasic types and in many tumors of the monophasic fibrous type. Sixty percent of these tumors are found in the lower extremity. The area around the knee is the most common location, followed by the ankle and foot. Epithelioid and clear cell sarcomas are found associated with tendon sheaths of the hand and feet and are generally smaller in size. Epithelioid sarcoma may resemble granulomatous inflammation histologically; clear cell sarcoma is composed of nests of clear cells with occasional multinucleated giant cells. Pigmented villonodular synovitis is found within the synovium and is characterized by a villous histologic appearance with hemosiderin-laden macrophages. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma has a storiform histologic pattern with an abundance of pleomorphic cells. Enzinger FM, Weiss SW: Soft Tissue Tumors, ed 3. St Louis, MO, Mosby, 1995, p 757.
Question 64
Figures 3a and 3b show the inversion stress radiographs of a patient's ankle. What is the most likely ligament injury pattern?
Explanation
The radiographic findings show 30 degrees of talar tilt (severe) and 10 mm of anterior translation that typically involves laxity of both of the major lateral ligaments of the ankle (anterior talofibular and calcaneofibular). There is no evidence of deltoid laxity. Harper MC: Stress radiographs in the diagnosis of lateral instability of the ankle and hindfoot. Foot Ankle 1992;13:435-438.
Question 65
A 52-year-old woman who underwent cheilectomy 1 year ago for hallux rigidus now reports continued pain in the first metatarsophalangeal joint. She did not have any incision healing problems, and has not had any fevers, erythema, or drainage. Which of the following procedures will provide the best combination of pain relief and function?
Explanation
All but the Moberg osteotomy are capable of providing pain relief; however, arthrodesis offers the best long-term results and restores weight bearing and propulsion function to the first ray. Machacek F Jr, Easley ME, Gruber F, et al: Salvage of a failed Keller resection arthroplasty. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2004;86:1131-1138.
Question 66
Figures 23a and 23b show the AP and lateral radiographs of the elbow of a 30-year-old professional pitcher. The pathology shown in these studies is most consistent with which of the following conditions?
Explanation
The radiographs show the osteophytic build-up of the posteromedial corner of the elbow that occurs with valgus extension overload in the pitching elbow. This is the result of excessive valgus forces during the acceleration and deceleration phases of throwing. These forces, coupled with medial elbow stresses, cause a wedging of the olecranon into the medial wall of the olecranon fossa. Valgus instability of the elbow may further stimulate osteophyte formation. Repetitive impact of a spur within the olecranon fossa may cause fragmentation and eventual formation of loose bodies. Azar FM, Wilk KE: Nonoperative treatment of the elbow in throwers. Oper Tech Sports Med 1996;4:91-99. Field LD, Savoie FJ: Common elbow injuries in sport. Sports Med 1988;26:193-205.
Question 67
Which of the following knee ligament injury patterns is most associated with an increase in external tibial rotation with the knee at 90 degrees of flexion?
Explanation
Cadaveric studies have shown that external rotation of the tibia is most pronounced following transection of the posterior cruciate and lateral collateral ligaments with the knee at 90 degrees of flexion. Isolated release of the lateral collateral ligament results in increased external tibial rotation at 30 degrees. Gollehon DL, Torzilli PA, Warren RF: The role of the posterolateral and cruciate ligaments in the stability of the human knee: A biomechanical study. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1987;69:233-242. Cooper DE: Tests for posterolateral instability of the knee in normal subjects: Results of examination under anesthesia. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1991;73:30-36.
Question 68
Figures 26a through 26c show the MRI scans of a 47-year-old man who underwent arthroscopic shoulder surgery 6 months ago and continues to have pain despite a prolonged course of rehabilitation. Management should now consist of
Explanation
The MRI scans show an os acromiale of the mesoacromion type. This represents an unfused acromial apophysis. Pain is thought to be caused by either motion at the site or downward displacement of the anterior aspect of the acromion onto the rotator cuff, causing impingement. Most patients can be treated nonsurgically as they are usually asymptomatic. In those patients with persistent symptoms of pain and tenderness over the acromion, surgery consisting of rigid internal fixation and bone grafting has yielded satisfactory results. Excision may be a viable treatment option for the preacromion type. Herzog RJ: Magnetic resonance imaging of the shoulder. Instr Course Lect 1998;47:3-20. Warner JP, Beim GM, Higgins L: The treatment of symptomatic os acromiale. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1998;80:1320-1326.
Question 69
An otherwise healthy 33-year-old man who works in construction reports a 3-month history of knee pain. Radiographs are shown in Figures 9a and 9b. An axial T1-weighted MRI scan with contrast, an angiogram, and histologies are shown in Figures 9c through 9f. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
Dedifferentiated parosteal osteosarcoma designates high-grade transformation of conventional low-grade parosteal osteosarcoma. Unlike conventional parosteal osteosarcoma, where wide surgical excision alone is considered adequate treatment, patients with dedifferentiated osteosarcoma are treated with neoadjuvant chemotherapy and wide local resection. Recognition of dedifferentiated areas with angiography can localize the area that should be biopsied and thus render an accurate diagnosis. Percutaneous biopsy of hypervascular areas should prompt the administration of chemotherapy and wide local excision to optimize patient outcome. Sheth DS, Yasko AW, Raymond AK, et al: Conventional and dedifferentiated parosteal osteosarcoma: Diagnosis, treatment, and outcome. Cancer 1996;78:2136-2145.
Question 70
Following ankle arthroscopy performed through a posterolateral portal, a patient notes numbness on the lateral half of the heel pad of the foot. What is the most likely injured structure?
Explanation
The lateral calcaneal nerve is a branch of the sural nerve that runs along the lateral border of the Achilles tendon to innervate the lateral heel pad. Ankle arthroscopy involves posterior portals that hug the Achilles tendon to avoid the main trunks of the sural nerve and tibial nerve; however, the lateral calcaneal branch remains potentially vulnerable. The first branch of the lateral plantar nerve is actually a medial structure that partially innervates the plantar fascia and the abductor digiti quinti. The deep peroneal nerve is anterior to the ankle. Sitler DF, Amendola A, Bailey CS, et al: Posterior ankle arthroscopy: An anatomic study. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2002;84:763-769.
Question 71
A 25-year-old farm worker sustained a grade III open fracture of the midshaft of the left tibia after falling from a ladder. Which of the following antibiotic regimens is best for this patient?
Explanation
Patients who sustain grade III open fractures that are related to a farm environment require ampicillin or penicillin for Clostridium coverage. Holton PD, Mader J, Nelson CL, Osmon DR, Patzakis MJ: Antibiotics for the practicing orthopaedic surgeon. Instr Course Lect 2000;341:36-42.
Question 72
A 75-year-old patient returns for follow-up after undergoing bilateral total hip arthroplasty (THA). The right hip is a hybrid THA performed 12 years ago, whereas the left hip is a cementless THA performed 10 years ago. Both acetabular components are the same type, same size, and from the same manufacturer. Both femoral heads are 28-mm cobalt-chromium components. What is the most likely explanation for the advanced polyethylene wear in one hip?
Explanation
Over the past three decades, gamma irradiation and air has been the most common method of sterilizing polyethylene used in total joint arthroplasty. This method of sterilization results in breakage of the chemical bonds within the polymer. While this promotes cross-linking, it also leaves the polyethylene vulnerable to oxidation, especially if packaged in an air environment. Oxidation has been shown to decrease polyethylene's molecular weight, ultimate tensile strength, elongation, and toughness which results in a stiffer, more brittle material that is less resistant to wear. Severity of oxidation and a decrease in mechanical properties have been shown to be related to the length of time that the component is exposed to air (the shelf life). Currier and associates studied the clinical performance of gamma irradiated in air polyethylene components that had been shelf aged. They demonstrated that for the first 5 years of shelf life, polyethylene oxidized rather slowly. However, polyethylene components with a shelf life of more than 5 years would be expected to have minimal mechanical toughness and would likely fail rapidly if implanted. Bohl and associates evaluated 135 patients who had undergone total knee arthroplasty. Survivorship at 5 years was 100% for components with a shelf life of less than 4 years, 89% for components with a shelf life of 4 to 8 years, and 79% for components with a shelf life of more than 8 years. Sychterz and associates reported no correlation between shelf life and true wear rates for components with a shelf life of less than 3 years. In summary, both in vivo and in vitro data suggest that shelf life in excess of 3 to 5 years has a direct effect on wear of polyethylene. Currier BH, Currier JH, Collier JP, et al: Shelf life and in vivo duration: Impacts on performance of tibial bearings. Clin Orthop 1997;342:111-122. Bohl JR, Bohl WR, Postak PD, et al: The Coventry Award: The effects of shelf life on clinical outcome for gamma sterilized polyethylene tibial components. Clin Orthop 1999;367:28-38.
Question 73
A 25-year-old man has ankle instability and a lateral foot callosity. Radiographs are shown in Figures 49a through 49c. Management options are best determined by the
Explanation
The patient has a cavovarus deformity that has resulted in lateral foot overload and stressing of the lateral ligaments. Further treatment depends on the ability to correct the deformity. The Coleman block test indicates whether a deformity is fixed or supple. A supple deformity will respond to orthotic management or soft-tissue procedures, while a fixed deformity requires corrective osteotomy or fusion. Physical therapy, casting, and injection will not address the underlying pathophysiology. There is no indication that this is a neuropathic problem.
Question 74
Figures 35a and 35b show the radiographs of a patient who underwent debridement of a chronically infected, fully constrained knee prosthesis and now reports pain and instability despite bracing. History reveals that the patient has had no drainage since undergoing the last debridement 6 months ago. A C-reactive protein level and aspiration are negative for infection. Treatment should now consist of
Explanation
The radiographs show a significant loss of the proximal anterior tibial cortex, consistent with an extensively damaged or deficient extensor mechanism. Such a deficit precludes insertion of another knee arthroplasty. Arthrodesis is the treatment of choice for this patient and is indicated for loss of the extensor mechanism and knee instability. A recent report on arthrodesis following removal of an infected prosthesis showed a union rate of 91% using a short intramedullary nail. Insertion of an antibiotic-impregnated PMMA spacer is not indicated because the rationale for using a spacer is to maintain a space for reinsertion of another prosthesis. Reconstruction of the extensor mechanism would not address the loss of the joint. Amputation is the final treatment option if the arthrodesis fails. Rand JA: Alternatives to reimplantation for salvage of the total knee arthroplasty complicated by infection. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1993;75:282-289. Lai KA, Shen WJ, Yang CY: Arthrodesis with a short Huckstep nail as a salvage procedure for failed total knee arthroplasty. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1998;80:380-388.
Question 75
What is the most common surgical cause of the foot deformity shown in Figure 9?
Explanation
The radiograph shows a hallux varus deformity. Iatrogenically acquired hallux varus is most often the result of excessive lateral soft-tissue release, sesamoidectomy, or both. It also can be caused by a medial tibial sesamoid subluxation in conjunction with excessive postoperative dressing application, overcorrection of the intermetatarsal angle, or excessive medial eminence resection. Donley BG: Acquired hallux varus. Foot Ankle Int 1997;18:586-592.
Question 76
An otherwise healthy 32-year-old man who underwent an uneventful L5-S1 lumbar microdiskectomy 6 weeks ago now reports increasing and severe back pain that awakens him from sleep. Examination reveals a benign-appearing wound, and the neurologic examination is normal. Laboratory studies show an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of 90 mm/h and a WBC of 9,000/mm3. Plain radiographs are normal. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Explanation
The patient's history and laboratory studies are very suspicious for a postoperative diskitis. The predominant symptom often is back pain. An ESR of 90 mm/h is considered significantly elevated and normally would be expected to return to near baseline by 2 weeks postoperatively. A normal WBC result is not unusual with postoperative diskitis. Management should consist of an MRI with gadolinium to confirm the diagnosis, followed by a biopsy percutaneously to obtain tissues for pathology and microbiology. Surgical debridement is reserved for patients whose percutaneous biopsy results are negative and a high index of suspicion for diskitis remains, or when management consisting of IV antibiotics, bed rest, and spinal immobilization fails to provide relief. Garfin SR, Vaccaro AR (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Spine. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1997, pp 257-271.
Question 77
A 68-year-old man reports a 4-week history of progressive left-sided lower back and hip pain. The pain is in the posterior buttock region with radiation to the groin and to the left anterior knee region. The pain is aggravated with walking and improves with rest. There is no history of previous trauma. Radiographs are seen in Figures 14a and 14b, and MRI scans are seen in Figures 14c through 14e. What is the most appropriate treatment option at this time?
Explanation
Although the imaging reveals generalized lumbar spondylosis and stenosis, in particular at L4-5, the MRI scan of the left hip clearly reveals a stress fracture of the femoral neck. Therefore, the treatment of choice is non-weight-bearing of the left lower extremity. During the evaluation of acute back pain, clinicians must include other possibilities within the differential diagnosis that may mimic mechanical axial back pain; thus, potential complications from a missed diagnosis can be avoided. Wong DA, Transfeldt E: Macnab's Backache, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Williams and Wilkins, 2007, pp 339-361.
Question 78
Which of the following surgical devices employed for stabilization of the sternoclavicular joint is associated with the highest incidence of life-threatening complications?
Explanation
Numerous reports have documented serious complications including death from migration of intact or broken Kirschner wires or Steinmann pins into hilar structures such as the heart, pulmonary artery, and the aorta. Gilot GJ, Wirth MA, Rockwood CA: Injuries to the sternoclavicular joint, in Bucholz RW, Heckman JD, Court-Brown C (eds): Fractures in Adults. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott, Williams and Wilkins, 2006, vol 2, pp 1373-1374.
Question 79
An 11-year-old boy has had a fever and pain and swelling over the lateral aspect of his right ankle for the past 3 days. Examination reveals warmth, swelling, and tenderness over the lateral malleolus, and he has a temperature of 103.2 degrees F (39.5 degrees C). Laboratory studies show a WBC count of 13,200/mm3 with 61% neutrophils, an erythocyte sedimentation rate of 112 mm/h, and a C-reactive protein of 15.7. Radiographs and a T2-weighted MRI scan are shown in Figures 13a through 13c. Aspiration yields 1 mL of purulent fluid. Management should now consist of
Explanation
The initial signs and symptoms of acute hematogenous osteomyelitis vary widely but usually include fever, bone pain, and impaired use of the involved extremity. In lower extremity infections, the child may limp or refuse to walk. Examination often reveals bone tenderness. In more advanced cases, erythema, warmth, and swelling may be present. The WBC and neutrophil counts are not always elevated, but the erythocyte sedimentation rate will be abnormal in more than 90% of patients. When the infection is diagnosed early, before a subperiosteal abscess has formed, antibiotics alone may be adequate to treat the infection. This patient has a more advanced infection, however, with the MRI scan revealing a subperiosteal abscess that was confirmed by aspiration. When an abscess is present, surgical drainage is generally indicated to remove devitalized tissue and to enhance the efficacy of the antibiotics. Further studies, such as bone or indium scans, are not necessary and will delay definitive treatment. Scott RJ, Christofersen MR, Robertson WW Jr, et al: Acute osteomyelitis in children: A review of 116 cases. J Pediatr Orthop 1990;10:649-652.
Question 80
An active 60-year-old man is evaluated 4 years following surgical correction of a hallux valgus deformity. The patient reports that a hallux varus deformity developed rapidly following his initial surgery. Conservative management consisting of wider shoes, toe strapping, and anti-inflammatory drugs has failed to provide relief. Examination reveals a hallux varus deformity with restricted painful motion of the metatarsophalangeal joint and callus formation under the second metatarsal head. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Explanation
Hallux varus may occur as a complication following hallux valgus surgery, most commonly a modified McBride-type procedure. Conservative management is the initial treatment of choice; however, if unsuccessful, surgical options for reconstruction include soft-tissue reconstruction or metatarsophalangeal joint arthrodesis. The patient has evidence of joint arthrosis, making an arthrodesis the preferred method of reconstruction. Fascial arthroplasty, Silastic arthroplasty, and Keller resection arthroplasty will not correct the underlying deformity. Kitaoka HB, Patzer GL: Arthrodesis versus resection arthroplasty for failed hallux valgus operations. Clin Orthop 1998;347:208-214.
Question 81
What is the most appropriate orthotic management for the lesion shown in Figure 6?
Explanation
The figure shows an intractable plantar keratosis (IPK). The keratoma usually forms beneath a bony prominence. This can occur under the sesamoids, most commonly the tibial sesamoid, or under the fibular condyle of a prominent metatarsal head. The initial treatment of an IPK consists of paring down the callused lesion and placing a metatarsal pad proximal to the lesion to provide posting to unload the bony prominence.
Question 82
A 63-year-old woman reports giving way of the knee and pain after undergoing primary total knee arthroplasty (TKA) 1 year ago. Examination reveals that the knee is stable in full extension but has gross anteroposterior instability at 90 degrees of flexion. The patient can fully extend her knee with normal quadriceps strength. Studies for infection are negative. AP and lateral radiographs are shown in Figures 12a and 12b, respectively. What is the appropriate management?
Explanation
The radiographs show posterior flexion instability that is the result of a flexion-extension gap imbalance and posterior cruciate ligament incompetence after a posterior cruciate ligament-retaining TKA. The femur is anteriorly displaced on the tibia, with lift-off of the femoral component from the tibial polyethylene. Revision to a larger femoral component will address the larger flexion gap relative to the extension gap, and a posterior stabilized implant will address the posterior cruciate ligament insufficiency. Pagnano and associates, reporting on a series of painful TKAs previously diagnosed as pain of unknown etiology, showed that the pain was secondary to flexion instability. Pain relief was achieved by revision to a posterior stabilized implant. Pagnano MW, Hanssen AD, Lewallen DG, et al: Flexion instability after primary posterior cruciate retaining total knee arthroplasty. Clin Orthop 1998;356:39-46. Fehring TK, Valadie AL: Knee instability after total knee arthroplasty. Clin Orthop 1994;299:157-162.
Question 83
Which of the following best describes the mechanical response of the inferior glenohumeral ligament to repetitive subfailure strains?
Explanation
Repetitive subfailure strains have been shown to affect the mechanical behavior of the inferior glenohumeral ligament, producing dramatic declines in the peak load response and length increases that are largely unrecoverable. In another study, anteroinferior subluxation was found to result in nonrecoverable strain in the anteroinferior capsule, varying from 3% to 7% through a range of joint subluxation. Pollock RG, Wang VM, Bucchieri JS, et al: Effects of repetitive subfailure strains on the mechanical behavior of the inferior glenohumeral ligament. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 2000;9:427-435.
Question 84
Examination of an obese 3-year-old girl reveals 30 degrees of unilateral genu varum. A radiograph of the involved leg with the patella forward is shown in Figure 10. Management should consist of
Explanation
The clinical scenario describes infantile tibia vara (Blount's disease). The radiograph shows severe deformity with the characteristic Langenskiold stage 3 changes of the medial proximal tibial metaphysis that distinguish it from physiologic bowing. The preferred treatment is proximal tibiofibular osteotomy with acute correction into slight valgus to unload the damaged area of the physis. This method provides the best results in patients younger than age 4 years. Continued observation would result in progressive deformity. Bracing is most effective in younger children with less severe deformity. Lateral proximal tibial hemiepiphysiodesis relies on growth of the injured medial physis for correction and would result in severe tibial shortening in this young child. Complete epiphysiodesis also produces severe shortening and requires multiple lengthening procedures. Johnston CE II: Infantile tibia vara. Clin Orthop 1990;255:13-23.
Question 85
What cell type causes the bone destruction in metastatic lesions?
Explanation
The main consequence of tumor invading the bone is activation of both osteoblasts and osteoclasts. However, the osteoclastic effect predominates in the majority of tumors early after the invasion of bone by tumor cells, causing resorption of bone. Cramer SF, Fried L, Carter KJ: The cellular basis of metastatic bone disease in patients with lung cancer. Cancer 1981;48:2649-2660.
Question 86
A 67-year-old woman is seen in the emergency department after falling at home. Radiographs before and after treatment are shown in Figures 49a and 49b, respectively. Which of the following best explains the 8-week postinjury clinical findings seen in Figure 49c?
Explanation
Patients older than age 40 years at the time of initial anterior dislocation have low rates of redislocation; however, 15% of these patients experience a rotator cuff tear. Moreover, there is a dramatic increase (up to 40%) in the incidence of rotator cuff tears in patients older than age 60 years. Axillary nerve injury may occur but is less common than rotator cuff tear. Koval KJ (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 7. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 273-284.
Question 87
Figure 24 shows the radiograph of a 10-year-old boy who sustained a valgus injury to the knee. Examination reveals grade III medial laxity. Initial management should consist of
Explanation
Based on the mechanism of injury and findings of medial laxity, the most likely diagnosis is injury to either the growth plate or the medial collateral ligament. With the open physeal plate, this area of injury is presumed present until proven otherwise; therefore, stress radiographs should be obtained before implementing any treatment or ordering more extensive and expensive tests. DeLee JC: Ligamentous injury of the knee, in Stanitski CL, DeLee JC, Drez D Jr (eds): Pediatric and Adolescent Sports Medicine. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1994, vol 3, pp 406-432. Clanton TO, DeLee JC, Sanders B, Neidre A: Knee ligament injuries in children. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1979;61:1195-1201.
Question 88
Figure 50 shows the cross table lateral radiograph of a 31-year-old paratrooper who has recalcitrant groin pain. The pain is worse after activities such as standing or sitting (driving). Examination reveals that pain can be reproduced by internal rotation of the leg with the hip and knee in 90 degrees of flexion. Extensive nonsurgical managment has failed to provide relief. What is the treatment of choice?
Explanation
The radiograph reveals the classic "bump" that is seen in patients with femoroacetabular impingement (FAI). Ganz and associates described two types of FAI. This patient has cam impingement, which describes a nonspherical femoral head being forced into the acetabulum during hip motion and resulting in labral and chondral injury. Hip arthroscopy and labral debridement is unlikely to control the symptoms because the underlying anatomic abnormality is often difficult to address with arthroscopy. The treatment involves surgical dislocation of the hip with preservation of the blood supply to the femoral head, removal of the asphericity on the femoral side (femoral osteoplasty), and removal of the acetabular rim (acetabular osteoplasty) if the latter is found to contribute to impingement. Ganz R, Gill TJ, Gautier E, et al: Surgical dislocation of the adult hip a technique with full access to the femoral head and acetabulum without the risk of avascular necrosis. J Bone Joint Surg Br 2001;83:1119-1124. Ganz R, Parvizi J, Beck M, et al: Femoroacetabular impingement: A cause for early osteoarthritis of the hip. Clin Orthop 2003;417:112-120.
Question 89
Figure 16 shows the clinical photograph of a 3-month-old infant with a foot deformity that has been nonprogressive since birth. Examination reveals that the deformity corrects actively and with passive manipulation. There is no associated equinus. Management should consist of
Explanation
The patient has bilateral metatarsus adductus deformities. In a long-term follow-up study by Farsetti and associates, deformities that were passively correctable spontaneously resolved and no treatment was required. More rigid deformities were successfully treated with serial manipulation, with good results in 90%. There were no poor results. Therefore, observation is the management of choice for passively correctable deformities. In feet that are more rigid, serial manipulation and casting is the management of choice.
Question 90
Osteophyte formation at the posteromedial olecranon and olecranon articulation in high-caliber throwing athletes is most often the result of underlying
Explanation
During the late acceleration phase of throwing, the triceps forcibly contracts, extending the elbow as the ball is released. Normally, this force is absorbed by the anterior capsule and the brachialis and biceps muscles. However, if the ulnar collateral ligament is insufficient, the elbow will be in a subluxated position during extension and cause impaction of the olecranon and the olecranon fossa posteromedially. Over time, osteophyte formation is likely to occur. Conway JE, Jobe FW, Glousman RE, Pink M: Medial instability of the elbow in throwing athletes: Treatment by repair or reconstruction of the ulnar collateral ligament. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1992;74:67-83.
Question 91
Figures 34a and 34b show the radiographs of a 28-year-old man who fell on his outstretched arm with significant force while mountain biking. The nerve deficit most likely to occur would result in weakness of
Explanation
The patient has a Monteggia fracture-dislocation (proximal ulnar fracture and radial head dislocation). The posterior interosseous nerve branch of the radial nerve is the most likely to be injured and could result in weakness of thumb extension and finger metacarpal extension. Considerably less likely are injuries to the more proximal radial nerve branches supplying the extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis, resulting in weak wrist extension; the ulnar nerve supplying the digital intrinsics, resulting in weak finger abduction; the anterior interosseous branch of the median nerve, resulting in weakness of the flexor pollicis longus; and the distal median nerve, resulting in weakness of thumb opposition. Bado JL: The Monteggia lesion. Clin Orthop 1967;50:71-86.
Question 92
A 55-year-old woman with polyarticular rheumatoid arthritis has had progressively increasing left shoulder pain for the past 2 years despite nonsurgical management. No focal weakness is noted during examination of the shoulder. AP and axillary radiographs are shown in Figures 47a and 47b. Treatment should consist of
Explanation
Unconstrained total shoulder arthroplasty has been found to yield satisfactory results in a high percentage of patients with rheumatoid involvement of the glenohumeral joint. Pain relief has been more predictable with total shoulder arthroplasty than humeral arthroplasty, and a glenoid component is favored when there is sufficient glenoid bone stock and an intact rotator cuff. Constrained or fixed-fulcrum devices have an unacceptably high failure rate because of loosening. Glenohumeral arthrodesis is avoided when the deltoid or rotator cuff is functioning because the functional results after arthroplasty are superior when compared with results of arthrodesis. Arthroscopic synovectomy may be helpful in early stages of the disease before extensive cartilage damage has occurred. Boyd AD Jr, Thomas WH, Scott RD, Sledge CB, Thornhill TS: Total shoulder arthroplasty versus hemiarthroplasty: Indications for glenoid resurfacing. J Arthroplasty 1990;5:329-336.
Question 93
A 30-year-old patient has had severe left hip pain and difficulty ambulating, necessitating the use of a cane, for the past 6 months. A photomicrograph of the femoral head sectioned at the time of surgery is shown in Figure 31. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
The photomicrograph demonstrates a wedge-shaped infarct with femoral head collapse; therefore, the diagnosis is osteonecrosis of the femoral head. Perthes disease and osteoarthritis do not involve a wedge-shaped defect. Tuberculosis of the hip joint results in greater destruction of the articular cartilage. Basset LW, Mirra JM, Cracchiolo A III: Ischemic necrosis of the femoral head: Correlation between magnetic resonance imaging and histologic sections. Clin Orthop 1987;223:181-187.
Question 94
A 45-year-old man has persistent hindfoot pain that is aggravated by weight-bearing activities. History reveals that he sustained a calcaneus fracture 2 years ago, and he underwent a subtalar fusion 1 year ago. Examination reveals tenderness in the sinus tarsi and across the transverse tarsal joint. A plain radiograph and a CT scan are shown in Figures 24a and 24b. A technetium Tc 99m bone scan reveals uptake at the subtalar joint and at the transverse tarsal joints. Management should now consist of
Explanation
The patient has a nonunion at the subtalar joint because of poor preparation of the arthrodesis site with incomplete removal of the articular cartilage. Clinically, he has arthritis at the transverse tarsal joint. Casting with a bone stimulator is not expected to result in a union of the subtalar arthrodesis. To address both the subtalar nonunion and the transverse tarsal joint arthritis, revision of the subtalar arthrodesis and conversion to a triple arthrodesis is the preferred option. Graves SC, Mann RA, Graves KO: Triple arthrodesis in older adults: Results after long-term follow-up. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1993;75:355-362. Haddad SL, Myerson MS, Pell RF IV, Schon LC: Clinical and radiographic outcome of revision surgery for failed triple arthrodesis. Foot Ankle Int 1997;18:489-499. Sangeorzan BJ, Smith D, Veith R, Hansen ST Jr: Triple arthrodesis using internal fixation in treatment of adult foot disorders. Clin Orthop 1993;294:299-307. Sangeorzan BJ: Salvage procedures for calcaneus fractures. Instr Course Lect 1997;46:339-346.
Question 95
When 6 weeks of noninvasive nonsurgical management fails to provide relief for a lumbar disk herniation, a trial of epidural steroid injections is likely to yield which of the following results?
Explanation
Lumbar epidural steroid injections appear to play a role in management of a lumbar disk herniation that has failed to respond to at least 6 weeks of nonsurgical treatment. Approximately 42% to 56% of patients report significant pain relief compared with 92% to 98% of those patients treated with diskectomy. Patients with extruded or sequestered herniations report the greatest and most rapid relief. Similarly, those with well-hydrated disk fragments report rapid relief of symptoms. A smaller percentage of patients report symptom relief compared with those having surgery, but the degree of improvement is similar for both groups and the improvement lasts up to 3 years. Butterman GR: Treatment of lumbar disc herniation: Epidural steroid injection compares with discectomy: A prospective, randomized study. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2004;86:670-679.
Question 96
A 43-year-old man reports a 3-year history of progressively worsening pain in the first metatarsophalangeal joint that is aggravated by activity. Larger shoes, intra-articular corticosteroid injections, and a Morton's extension pedorthic have failed to provide relief. Motion is limited to 10 degrees of dorsiflexion, and the "grind test" is positive. An AP radiograph is shown in Figure 39. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
Explanation
Stage III hallux rigidus comprises end-stage degenerative arthritis with loss of cartilage from the phalanx and metatarsal. Therefore, cheilectomy, osteotomy, and resection arthroplasty are inadequate. Resection arthroplasty results in diminished propulsion and transfer metatarsalgia. Resurfacing implant hemiarthroplasty remains unproven for earlier stages of hallux rigidus, but is not appropriate when there is cartilage loss from the base of the proximal phalanx. First metatarsophalangeal arthrodesis has proven to be a very reliable and functional treatment of end-stage hallux rigidus. Gibson JN, Thomson CE: Arthrodesis or total replacement arthroplasty for hallux rigidus: A randomized controlled trial. Foot Ankle Int 2005;26:680-690.
Question 97
Figures 45a and 45b show the radiographs of a 14-year-old boy who sustained a distal radius fracture while playing hockey. After 1 year the patient is asymptomatic. Follow-up and comparison radiographs and an MRI scan are shown in Figures 45c and 45d. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Explanation
The patient sustained a growth plate fracture of the distal radius and ulna. Although treated with closed reduction and casting, the follow-up radiographs demonstrate shortening of the radius in comparison to the ulna, and the MRI scan confirms thinning of the distal radius growth plate and bony bars consistent with a growth arrest. At this time, the discrepancy in length is too minor to consider lengthening of the radius; in addition, excision of a physeal bar with minimal growth potential is not likely to restore the gross discrepancy. Ulnar styloid fractures are rarely symptomatic and do not require treatment in the asymptomatic patient. Closure of the distal ulna growth plate will prevent further discrepancy between the radius and ulna. Vanheest A: Wrist deformities after fracture. Hand Clin 2006;22:113-120.
Question 98
During primary total knee arthroplasty with trial implants in place, the surgeon notes technically satisfactory patellar resurfacing and restoration of a physiologic mechanical axis but excessively lateral patellar tracking. Treatment should now include
Explanation
The most common causes of patellar instability after total knee arthroplasty are valgus malalignment, internal rotation of the femoral or tibial component, medialization of the femoral component, errors in patellar preparation and resurfacing, and failure to perform a lateral release. These factors should be addressed before considering capsular closure. Distal extensor mechanism realignment should be avoided because of the complication rate. The proximal extensor mechanism would not adequately compensate for implant malrotation. Barnes CL, Scott RD: Patellofemoral complications of total knee replacement, in Heckman JD (ed): Instructional Course Lectures 42. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1993, pp 309-314.
Question 99
A 22-year-old skier reports painful range of motion in the left thumb after falling forward on his outstretched hand while holding his ski pole. Examination of the left thumb reveals increased AP laxity and 45 degrees of valgus laxity at the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint. Examination of the right thumb shows 25 degrees of valgus laxity at the MCP joint. Radiographs are normal. Management should consist of
Explanation
The patient has a complete tear of the ulnar collateral ligament as defined by MCP joint laxity of greater than 30 degrees (or 15 degrees greater laxity compared with the opposite side). Primary repair is the treatment of choice because displacement of the ligament superficial to the adductor aponeurosis (Stener lesion) must be corrected. Any volar plate injury can be addressed during repair of the ulnar collateral ligament.
Question 100
In the preoperative planning of revision acetabular reconstruction, the surgeon should identify significant posterior column deficiency by noting which of the following radiographic features?
Explanation
Proximal and medial migration of the femoral head usually indicates deficiencies of the dome or anterior column. Wear of the polyethylene may result in osteolysis and impingement, which are not indicative of any major bone deficiency. A significant osteolytic lesion in the ischium may represent a major posterior column deficiency that can create a technical challenge during the reconstruction. Paprosky WG, Magnus RE: Principles of bone grafting in revision total hip arthroplasty: Acetabular technique. Clin Orthop 1994;298:147-155.